A solid cylinder has a diameter of 17.4 mm and a length of 50.3mm. It's mass is 49g . What is its density of the cylinder in metric tonnes per cubic metre? Give your answer to 1 significant figure.​

Answer:

Heat Flow Rate : ( About ) 87 W

Explanation:

The heat flowing out of the system each minute, will be represented by the following equation,

Q( cup ) + Q( water ) = m( cup ) [tex]*[/tex] c( al ) [tex]*[/tex] ΔT + m( w ) [tex]*[/tex] c( w ) [tex]*[/tex] ΔT

So as you can see, the mass of the aluminum cup is 150 grams. For convenience, let us convert that into kilograms,

150 grams = .15 kilograms - respectively let us convert the mass of water to kilograms,

800 grams = .8 kilograms

Now remember that the specific heat of aluminum is 900 J / kg [tex]*[/tex] K, and the specific heat of water = 4186 J / kg [tex]*[/tex] K. Therefore let us solve for " the heat flowing out of the system per minute, "

Q( cup ) + Q( water ) = .15 [tex]*[/tex] ( 900 J / kg [tex]*[/tex] K )  [tex]*[/tex] 1.5 + .8 [tex]*[/tex] ( 4186 J / kg [tex]*[/tex] K ) [tex]*[/tex] 1.5,

Q( cup ) + Q( water ) = 5225.7 Joules

And the heat flow rate should be Joules per minute,

5225.7 Joules / 60 seconds = ( About ) 87 W

Answer:

The  contribution of people to the cooling load of the store is 19722.5 W

Explanation:

Total amount of customers = 225

Total amount of employees = 20

Total amount of people in the store at that instant n = 245 people

Average rate of heat generation Q = 115 W

percentage of these heat generated that is sensible heat = 70%

Sensible heat raises the surrounding temperature. Latent heat only causes a change of state.

The total heat generated by all the people in the store = n x Q

==> 245 x 115 = 28175 W

but only 70% of this heat is sensible heat that raises the temperature of the store, therefore, the contribution of people to the cooling load of the store = 70% of 28175 W

==> 0.7 x 28175 = 19722.5 W

Answer:

The speed of m2 just before it hits the ground is 2.1 m/s

Explanation:

mass on the ground m1 = 30 kg

mass oat rest at the above the ground m2 = 35 kg

height of m2 above the ground =2.9 m

Let the tension on the string be taken as T

for the mass m2 to reach the ground, its force equation is given as

[tex]m_{2} g - T = m_{2}a[/tex]    ....equ 1

where g is acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/s^2

and a is the acceleration with which it moves down

For mass m1 to move up, its force equation is

[tex]T - m_{1} g = m_{1} a[/tex]

[tex]T = m_{1}a + m_{1}g[/tex]

[tex]T = m_{1}(a + g)[/tex]    ....equ 2

substituting T in equ 1, we have

[tex]m_{2} g - m_{1}(a+g) = m_{2}a[/tex]

imputing values, we have

 [tex](35*9.81) - 30(a+9.81) = 35a[/tex]

 [tex]343.35 - 30a-294.3 = 35a[/tex]

[tex]343.35 -294.3 = 35a+ 30a[/tex]

[tex]49.05 = 65a[/tex]

a = 49.05/65 = 0.755 m/s^2

The initial velocity of mass m2 = u = 0

acceleration of mass m2 = a = 0.755 m/s^2

distance to the ground = d = 2.9 m

final velocity = v = ?

using Newton's equation of motion

[tex]v^{2}= u^{2} + 2ad[/tex]

substituting values, we have

[tex]v^{2}= 0^{2} + 2*0.755*2.9[/tex]

[tex]v^{2}= 2*0.755*2.9 = 4.379\\v = \sqrt{4.379}[/tex]

v = 2.1 m/s

Answer:

OPTION B is correct

Carbon

Explanation:

element can be defined as a pure substance which cannot be broken down by into smaller units through a chemical method, an element has atoms with identical numbers of protons in their atomic nuclei

Each element is composed of its own type of atom. And this gives the reason why chemical elements are all very different from each other. And all substance on Earth has atoms of at least one of this elements.

There about 118 elements and all arranged in a row and colomn of the periodic table .This elements of the periodic table are arranged by their atomic number, which helps with the chemical properties. Example of elements are; Hydrogen, Oxygeñ, carbon.

Therefore, among the option only carbon is an element because it cannot be broken down into smaller unit unlike water which is made up of oxygen and hydrogen. Also salt is a compound containing more elements.

The substance which represents an element given the following option is carbon (option B)

An element is a pure substance that consist of identical atoms.

An element can not be broken down into simple substances by ordinary methods.

The period table consist of a large number of elements. Some of which are:

We must also understand that when two or more elements are chemically combined together it is called a compound and when they are not chemically combined together, it is called a mixture.

Thus, we can conclude that the correct answer to the question is Carbon (option B)

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#SPJ6

Note: if the professor wants the distance between the m = 0 and m = 1 maxima to be 25 cm

Answer:

d = 1.0128×10⁻⁵m

Explanation:

given:

length L = 4.0m

maximum distance between m = 0 and m = 1 , y = 25cm = 0.25m

wavelength λ = 633nm = 633×10⁻⁹m

note:

dsinθ = mλ (constructive interference)

where d is slit seperation, θ is angle of seperation , m is order of interference , and λ is wavelength

for small angle

sinθ ≈ tanθ

[tex]d (\frac{y}{L}) =[/tex] mλ

[tex]d (\frac{y}{L}) = (1)(633nm)[/tex]

[tex]d(\frac{0.25}{4} ) = (1)(633nm)[/tex]

d = 1.0128×10⁻⁵m

Answer:

Explanation:

For circular path in magnetic field

mv² / R = Bqv ,

m is mass , v is velocity , R is radius of circular path , B is magnetic field , q is charge on the particle .

a )

R = mv / Bq

If v is changed  to 2v , keeping other factors unchanged , R will be doubled

b )

magnitude of acceleration inside field

= v² / R

= Bqv / m

As v is doubled , acceleration will also be doubled

c )

If T be the time inside the magnetic field

T = π R / v

=  π  / v x  mv / Bq

= π m / Bq

As is does not contain v that means T  remains unchanged .

d )

Net force acting on electron

= m v² / R = Bqv

Net force = Bqv

As v becomes twice force too becomes twice .

So a . b , d are correct answer.

Answer:

I believe it's called rapid growth

Explanation:

that is my answer no matter what

Answer:

w = √ 1 / CL

This does not violate energy conservation because the voltage of the power source is equal to the voltage drop in the resistence

Explanation:

This problem refers to electrical circuits, the circuits where this phenomenon occurs are series RLC circuits, where the resistor, the capacitor and the inductance are placed in series.

In these circuits the impedance is

             X = √ (R² +  ([tex]X_{C}[/tex] -[tex]X_{L}[/tex])² )

where Xc and XL is the capacitive and inductive impedance, respectively

            X_{C} = 1 / wC

           X_{L} = wL

From this expression we can see that for the resonance frequency

           X_{C} = X_{L}

the impedance of the circuit is minimal, therefore the current and voltage are maximum and an increase in signal intensity is observed.

This does not violate energy conservation because the voltage of the power source is equal to the voltage drop in the resistence

               V = IR

Since the contribution of the two other components is canceled, this occurs for

                X_{C} = X_{L}

                1 / wC = w L

                w = √ 1 / CL

Answer:

Please see below as the answer is self-explanatory.

Explanation:

The low band of the VHF TV Spectrum, spans channels 2-6, from 54 to 88 Mhz.

In the analog TV, in the Americas, the total bandwidth of any channel is 6 Mhz, with the visual carrier modulated in VSS (Vestigial Side Band) at 1.25 Mhz from the lowest frequency of the channel.

The aural carrier is located at 4.5 Mhz from the visual carrier, and is FM modulated.

For Channel 6, which spans between 82 and  88 Mhz, the visual carrier is at 83.25 Mhz, so the aural carrier is at 87.75 Mhz, which falls within the FM Band, so it is possible to listen the audio part of this channel in a FM radio receiver, even at a lower volume, due to the FM radio has a greater deviation than TV aural carrier.

The reason why it is possible for TV station to sometimes pick up some of the audio portion on your FM radio receiver is because; TV waves can sometimes deviate into the FM radio frequency range.

Let us start with explaining the waves of TV and radio.

The frequency range utilized by TV stations is either the range 54 MHz to 88 MHz or 174 MHz to 222 MHz. In contrast, the frequency range utilized by FM Radio band is between 88 MHz and 174 MHz.

Now, in some cases, it is possible that the TV signal may deviate into the range of the FM Radio and as such in that case, the TV signal will pick the audio portion of an FM Radio. These TV waves are very high frequency waves.

Finally, it does not imply that the TV wave is broadcasting as an FM because it only deviated a bit from the TV range and not like that is where it is made to operate.

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Answer:

The  time interval is  [tex]t = 3 \ s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The angular acceleration is  [tex]\alpha = 4.0 \ rad/s^2[/tex]

     The  time taken is  [tex]t = 4.0 \ s[/tex]

      The angular displacement is  [tex]\theta = 80 \ radians[/tex]

The angular displacement can be represented by the second equation of motion as shown below

          [tex]\theta = w_i t + \frac{1}{2} \alpha t^2[/tex]

where  [tex]w_i[/tex] is the initial velocity at the start of the 4 second interval

So substituting values

        [tex]80 = w_i * 4 + 0.5 * 4.0 * (4^2)[/tex]

=>    [tex]w_i = 12 \ rad/s[/tex]

Now considering this motion starting from the start point (that is rest ) we have

       [tex]w__{4.0 }} = w__{0}} + \alpha * t[/tex]

Where  [tex]w__{0}}[/tex] is the angular velocity at rest which is zero  and  [tex]w__{4}}[/tex] is the angular velocity after 4.0 second which is calculated as 12 rad/s s

        [tex]12 = 0 + 4 t[/tex]

=>       [tex]t = 3 \ s[/tex]

Following are the response to the given question:

Given:

[tex]\to \alpha = 4.0 \ \frac{rad}{s^2}\\\\[/tex]

[tex]\to \theta= 80\ radians\\\\\to t= 4.0 \ s\\\\ \to \theta_0=0\\[/tex]

To find:

[tex]\to \omega=?\\\\\to t=?\\\\[/tex]

Solution:

Using formula:

[tex]\to \theta- \theta_0 = w_{0} t+ \frac{1}{2} \alpha t^2\\\\ \to 80-0= \omega_{0}(4) + \frac{1}{2} (4)(4^2)\\\\ \to 80= \omega_{0}(4) + \frac{1}{2} (4)(16)\\\\\\to 80= \omega_{0}(4) + (4)(8)\\\\\to 80= \omega_{0}(4) + 32\\\\\to 80-32 = \omega_{0}(4) \\\\\to \omega_{0}(4)= 48 \\\\\to \omega_{0}= \frac{48}{4} \\\\ \to \omega_{0} = 12 \frac{rad}{ s} \\\\[/tex]  

It would be the angle for rotation at the start of the 4-second interval.

This duration can be estimated by leveraging the fact that the wheel begins from rest.  

[tex]\to \omega = \omega_{0} + \alpha t\\\\\to 12 = 0 +4(t) \\\\\to 12 = 4(t) \\\\ \to t=\frac{12}{4}\\\\\to t= 3\ s[/tex]

Therefore, the answer is "[tex]12\ \frac{rad}{s}[/tex] and [tex]3 \ s[/tex]".

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Answer:

Option A

Explanation:

From the graph, we came to know that Force and acceleration are in direct relationship.

Also,

Force = 0 when Acceleration = 0

Because Both are 0 at the origin.

Answer:

A. It will be 0 meters per second per second.

Explanation:

The force and acceleration is in a proportional relationship, that means the line goes through the origin.

On the graph, when the force is at 0, the acceleration is 0. The line passes through the origin.

Answer:

Mass of shot (m) = 4 kg

Explanation:

Given:

Velocity (v) = 15 m/s

Mechanical kinetic energy (K.E) = 450 J

Find:

Mass of shot (m) = ?

Computation:

Mechanical kinetic energy (K.E) = 1/2mv²

Mechanical kinetic energy (K.E) = [1/2](m)(15)²

450 = [1/2](m)(15)²

900 = 225 m

Mass of shot (m) = 4 kg

Answer:

Option 3 = both spheres are at the same potential.

Explanation:

So, let us complete or fill the missing gap in the question above;

" A charge is placed on a spherical conductor of radius r1. This sphere is then connected to a distant sphere of radius r2 (not equal to r1) by a conducting wire. After the charges on the spheres are in equilibrium BOTH SPHERES ARE AT THE SAME POTENTIAL"

The reason both spheres are at the same potential after the charges on the spheres are in equilibrium is given below:

=> So, if we take a look at the Question again, the kind of connection described in the question above (that is a charged sphere, say X is connected another charged sphere, say Y by a conducting wire) will eventually cause the movement of charges(which initially are not of the same potential) from X to Y and from Y to X and this will continue until both spheres are at the same potential.

Answer:

406 nm

Explanation:

We are given;

Wavelength; λ = 775 nm

Refractive index of Calcium fluoride with wavelength of 775 nm as seen in the graph attached is approximately 1.4308.

n = 1.4308

Formula for the thickness of the film that would destruct the light is;

t = (m + 0.5)(λ/2n)

Where m is the order of the thickness.

The first smallest thickness is at m = 0 while the second smallest thickness is at m = 1.

Thus;

t = (1 + 0.5)(775/(2 × 1.4308))

t ≈ 406 nm

Answer:

D. 0.1

Explanation:

Using transformer equation,

N2/N1 = I1/I2................... Equation 1

Where N2 = secondary coil, N1 = primary coil, I1 = input current, I2 = output current.

make I2  the subject of the equation

I2 = I1/(N2/N1)............ Equation 2

From equation 2 above, For the output current of the secondary coil to be 10 times the input current, N2/N1 = 0.1

Hence the right option is D. 0.1

Answer:

A. Attractive

B. ( μ₀I² ) / ( 2πd )

Explanation:

A. We know that currents in the same direction attract, and currents in the opposite direction repel, according to ampere's law. In this case the current in the two wires are flowing in the same direction, and hence the force between the two wires are attractive.

B. Suppose that two wires of length [tex]l_1[/tex] and [tex]l_2[/tex] both carry the current [tex]I[/tex] in the same direction ( given ). In the presence of a magnetic field produced by wire 1, a force of magnitude m say, is experienced by wire 2. The magnitude of the magnetic field produced by wire 1 at distance say d, from it's axis, should thus be the following -

[tex]B_1[/tex] = μ₀I / 2πd

The force experienced by wire 2 should thus be -

[tex]F_2[/tex] = I( [tex]l_2[/tex] [tex]*[/tex] [tex]B_1[/tex] )

= I [tex]*[/tex] [tex]l_2 * B_1 *[/tex] Sin( 90 )

= I [tex]*[/tex] [tex]l_2[/tex] ( μ₀I / 2πd )

Therefore the force per unit length experienced by wire 2 toward wire 1 should be ...

( [tex]F_2[/tex] / [tex]l_2[/tex] ) = ( μ₀I² ) / ( 2πd ) ... which is our solution

Answer:

The acceleration is  [tex]a = 2.190 *10^{-7} \ m/s^2[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

      The  distance of separation of the ship is  [tex]r= 109 \ m[/tex]

       The mass of each ship is  [tex]M = 39,000 \ metric\ tons =39,000 * 1000 = 3.9 *10^{7}\ kg[/tex]

The gravitational force of attraction exerted on each other is mathematically represented as

            [tex]F_g = \frac{ GMM}{r^2}[/tex]

Where G is the gravitational  constant with value

substituting values

          [tex]F_g = \frac{ 6.674 30 * 10^{-11} (3.9 *10^{7})^2}{109^2}[/tex]

         [tex]F_g = 8.54 \ N[/tex]

This force can also be mathematically represented as

        [tex]F_g = M * a[/tex]

=>   [tex]a = \frac{F_g}{M}[/tex]

substituting values

     [tex]a = \frac{8.544}{3.9 *10^{7}}[/tex]

     [tex]a = 2.190 *10^{-7} \ m/s^2[/tex]

Answer:

The  induced current is [tex]I = 6.25*10^{-4} \ A[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that  

    The number of turns is  [tex]N = 1[/tex]

     The  cross-sectional area is  [tex]A = 8.20 cm^2 = 8.20 * 10^{-4} \ m^2[/tex]

    The  initial magnetic field is  [tex]B_i = 0.500 \ T[/tex]

     The  magnetic field at time =  1.02 s  is  [tex]B_t = 2.60 \ T[/tex]

     The  resistance is  [tex]R = 2.70\ \Omega[/tex]

The  induced emf is mathematically represented as

       [tex]\epsilon = - N * \frac{ d\phi }{dt}[/tex]

The  negative sign tells us that the induced emf is moving opposite to the change in magnetic flux

      Here  [tex]d\phi[/tex] is the change in magnetic flux which is mathematically represented as

        [tex]d \phi = dB * A[/tex]

Where  dB  is the change in magnetic field which is mathematically represented as

        [tex]dB = B_t - B_i[/tex]

substituting values

        [tex]dB = 2.60 - 0.500[/tex]

        [tex]dB = 2.1 \ T[/tex]

Thus  

      [tex]d \phi = 2.1 * 8.20 *10^{-4}[/tex]

     [tex]d \phi = 1.722*10^{-3} \ weber[/tex]

So  

     [tex]|\epsilon| = 1 * \frac{ 1.722*10^{-3}}{1.02}[/tex]

     [tex]|\epsilon| = 1.69 *10^{-3} \ V[/tex]

The  induced current i mathematically represented as

      [tex]I = \frac{\epsilon}{ R }[/tex]

  substituting values

       [tex]I = \frac{1.69*10^{-3}}{ 2.70 }[/tex]

       [tex]I = 6.25*10^{-4} \ A[/tex]

Answer:

The object with the twice the area of the other object, will have the larger drag coefficient.

Explanation:

The equation for drag force is given as

[tex]F_{D} = \frac{1}{2}pu^{2} C_{D} A[/tex]

where [tex]F_{D}[/tex] IS the drag force on the object

p = density of the fluid through which the object moves

u = relative velocity of the object through the fluid

p = density of the fluid

[tex]C_{D}[/tex] = coefficient of drag

A = area of the object

Note that [tex]C_{D}[/tex] is a dimensionless coefficient related to the object's geometry and taking into account both skin friction and form drag. The most interesting things is that it is dependent on the linear dimension, which means that it will vary directly with the change in diameter of the fluid

The above equation can also be broken down as

[tex]F_{D}[/tex] ∝ [tex]P_{D}[/tex] A

where [tex]P_{D}[/tex] is the pressure exerted by the fluid on the area A

Also note that [tex]P_{D}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{2}pu^{2}[/tex]

which also clarifies that the drag force is approximately proportional to the abject's area.

In this case, the object with the twice the area of the other object, will have the larger drag coefficient.

Answer: Translational Kinetic Energy

Rotational Kinetic Energy

Explanation:

An object has translational kinetic energy when it is undergoing through a linear displacement.

Rotational energy is kinetic energy due to the rotation of an object .

Here the wheel of bicycle undergoes both translational and rotational kinetic energy has it moves with linear displacement with rotation in it.

Hence, the tires have been two kinds of energy : translational and rotational kinetic energy

Answer:

The maximum speed of the motorcycle should be 21 m/s

Explanation:

Since the hill is considered to be a circular arc, the motorcycle will experience centripetal force that tends to flip it away from the center of the hill.

Since the motorcycle does not lose contact with the ground, it means that the weight of the motorcycle downwards just balances the centripetal force on the motorcycle.

we know that the centripetal force on the motorcycle is equal to

centripetal force = [tex]\frac{mv^{2} }{r}[/tex]

where m is the mass of the motorcycle,

v is the velocity of the motorcycle,

and r is the radius of the hill = 45.0 m

Also we now that the weight of the motorcycle is equal to

weight = mg

where m is still the mass of the motorcycle,

and g is the acceleration due to gravity = 9.81 m/s

Equating the both forces since they are equal, we'll have

[tex]\frac{mv^{2} }{r}[/tex] = mg

the mass of the motorcycle will cancel out, and we'll be left with

[tex]v^{2} = gr[/tex]

[tex]v = \sqrt{gr}[/tex]

[tex]v = \sqrt{9.81*45}[/tex]

[tex]v = \sqrt{441.45}[/tex]

[tex]v[/tex] = 21 m/s

Answer:

acting force is the answer

The direction of the magnetic force on the moving electron is upward.

The direction of the magnetic force on the electron can be determined by applying right hand rule.

This rule states that when the thumb is held perpendicular to the fingers, the thumb will point in the direction of the speed while the fingers will point in the direction of the field and the magnetic force will be perpendicular to the field.

Thus, we can conclude that, the direction of the magnetic force on the moving electron is upward.

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Answer:

The  voltage is [tex]V_c = 9.92 \ V[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The voltage of the battery is  [tex]V_b = 24 \ V[/tex]

     The capacitance of the capacitor is  [tex]C = 3.0 mF = 3.0 *10^{-3} \ F[/tex]

     The  resistance of the resistor is [tex]R = 100\ \Omega[/tex]

     The time taken is  [tex]t = 0.16 \ s[/tex]  

Generally the voltage of a charging charging capacitor after time t is mathematically represented as

       [tex]V_c = V_o (1 - e^{- \frac{t}{RC} })[/tex]

Here [tex]V_o[/tex] is the voltage of the capacitor when it is fully charged which in the case of this question is equivalent to the voltage of the battery so  

      [tex]V_c = 24 (1 - e^{- \frac{0.16}{100 * 3.0 *10^{-1}} })[/tex]

      [tex]V_c = 9.92 \ V[/tex]

Answer:

Weight is 83 385 N

Explanation:

Weight is calculated by multiplying the mass by the gravitational acceleration constant

       Weight = mass* gravity

Assuming that the gravitational constant is 9.81 m/s^2

        Weight = mass* gravity

        Weight of crane = (8500 kg)*(9.81 m/s^2)

        Weight = 83 385 kg*m/s^2 or 83 385 N

Answer:

R' = R/2

Therefore, the new resistance of the wire is twice the value of the initial resistance.

Explanation:

Consider a wire with:

Resistance = R

Length = L

Area = A = πr²

where, r = radius

ρ = resistivity

Then:

R = ρL/A

R = ρL/πr²   --------------- equation 1

Now, the new wire has:

Resistance = R'

Resistivity = ρ

Length = L' = 2 L

Radius = r' = 2r

Area = πr'² = π(2r)² = 4πr²

Therefore,

R' = ρL'/πr'²

R' = ρ(2 L)/4πr²

R' = (1/2)(ρL/πr²)

using equation 1:

R' = R/2

Therefore, the new resistance of the wire is twice the value of the initial resistance.

Answer:

2.52 rpm

Explanation:

given that

diameter of the wheel, d = 25 m

Mass of the person, m = 75 kg

Weight experienced, N = 810 N

Since diameter is 25, radius then is 25/2 = 12.5 m

We all know that,

v = rw

Also, the passengers weight is equal to the centripetal acceleration, and thus

mg = mv²/r

Substitute for v, we have

mg = m/r * (rw)²

mg = mr²w²/r

g = rw²

If we make w the subject of formula, we have

w² = g/r

w = √(g/r)

mg = 810

75 * g = 810

g = 810 / 75

g = 1.08 m/s²

w = √(g/r)

w = √(1.08 / 12.5)

w = √0.0864

w = 0.294 rad/s

Since the question asked us in rpm, we convert to rpm

0.294 * (60 / 2π)

2.52 revolution per minute.

Answer:

Explanation:

speed of alien spaceship = .1 c

We shall apply formula of relativistic mechanics to solve the problem

relative velocity =

[tex]\frac{v+v_1}{1 -\frac{v\times v }{c^2} }[/tex]

Here v = v₁ = .1 c

relative velocity  = .1c + .1 c / 1 - .1²

= .2 c / .99

= .202 c

The earth would receive the signal at the speed of .202 c .

The change in internal energy (ΔE) of the system is equal to -18823 Kilojoules.

Given the following data:

Conversion:

1 kcal = 4.184 kJ

[tex]4.50 \times 10^2 \;kcal[/tex] = [tex]4.50 \times 10^2 \times 4.184 = 18828 \; kJ[/tex]

To determine the change in internal energy (ΔE) of the system, we would apply the first law of thermodynamics.​

Mathematically, the first law of thermodynamics is given by the formula:

[tex]\Delta E = Q - W[/tex]

Where;

Substituting the given parameters into the formula, we have;

[tex]\Delta E = 5 - 18828\\\\\Delta E = -18823[/tex]

Change in internal energy, E = -18823 Kilojoules

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Answer:

Net charge = E• b • L^3.

Explanation:

NB: here, the symbol representation of the flux is "p" = electric Field • Area(dot Product).

So, we will take a look at the flux through -x face, through x face and through -y face, through y face and through - z face and through z face.

(1). Starting from -z and z faces which are the back and front faces of the cube:

Thus, We have that the flux,p = 0 for -z and z.

(2). Recall that we are given that E = =(a+bx)i^+cj^.

Thus, p_-y = (a + bx)i + cj (-j) (L^2)

Where y = 0

p_-y = -cL^2.

Obviously for p_j, we will have cL^2 and y = L

(3). For p_-x = =(a + bx)i + cj (-i) (L^2).

p_-x = -aL^2

Where x = 0.

When x = L and p_x = (a + bL)L^2.

This, adding all together gives Net charge = E • b • L^3.