Answer:
it's energy correct
Explanation:
hope u new itmarry Christmasthe three tissue systems of a mature plant root complete their development in the root zone of a) cell division. b) elongation. c) differentiation.
The three main tissue systems for a mature plant root which completes their development during the root zone is differentiation. Option (c) is correct.
Elongation happens simply beneath the hints of developing stems withinside the apical meristems. The 3 tissue structures of a mature plant root whole their improvement withinside the root area of differentiation. The stems and leaves collectively make up the shoot system. Each organ (roots, stems, and leaves) consist of all 3 tissue kinds (floor, vascular, and dermal).
Different cell kinds incorporate every tissue kind, and the shape of every cell kind affects the characteristic of the tissue it comprises. The roots of seed flora have 3 primary functions: anchoring the plant to the soil, soaking up water and minerals and transporting them upwards, and storing the goods of photosynthesis. Some roots are changed to take in moisture and trade gases. Most roots are underground. Some flora, however, additionally have adventitious roots, which emerge above the floor from the shoot.
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Which cerebral lobe is responsible for voluntary motor function, motivation, memory, mood, and aggression?.
Our personality resides in the frontal lobes, which are thought to be our emotional control center.
What does each brain lobe control?The frontal lobe plays a key role in cognitive processes and in the regulation of voluntary motion or activity. The occipital lobe is mostly in charge of vision, whereas the parietal lobe handles information concerning temperature, taste, touch, and movement.
What is in charge of voluntary motor activity?The motor cortex, a region of the brain situated behind the frontal lobe, controls these voluntary movements. A neural signal from the motor cortex travels from the brain stem, via the spinal cord, and into the neural network to the muscle being controlled.
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TRUE/FALSE. the lateral collateral ligament originates on the lateral femoral condyle distally to the popliteus muscle origin and inserts on the fibular head.
False: The lateral collateral ligament does not begin on the lateral femoral condyle but rather inserts on the head of the fibula.
Where do the tibial collateral ligament's insertion and origin occur?107.1). The medial collateral ligament, or tibial collateral ligament, is a wide, flat, band-like ligament that connects the medial condyle of the femur to the medial part of the tibia shaft, right above the groove where the semimembranosus muscle attaches.
Do the lateral collateral ligament and the lateral meniscus have an attachment?Comparing the MCL to its anatomy: The LCL is known to be more cord-like than fan-like, in contrast to the medial collateral ligament (MCL), which is another difference between them.
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an individual's exposure to an airborne pathogen has prompted an immune response that includes both cellular and humoral components. which of the following activities is most closely associated with the humoral immune response?
B cells create antibodies that are exclusive to the disease, which best explains the humoral immune response.
The humoral immune response is the type of immune response in which B cells produce antibodies to kill external bacteria and stop the progression of intracellular illnesses. Helper T cells are usually required to activate B cells and induce their development into plasma cells that secrete antibodies.
During this process, first, the antigen binds to the antigen receptor in the B-cell. This B-cell will engulf and digest this antigen into fragments. These fragments are then presented to the T-cell via the MHC complex.
In response to this T-cells will release cytokines. These cytokines will activate the B-cells to produce antibody-producing plasma cells. The antibodies will further bind to the antigen to kill and eliminate them from the body.
Therefore, option c is the correct statement.
The complete question is -
An individual's exposure to an airborne pathogen has prompted an immune response that includes both cellular and humoral components. Which of the following activities is most closely associated with the humoral immune response?
a. T cells directly attack the foreign pathogen.
b. A circulating lymphocyte containing an antigenic message returns to the nearest lymph node.
c. B lymphocytes produce antibodies that are specific to the pathogen.
d. Granulocytes and macrophages engulf and destroy the invading agents.
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In this assignment, describe how the cell parts work together to make a protein beginning with DNA (in the nucleus) and ending with exocytosis. How do the parts of a cell function to produce a protein and release it from the cell? Use the following terms CORRECTLY: DNA, RNA, ribosome, protein, Golgi Apparatus, Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum, nucleus. What do the following parts to do help? mitochondria, lysosomes, vesicles? Finally, what happens during exocytosis?
The instructions for making a protein are contained in the cell's DNA. When a protein is generated, a copy of the DNA (called mRNA) is synthesised and delivered to a ribosome. Ribosomes read information from mRNA and utilise it to assemble amino acids into proteins.
What is exocytosis?Exocytosis, which occurs when secretory vesicles fuse with the plasma membrane, causes the release of vesicle content into the extracellular space and the integration of fresh proteins and lipids into the plasma membrane.
Proteins from the ER are processed and sorted in the Golgi apparatus, or Golgi complex, which serves as a factory where they are eventually transported to lysosomes, the plasma membrane, or secretion. In order to regulate the pace and volume of vesicular content release, exocytosis strength, and mediate exocytosis plasticity, including synaptic plasticity, secretory cells use three exocytosis modes: full-collapse fusion, kiss-and-run, and compound exocytosis. Exocytosis facilitates cellular communication, waste elimination, and membrane development and repair.DNA serves as a template for the production of a messenger RNA molecule during transcription (mRNA). . After then, the mRNA molecule leaves the nucleus and travels to the ribosome in the cytoplasm, wherein translation takes place. The genetic code in mRNA is read and utilized to build a protein during translation.To know more about DNA refer to:
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what is the net amount of atp gained from anaerobic breakdown (glycolysis) of one molecule of glucose in the cytoplasm during anaerobic respiration?
Glycolysis generates only two total molecules of ATP per glucose molecule from anaerobic breakdown (glycolysis) of one molecule of glucose in the cytoplasm during anaerobic respiration.
Glycolysis is the process of breaking down sugar molecules to release energy for cellular metabolism. It takes place in the cell's cytoplasm. The primary goal of glycolysis is to produce thousands of ATP molecules for use in various cellular metabolisms. The primary goal of glycolysis is to produce pyruvate for the trichloroacetic acid (TCA) cycle rather than to produce adenosine 5′-triphosphate.
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Relate the effect of cloud seeding to water cycle in the UAE.
Although cloud seeding is frequently referred to as "creating" rain, it is actually more appropriately described as moving rain from one place to another. In other words, cloud seeding may only redistribute risk. Condensing water that is already present in cloud formations is known as cloud seeding.
How often is+ cloud seeding practiced in the UAE?It is the start of another cloud-seeding mission, one of nearly 200 that the NCMS conducts over the United Arab Emirates each year in an effort to artificially increase rainfall.
Silver iodide cloud seeding hasn't yet been found to have any negative environmental effects, according to experts. The amount of silver in a cloud-seeding storm is much lower than the accepted limit of 50 micrograms per liter.
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which of these statements about heritability is false? group of answer choices twin studies can offer insight into broad sense heritability of human traits. heritability measures the extent to which environmental variation contributes to the total phenotypic variation. broad sense heritability measures the ratio of genetic variance to phenotypic variance. narrow sense heritability measures the contribution of additive genotypic variance to phenotypic variance. high narrow sense heritability values are correlated with a greater degree of response to artificial selection.
heritability do not measures the extent to which environmental variation contributes to the total phenotypic variation.
The amount of phenotypic variable that can be attributed to genetic variance is known as heritability, and it is a key indicator of how well a population will react to either artificial or natural selection.
Think about, for instance, a 2001 study by researcher Patrik Waldmann on the endangered shrub Scabiosa canescens. This plant is frequently found in extremely small populations, like many uncommon species. Since these populations are predicted to have little genetic variety, their capacity for adaptation would be constrained.
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movement of muscles during inspiration allows expansion of the lungs and thus a decrease in internal lung pressure (decrease in alveoli pressure), resulting in air entering into the alveoli. which of the following statements describes what makes this possible?
The lungs' pleural fluid makes the lung walls adhere to the thoracic wall. The diaphragm flattens and tightens during inspiration , and the chest cavity widens.
A vacuum is produced by the contraction, drawing air into the lungs. The diaphragm relaxes and assumes its dome-like form during exhalation, forcing air from the lungs. Your diaphragm contracts and descends when you inspiration, or breathe in. Your lungs expand into the additional space in your chest cavity as a result. The muscles in the area between your ribs also aid in chest cavity expansion. As a result of the diaphragm and intercostal muscles contracting during inhaling, the lung volume increases.
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Students are comparing the functions of carbohydrates and lipids. Which cellular function would be shared between carbohydrates and lipids?.
Carbohydrates and lipids are both represented in the Venn diagram Both hold energy.
A Venn diagram is a widely known schematic style that portrays the logical connection among sets. It was popularised by John Venn in the 1880s. The diagrams are used in probability, logic, statistics, linguistics, and computer science to teach elementary set theory and to illustrate simple set relationships. As a result, a Venn diagram employs overlapping circles or other shapes to depict the logical relationships between two or more groups of items. They frequently serve to graphically organise things, highlighting how similar and different the items are. As a result, a full Venn diagram represents the union of two sets. n: Two-set intersection. The intersection demonstrates which items are shared by different categories.Carbohydrate, specifically glucose, is the primary source of energy for the majority of metabolic processes in the body. Lipids are an important source of energy and provide essential fatty acids for brain development. Carbohydrates and lipids work together to provide non-nitrogen.
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________ carry sensory information to the CNS.
Motor neurons
Interneurons
Multipolar neurons
Afferent neurons
Efferent neurons
Afferent division- brings sensory information to the CNS from receptors in peripheral tissues and organs.
Which neurons carry sensory information to CNS?Sensory neurons are the nerve cells that are activated by sensory input from the environment - for example, when you touch a hot surface with your fingertips, the sensory neurons will be the ones firing and sending off signals to the rest of the nervous system about the information they have received.Afferent neurons carry information from sensory receptors of the skin and other organs to the central nervous system (i.e., brain and spinal cord), whereas efferent neurons carry motor information away from the central nervous system to the muscles and glands of the body.The three major type of neurons are- Sensory neuron, Motor neurons and interruptions.Afferent neurons are the sensory neurons which transmit the impulse from the sensory receptors of the body to the central nervous system- brain or spinal cord.Sensory neurons convert the signals from the outer part of the body to the central nervous system of the body. Motor neurons carry the signals out of the central nervous system. the function of the inter-neurons are to connect the various neurons to the brain and spinal cord. Afferent neurons carry nerve impulses to the CNS ( central nervous system).The afferent neuron receives the stimulus which generates the impulse. this impulse travels down to the interneuron where the stimulus is interpreted and response is sent through efferent neuron or motor neuron to muscle.To learn more about CNS refer to:
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A laboratory investigation examined the growth rate of fruit flies in culture jars over time. The fruit flies were grown in an artificial medium containing nutrients and moisture. They were enclosed in a culture jar of a defined size. Initially, there were ten fruit flies in the experiment. The population reached 75 over the course of four weeks. However, after eight weeks, the population size leveled off and then decreased. Survival of fruit fly larvae declined after eight weeks. Which hypotheses are supported by the information in this scenario? select all that apply?.
During the first four weeks of the experiment, food was plentiful and the fly population exceeded capacity. Drosophila could not survive in the laboratory environment. Capacity decreased when no new food was added to the culture vessel.
Drosophila is chosen because of its high growth rate and short life cycle.
The carrying capacity of Drosophila has allowed them to reproduce at ever faster rates due to the large amount of food source supplied to the flies and the ability to continue the cycle.
Drosophila can reach growth rate limits in their natural habitat and are unable to reach the same growth rate once they reach an artificial environment.
Less carrying capacity unless new lining is added culture vessel. Over time, as the food source added to the jar decreased, the flies stopped growing and decreased in number.
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What number labeled on the microscope diagram identifies the fine adjustment knob?
A.) 13
B.) 10
C.) 4
Which letter choice is correct? A, B, or C?
The number labeled on the microscope diagram identifies the fine adjustment knob is 13. Option A is correct.
What is a microscope?A microscope is an instrument that is used to produce an enlarged image of microscopic objects.
Microscopic objects are objects whose size ranges from less than 10⁻⁶ m
There are several types of microscopes. The types of microscopes include:
Simple microscope.Compound microscope.Electron microscope.The image shows a compound microscope. The various parts of a compound microscope include:
BasePillarArmStageInclination jointClipsDiaphragmNose pieceBody tubeFine adjustment knobCoarse adjustment knobEyepiece lens or OcularMirrorObjective lensesLearn more about microscope at: https://brainly.com/question/820911
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1. compare your d1s80 pcr product with those of the rest of the class. did any students have genotypes similar to yours? how could you explain such similarities?
Although each student's mitochondrial DNA is unique due to the fact that we all inherited it from our mothers, the sequences of our PCR results will be the same because the same region is being amplified.
The sequences of our PCR findings will be the same because the same region is being amplified, despite the fact that each student's mitochondrial DNA is distinct because we all received it from our mothers. Each cell has hundreds to thousands of mitochondria, which are found in the fluid surrounding the nucleus (the cytoplasm).
Chromosomes present in the nucleus hold the majority of DNA, while mitochondria only store a small quantity of their own DNA. The term "mtDNA," or mitochondrial DNA, is used to describe this genetic material. 16,500 DNA base pairs, or around 5% of the total DNA base pairs in human mitochondria, make up.
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6) the chemical signal for flowering could be released earlier than normal in a long-day plant exposed to flashes of a) far-red light during the night. b) red light during the night. c) red light followed by far-red light during the night. d) far-red light during the day. e) red light during the day.
The signal for flowering that is released earlier than normal is . d) far-red light during the day.
The mild duration which is basically required to set off flowering in flora is called important photoperiod. A lengthy day plant will handiest flower while the mild duration is longer than a important variety of hours. Spinach, lettuce, and a few styles of wheat are lengthy-day plants.
All right, So the signaling molecule right here for flowering is probably launched in advance than regular in an extended day plant um uncovered to flashes of a long way red mild all through the day, um or red mild all through the day. Red mild observed through a long way pink mild all through the night, or a long way pink mild all through the night, or pink mild all through the night.
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pd-1 is a negative co-stimulatory signal expressed by tumor cells. what advantage would the expression of pd-1 have in a tumor cell avoiding the immune response?
Tumor cells can avoid being killed by activated T cells.
Tumors are abnormal growths of body cells. Tumors occur when cells divide and grow excessively in the body.
The immune system should be able to help protect the body from cancer.
PD-1 therapy is a therapy that increases the effectiveness of the patient's immune system to fight tumor cells. The PD-1 molecule on tumor cells then interacts with the PD-1 receptor on T cells. The PD-1 molecule signals the T lymphocytes to stop working so that the lymphocytes experience anergy or even apoptosis. By producing PD-1, tumor cells can avoid lymphocyte attack.
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the ureter, renal artery, and renal vein enter the kidney through the area known as the . it leads into the hollow interior of the kidney, called the
The ureter, renal artery, and renal vein enter the kidney through the area known as the hilum. It leads into the hollow interior of the kidney, called the renal sinus.
Where is the renal sinus?
The renal sinus is a central spacious cavity formed by the extension of the perinephric space into the deep recess located at the medial border of the kidney
What does the renal sinus contain?
The renal sinus is a cavity within the kidney that is occupied by the renal pelvis, renal calyces, blood vessels, nerves, and fat. The renal hilum extends into a large cavity within the kidney occupied by the renal vessels, minor renal calyces, major renal calyces, renal pelvis, and some adipose tissue.
What is the importance of renal sinus?
The observation of renal sinus fat is important for detecting a small tumor located in that area and determining the exact tumor stage.
Thus, the correct answer is renal sinus.
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after one round of pcr, one molecule of dna consisting of two complementary strands yields molecules of dna for a total of strands.
Each cycle doubles the number of double-stranded DNA pieces, resulting in 2n (2 to the n:th power) copies of DNA after n cycles. For example, after 10 cycles, there are 1024 copies, after 20 cycles, there are about one million copies, and so on.
The area between the two primers has been duplicated once at the conclusion of one cycle, yielding two copies of the original gene region.
N = No x 2^x
N = final no of DNA molecules
No = Initial no of DNA molecules
x = no of cycles
Let’s put the values in the formula…
N = No x 2^x
N = 3 x 2^5
N = 3 x 32
N = 96
so, 96 DNA molecules will be present in total.
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1) all of the following may function in signal transduction in plants except a) calcium ions. b) nonrandom mutations. c) receptor proteins. d) phytochrome. e) secondary messengers.
The correct answer is option B
B nonrandom mutations.
What is Mutation?
The DNA sequence varies from creature to organism. The order of the base pairs can occasionally shift. We refer to it as a mutation. Changes in proteins that are translated from the DNA by a mutation are possible.
A abrupt, heritable change in an organism's characteristics is called a mutation. One who demonstrates these heritable changes is referred regarded as a "mutant." Recessive genes are typically produced through mutations.
Genetic differences between animals are brought on by the mutation. Generations after generation inherit advantageous mutations.
For instance, sickle cell anemia results from a mutation in the gene that codes for hemoglobin. The RBCs take on the shape of a sickle. The African population, however, is protected from malaria by this mutation.
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based on our current knowledge, about what proportion of exons in primary transcripts leave the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell?
About 50% proportion of exons in primary transcripts leave the nucleus of a eukaryotic cell.
A gene's exons are the regions that code for proteins. Exons are mRNA coding regions where amino acids are codified. Numerous exons encode various protein domains. The domains can be encoded by a single exon or by several exons joined together. A portion of the genome that is contained within an mRNA molecule is known as an exon. Exons can be classified as "coding" or "non-coding," depending on whether they contain the instructions needed to make a protein. Exons and introns make up each gene in the genome.
Eukaryotic creatures are big and complicated because eukaryotic cells include nuclei that are encased in nuclear membranes. Eukaryotic cells are found in protozoa, fungi, plants, and mammals. They fall under the Eukaryotic kingdom. Plants, mammals, fungi, and protists all contain eukaryotic cells.
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which test(s) (differential stain, isolation test, or biochemical test) is most helpful in distinguishing between the two gram-negative rods?
Gram positive bacteria are identified using biochemical tests such as the catalase test, the coagulase test, the starch hydrolysis test, and the nitrate test, whereas Gram negative bacteria are identified using biochemical tests such as the oxidase test, the urease test, the indole test, the sulphur test, and the methyl red/voges-proskauer test.
Why is the Gram stain such an effective diagnostic tool?Knowing whether your bacterium is Gram-positive or Gram-negative might help your doctor determine what sort of illness you have and which drugs will be most helpful in treating it.
Microbial identification is accomplished by three methods: genotypic, proteotypic, and phenotypic. Genotypic identification examines the sequences in bacteria and fungi's rRNA regions, whereas proteotypic approaches examine the ribosomal proteins produced.
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1) all of the following may function in signal transduction in plants except a) calcium ions. b) nonrandom mutations. c) receptor proteins. d) phytochrome. e) secondary messengers.
all of the following may function in signal transduction in plants except b-Nonrandom mutations
Light signaling pathways are an important part of the mechanisms that control plant development. These pathways allow information from specific light wavelengths to be amplified and coordinated, resulting in complex physiological and developmental responses.
The non-random pattern of mutations in gene and non-gene regions of DNA suggests that a protective mechanism is in place to prevent potentially disastrous mutations.
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Fmri studies at cleveland clinic and case western reserve university found the social network (part of the default node network) in the brain is activated by. (select all that apply. ).
The brain's default mode network (DMN) is made up of regions that are normally more active when the body is at rest than when doing an active task. However, recent research has indicated that specific activity types can activate this network.
It has been proposed that social cognition, particularly higher-order activities like attributing mental states to others, activates a network of regions that at least partially overlap with the default mode network DMN. Here, we investigate this assertion using data from functional MRI meta-analyses and current investigations into the anatomical and functional connections of the social brain. We also go through recent data supporting the presence of a DMN in non-human primates. We wrap up by going over some of these observations' implications.It is now becoming more and more clear that specific sorts of tasks cause the brain regions connected to the DMN to become active. In fact, the supposed anti-correlation between task-related networks and the DMN has been questioned (Murphy et al., 2009; Kelly et al., 2012).
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high levels of this contaminants have been found in fish prompting recommendations to limit intake of some fish to no more than one serving per week.
High levels of methylmercury contaminants have been found in fish prompting recommendations to limit intake of some fish to no more than one serving per week.
What is methylmercury contaminants?
A neurotoxic pollutant called methylmercury bioaccumulates in marine food webs and is hence present in seafood. The majority of the mercury found in marine food webs was first released into the environment as a result of human activity, and the processes involved in getting the mercury from emission sources to fish depend on a number of factors that will be impacted by climate change.
Therefore, High levels of methylmercury contaminants have been found in fish prompting recommendations to limit intake of some fish to no more than one serving per week.
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summarize the concept of microbial antagonism and discuss the effect of antibiotics on the levels of normal microbiota or opportunistic pathogens
Microbial antagonism is the inhibition of one bacterial organism by other. It is a method of using established cultures of microorganisms to prevent the intrusion of foreign strains. When introduced to an already-colonized environment, an invasive strain of bacteria tends not to thrive and may go completely extinct.
Through microbial antagonism, the normal bacterial flora of the body provides some defense against disease-causing organisms. Humans and other mammalian gastrointestinal tracts (GIT) are home to trillions of microorganisms, collectively named the microbiota. Intestinal microbes are stable under physiological conditions, but antibiotics administration can cause dysbiosis in the microbiota. It is characterized by a reduction in the diversity of microbes and the normal function of the intestinal microbiota in maintaining host wellness.
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Carcinogens cause _____.A.allergic reactionsB.genetic defectsC.chronic health effectsD.birth defectsE.cancerE. Cancer
The main one is E. Cancer
What structures did you note at the caudal end of your pig specimen?.
In this activity, you will look at how the various bodily systems you have learned about this semester are organized in relation to a single specimen, the fetus.
What is the pig's tail region known as?In reference to the tail, inferior is used for humans and posterior for pigs (toward the feet). Caudal can refer to either direction of the animal's "tail end" in either situation.
What directional phrase describes the fetal pig's head end?The term "anterior" refers to the top. A structure is closer to the head if it is anterior to another structure. The word "posterior" means "at the end." Dorsal is a term for the back. Figure 1 depicts a pig that is lying on its dorsal side.
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Which of the following statements is correct? Totipotent/Pluripotent stem cells only become germ cells. Mutations in sex steroid synthesis enzymes cause defects in sex determination. Germ cells require FSH and LH to enter meiosis. O Sexlethal regulates the expression of sex determining genes because it is a transcription factor,
The correct option is B ; Mutations in sex steroid synthesis enzymes cause defects in sex determination. in all mammalian species, this chapter will concentrate on the sequence in humans and incorporate material from other species as needed.
We will first outline the anatomic processes in male and female development before summarizing our present understanding of the mechanisms that govern this development.
Sexual differentiation is a sequential process that begins with the establishment of chromosomal sex at fertilization, continues with the determination of gonadal sex, and culminates in the development of secondary sexual characteristics that comprise the male and female phenotypes.
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Which of the following statements is correct?
A Totipotent/Pluripotent stem cells only become germ cells.
B Mutations in sex steroid synthesis enzymes cause defects in sex determination.
C Germ cells require FSH and LH to enter meiosis.
D Sexlethal regulates the expression of sex determining genes because it is a transcription factor,
In the snail Cepaea nemoralis, an autosomal allele causing a banded shell, u, is recessive to the allele for an unbanded shell, U. Genes at a different locus determine the background color of the shell. The allele for a yellow shell, b, is recessive to the allele for a brown shell, EB. A banded, yellow snail is crossed with a homozygous brown, unbanded snail. The F1 progeny are then crossed with banded, yellow snails in a testcross. Predict the percentage of progeny in each phenotype if the two genes are linked with no recombination, if the two genes assort independently, and if the genes are 20 m.u. apart. Place the percentage for each phenotype for each of the scenarios in the table below. Percentages can be used more than once. Phenotyp Linked Independent Genes 20 m.u. no recombinationassortment apart Brown, unbanded Brown, banded Yellow, unbanded Yellow, banded 0% 10% 20% 25% 30% 40% 50% 60%| 70% 75% | 80%, 90% 100%
The F2 testcross offspring will be half-banded, yellow, and half unbanded, brown.
Absolute linkage prevents the creation of recombinant offspring. The F1 inherited banded and yellow alleles (BBCY) from the banded yellow parent together on one chromosome and unbanded and brown alleles (BOCBw) from the unbanded brown parent jointly on the homologous chromosome.
These two allelic combinations will be present in equal amounts in all F1 gametes in the absence of recombination. The F2 testcross offspring will therefore be half banded, yellow, and half unbanded, brown.
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what is the role of helper t cells in the adaptive immune response? what is the role of helper t cells in the adaptive immune response? helper t cells produc
Helper T cells are arguably the most important cells in adaptive immunity because they are required for almost all adaptive immune responses.
They promote the activation of macrophages and B cells that secrete antibodies and kill ingested microbes, as well as cytotoxic T lymphocytes that kill infected target cells. We cannot defend ourselves against many typically benign bacteria without helper T cells, as was clearly demonstrated in AIDS patients. Helper T cells, however, require stimulation to develop into effector cells; they are unable to function on their own. They emerge on the surface of antigen-presenting cells during the innate adaptive immune reactions triggered by an infection.
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