a nurse is teaching a client how to use their epipen autoinjector. what client statements indicate the need for further teaching? select all that apply.

Answers

Answer 1

Nurse is teaching a client to use their EpiPen autoinjector. Client statements indicate the need for further teaching: "The EpiPen autoinjector needs to be pointed upward."

How to use EpiPen autoinjector?

Place the tip against the middle of the outer thigh at a right angle (perpendicular) to the thigh. Push the auto-injector firmly until it “clicks.” This click gives a signal that the injection has started and then hold firmly in place for 3 seconds.

EpiPen auto injectors are automatic injection devices having adrenaline for allergic emergencies. The auto injectors can be used only by a person with a history or an acknowledged risk of anaphylactic reaction.

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a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for fluoxetine (prozac) for post traumatic stress disorder. which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

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the statement of a client who has a new prescription for fluoxetine (prozac) for post-traumatic stress disorder that the nurse must include in the teaching is "I will take this medication before going to work."

Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant drug that works by increasing the natural substance serotonin in the brain. Serotonin is a neurotransmitter that is responsible for regulating emotions, sleep, and appetite. When the number of serotonin increases, emotional disorders, and mental disorders can also be overcome.

Things to note before taking fluoxetine do not drive a vehicle or do activities that require alertness after taking fluoxetine because this drug can cause drowsiness.

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the nurse is conducting a vision assessment on a 2-year-old child. the nurse should assess for which visual ability in this child?

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For a 2-year-old child, the best vision assessment is accomplished by determining whether each eye can fixate on an object, maintain the fixation, and follow the object's movement.

Vision assessment is a procedure that's done to gather information about the health and function of the vision system. For a 2-year-old kid, the assessment is usually done by shining a penlight in the eye to measure the response of their pupil.

Using the penlight, the nurse can check whether the eye can fixate on the light as well as maintain the fixation. They also should check if the child is able to follow the penlight if it's moved around.

One can use something other that interest the child other than penlight, such as toys.

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communicable diseases are exempt or are not exempt from the privileged communication standard

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Communicable diseases are exempt from the privileged communication standard.

What are privileged communication standard?

Privileged communication safeguards the secrecy of contacts between two people who are entitled to a private, protected connection under the law.

Attorney-client, doctor-patient, priest-parishioner, two spouses, and (in certain states) reporter-source ties are examples of relationships that afford the protection of privileged communication.

When persons are harmed or threatened with harm, the privileged communication protection is lost.

Examples of exempt privileged communication standard

Exempt by law and MUST be reported: births and deaths, injuries caused by violence, drug abuse, communicable diseases and STD's

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true or false? adding butter to all of paul's food and making sure to feed him as many calories as possible may cause health complications for paul, as it would for someone at any age.

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It is true that feeding Paul as many calories as possible while adding butter to everything he eats could lead to health issues, just as it would for anyone of any age.

Calories are a unit of measurement for the energy content of food and beverages. We frequently consume more calories from food and drink than we burn off, and our bodies store the extra as body fat. If this keeps happening, we may eventually start to gain weight. As a general rule, a strong guy needs about 2,500 kcal (10,500 kJ) every day to maintain a healthy weight.

Butter has a lot of calories and fat, especially saturated fat, which is linked to heart disease. If you have cardiovascular disease or are trying to cut calories, use this ingredient sparingly.

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the nurse is teaching breastfeeding to prospective parents in a childbirth education class. which instruction should the nurse include as content in the class?

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Feed your baby whenever they ask for food, which should be every two to three hours.

What are classes on birthing called?

Lamaze Method Lamaze classes view delivery as a natural and healthy process because it is the most popular childbirth technique in the U.S.Lamaze classes do not encourage or oppose the use of medications or other standard medical procedures during labor and delivery.

How can I become a better mother?

Classes on childbirth education are typically provided in hospitals, birthing facilities, doctor's offices, and private residences.You can also ask your doctor or a hospital for information on birthing education classes Friends and family .

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nurse manager prepares teaching for staff nurses who care for clients with diabetes. which statements will the nurse manager include when discussing the differences between the endocrine and exocrine functions of the pancreas? select all that apply.

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Option A, B, and D are correct when discussing the differences between the endocrine and exocrine functions of the pancreas.

Two primary tasks are carried out by the pancreas: Produces chemicals (enzymes) that aid in digesting as part of its exocrine function. Function of the endocrine system: Releases hormones that regulate blood sugar levels. Glands in the pancreas secrete chemicals that aid in digestion and regulate blood sugar. Diabetes types 1 and 2 affect the pancreas often. Pancreatitis and pancreatic cancer are two more pancreas disorders. This tells us that option A, B, and D are correct.

Along with other hormones, pancreas creates glucagon and insulin. Diabetes results from inadequate insulin production by the pancreas or improper insulin utilisation by the body.

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Complete question is:

A nurse manager prepares teaching for staff nurses who care for clients with diabetes. Which statements will the nurse manager include when discussing the differences between the endocrine and exocrine functions of the pancreas? Select all that apply.

• "Internal secretion of hormones is the function of the endocrine pancreas."

• "The endocrine pancreas secretes hormones through a ductless gland."

• "The exocrine pancreas secretes hormones from excretory ducts."

• "The exocrine pancreas secretes pancreatic enzymes into the GI tract."

what is the condition in which the heart does not pump blood as well as it should and blood and fluid back up into the lungs? multiple choice rheumatic heart disease congenital heart disease cardiomyopathy congestive heart failure

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Congestive heart failure. Congestive heart failure, often known as heart failure, happens when the heart muscle is unable to pump blood and blood pressure as well as it should.

This commonly causes blood to pool and fluid to build up in the lungs, which can lead to shortness of breath. Some cardiac conditions, such as coronary artery disease (coronary artery disease) or high blood pressure, cause the heart to eventually become too weak or stiff to fill and pump blood effectively. With the right treatment, heart failure symptoms and signs can be reduced, and some patients also might survive longer. Making lifestyle changes, such as decreasing weight, exercising more, eating less salt, and managing stress, can enhance your quality of life. Nevertheless, heart failure puts your life at danger. One way to achieve this is to prevent and treat conditions like coronary artery disease, high blood pressure, insulin, and overweight that can result in heart failure.

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the nurse is assessing with a head injury a client for decerebrate posturing. which position indicates the client has decerebrate posturing?

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The nurse is examining a client who has a head injury for decerebrate posture. which posture suggests that the client has adopted a decerebrate stance

When should you visit a doctor after striking your head?

When an individual or group has a brain injury and exhibits the following signs and symptoms: nausea or vomiting that occurs frequently. a longer-than-30-second period of unconsciousness a persistent headache

What should you do if you bump your head?

You can provide a cold pack for their head by using an ice bag or a bag of frozen beans wrapped in such a tea towel. If symptoms like moderate vertigo and a headache worsen, obtain medical help right away.

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when teaching a group of nursing students about the liver, the nurse relates that kupffer cells function to remove harmful substances or cells from the portal blood and venous sinusoids through which process?

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The nurse explains to a group of student nurses about the liver that kupffer cells work through the Phagocytosis process to remove unwanted cells or chemicals from of the portal blood as well as venous sinusoids.

Phagocytosis is indeed a biological mechanism for ingestion or inhalation and expelling objects with a diameter of more than 0.5 m, such as bacteria, foreign objects, and apoptotic cells. Since phagocytosis occurs in a wide variety of cell types, it is crucial for maintaining tissue homeostasis. phagocytes, a kind of living cell, devour or engulf another cells or particles through a process known as phagocytosis. An amoeba or other free-living single cell might make up the phagocyte, or it could be one of the body's cells like a white blood cell. Phagocytic cells identify encroaching bacteria by the evolutionarily old and receptor-driven process of phagocytosis, which kills them following internalization. Eater, a phagocytosis receptor that is only expressed on phagocytes from Drosophila.

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which statement made by the nurse providing care to a group of clients indicates that the nurse requires further education regarding negligence?

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"I don't need to assess distal pulses on a client after a femoral arteriography." statement made by the nurse providing care to a group of clients indicates that the nurse requires further education regarding negligence

The blood flow via the arteries is examined using an arteriography. A damaged or obstructed artery may also be detected using this method. It can be used to spot bleeding or see malignancies in their natural setting. Typically, an arteriography is carried out concurrently with a therapy. Nursing care is defined as support given to sick or disabled people to meet their health care needs by or under the supervision of licensed nursing staff.They all contributed to the three Cs of improving patient experience in healthcare: communication, collaboration, and caring.

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the client has just been diagnosed with bladder cancer and asks the nurse what causes it. what would be the nurse's best response to the client?

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When a tumor—a development of abnormal tissue—forms in the bladder lining, the condition is referred to as bladder cancer.

Can bladder cancer typically be cured?

cancer's stage (whether it is superficial or invasive bladder cancer, and whether it has spread to other places in the body). The prognosis for early bladder cancer is frequently favorable.

Who is most susceptible to bladder cancer?

The primary risk factor for bladder cancer. Smokers are at least three times more likely than non-smokers to develop bladder cancer. About half of all bladder malignancies are caused by smoking.

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the registered nurse (rn) teaches the nursing student about the implementation process of | nursing. which example will the rn use to describe indirect care interventions?

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The example given to illustrate indirect care interventions is the dispensing of drugs.

What kind of nurse involvement falls under indirect care?

When a nurse helps someone else without directly interacting with the patient, this is known as an indirect care intervention. Attending care conferences, documenting, and talking with other physicians about patient care are a few examples of indirect care interventions.

In this quiz, you'll learn which intervention a nurse would recognize as an indirect nursing intervention.

Other members of the healthcare team can be consulted, referrals can be made, advocacy can be done, and the environment can be managed as indirect care interventions. Implementation is the phase that entails action, doing, and actually carrying out the nursing interventions specified in the care plan.

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which of the following may be beneficial in staving off dementia but for which research into effectiveness has proved mixed?

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There is no option provided, but most likely, staying engaged with social networks may be beneficial in staving off dementia, although research into their effectiveness has proven mixed.

Social engagement is linked to lower rates of disability and death, as well as a lower risk of depression. Maintaining a social life may benefit brain function and maybe even prevent the development of dementia. According to recent research, social isolation greatly increases a person's chance of dying prematurely from any cause, a danger that may rival physical inactivity, obesity, and smoking. Social isolation was also linked to a 50% increase in the risk of dementia.

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a client has a risk for skin breakdown due to incontinence. which nursing actions for the client will help with decreasing this risk? select all that apply.

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In individuals with fecal and/or urine incontinence, dermatitis associated with incontinence—a clinical symptom of moisture-related skin damage—is frequently taken into account.The prevalence rate among hospitalized patients has been shown to be as high as 27%.

How may incontinence-related skin deterioration be treated?

Think about applying a moisture barrier or skin sealant.A barrier of protection is created on the skin by creams or ointments containing petrolatum, lanolin, or zinc oxide.Some skin care treatments coat the skin with a transparent, protective film, frequently in the form of the a spray or even a towelette.

What nursing interventions are there?

These include evaluation, planning, implementation, diagnosis, and assessment.

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a client with diabetes mellitus has a prescription for 5 units of u-100 regular insulin and 25 units of u-100 isophane insulin suspension (nph) to be taken before breakfast. at about 4:30 p.m., the client experiences headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness. what is the most probable cause of these signs and symptoms?

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A client with diabetes mellitus experiences headache, sweating, tremor, pallor, and nervousness, these are due to serum glucose level less then 70.

Diabetes mellitus refers to a bunch of diseases that have an effect on however the body uses blood glucose (glucose). Glucose is a very important supply of energy for the cells that frame the muscles and tissues. It is also the brain's main supply of fuel. the most reason for diabetes varies by kind.

The glucose serum is that the simplest and most direct single check offered to check for diabetes. The check measures the number of glucose within the fluid portion of the blood. It's referred to as a “serum” check thanks to this fluid portion of the blood. There are multiple elements to the blood.

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a client is newly diagnosed with diabetes. the nurse would instruct the client to monitor for which indication of hypoglycemia?

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A client has just received a diabetes diagnosis. The client would be given instructions from the nurse to watch for Kussmaul respirations, which are a sign of hypoglycemia.

How should a patient with hypoglycemia be monitored?

If you experience any of the warning signs or symptoms of low blood sugar, use a blood glucose meter to measure and show your blood sugar level. When your blood sugar level falls below 70 mg/dL, you have hypoglycemia.

Which symptom should the nurse point out as being the most typical indicator of hypoglycemia when training a diabetic client?

Looking pale is one of the initial symptoms of diabetic hypoglycemia (pallor) Shakiness. a feeling of faintness or dizziness.

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what is meant by the term etiology?likely future path of an illnessthe different symptoms of a given condition the cause of a disorder frequency with which a given illness occurs

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Etiology means - 1. a disease or disorder's origins and progression. 2. the area of medical and psychological science dedicated to the methodical investigation of the root causes of physical and psychological disorders.

What medical term is used to describe a condition that can spread from one person to another?

A communicable illness is one that can be spread from one person to another through a variety of different routes, such as coming into contact with blood or other bodily fluids, breathing in an airborne virus, or getting bitten by an insect.

The term "etiology" refers to the illness's root cause. One etiology can cause more than one disease entity, and more than one disease can result from the same etiology. A sequence of mechanistic chemical and cellular steps underlies the development of each disease entity.

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in 2008, the fda approved a sweetener derived from a south american shrub called aspartame; you can purchase this sweetener as a dietary supplement called

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Aspartame, a sweetener derived from a South American shrub, received FDA approval in 2008; you can buy it as a dietary supplement called Sweet leaf.

 What is sweetener?

A sweetener is a substance that is added to food or beverages to give them the flavor of sweetness, either because it actually contains sugar or a sugar replacement with a sweet flavor. Artificial sweeteners are widely utilized in commercially produced food and beverages today.

Is sugar the only sweetener?

Artificial sweeteners are man-made alternatives to sugar. They could, however, be manufactured using substances that are found in nature, such as sugar or even herbs. Artificial sweeteners are also known as potent sweeteners since they are significantly sweeter than sugar.

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a 69-year-old male with a history of alcohol abuse presents to the er after a month-long episode of headaches and confusion. based on his alcoholism, a likely cause of his neurologic symptoms is:

Answers

Chronic subdural hematoma is the correct option

What is Chronic subdural hematoma?

A long-standing blood clot on the surface of the brain beneath its outer coating is known as a chronic subdural hematoma (SDH).

Patients with brain atrophy, or the shrinking or wasting away of brain tissue as a result of age or disease, are most likely to develop these liquid clots when they are 60 years of age or older. Minor head trauma can tear blood vessels over the brain's surface as the brain shrinks inside the skull over time, which can lead to a steady buildup of blood over several days to weeks.

Symptoms:

Up to 80% of patients report having a headache as their primary complaint. Lethargy, memory loss, disorientation, weakness, nausea, vomiting, decreased vision, and seizures are some other symptoms.Large hematoma patients may experience varied degrees of paralysis and unconsciousness.In addition to dementia, stroke, transient ischemic attacks, encephalitis, and various brain lesions like tumors or abscesses, a chronic subdural hematoma can also mimic a number of other brain diseases and disorders.

Hence, Chronic subdural hematoma is the correct answer

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the nurse provides a cool glass of water to a client with inflamed throat tissue. what condition should the nurse caution the client to avoid when drinking very hot liquids while having an inflamed throat?

Answers

The client has the condition called Hyperalgesia due to which she gets  inflamed throat while drinking hot water.

What is Hyperalgesia ?

A sign of hyperalgesia is experiencing substantially more intense pain in circumstances where feeling pain is expected. Disruptions in your body's pain-processing mechanisms are the source of it. Burns and many other injuries and illnesses can frequently result in this.

Examples could be back discomfort, leg pain, neck pain, or headaches. Some people call the discomfort "diffuse" or "spreading," respectively. Some people may complain of aches and pains all throughout their bodies. The nature or experience of the pain has changed throughout time.

Opioid-induced hyperalgesia (OIH) is characterized as a nociceptive sensitization condition brought on by opioid exposure. A paradoxical reaction to the condition causes a patient taking opioids for pain management to actually become more sensitive.

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a public health nurse interacts with many members of the community who are at risk for sexually transmitted infections (stis). the nurse should anticipate the use of tetracycline in a client who is diagnosed with what sti?

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When a client is identified as having Chlamydia-related sexually transmitted infections (STI), the nurse should prepare for the client to take tetracycline.

What is sexually transmitted infections?

The majority of STI cases are associated with eight infections. Only four diseases are currently curable: syphilis, gonorrhea, chlamydia, and trichomoniasis. Hepatitis B, herpes simplex virus (HSV), HIV, and human papillomavirus are the other 4 viral illnesses that cannot be cured (HPV). The virus that causes AIDS, known as HIV, is the most serious viral STD. The human papilloma virus (HPV), hepatitis B, and genital herpes are additional incurable viral STDs.

What STD Cannot be cured and can you heal from STD without antibiotics?

STDs/STIs that cannot be treated are brought on by viruses like HIV, genital herpes, human papillomavirus, hepatitis, and CMV. If a person has a virus-based STI, they are always at risk of infecting their sexual partners and remain permanently infected.

No, don't count on a STI to disappear by itself. Ignoring warning signs, refusing to comply, or rejecting could seriously harm your partner's health and result in long-term problems. Even if you don't experience any symptoms, you still run the risk of developing issues and passing the virus to your sexual partners.

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An example of a dangerous bacterial infection that is resistant to several widely used antibiotics is.

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Most methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, or MRSA, infections contracted outside of a hospital are skin infections. In medical centers, MRSA causes life-threatening bloodstream and surgical-site infections, as well as pneumonia. MRSA is one of the most common antibiotic-resistant bacteria

which actions should the nurse perform when administering an im (intermuscular) injection? (select all that apply. one, some, or all options may be correct.)

Answers

When giving fluticasone propionate to an asthmatic patient, the nurse would rinse the oral cavity with water afterward.

What is the purpose of the mouth cavity?

The oral cavity, also known as your mouth, is an oval-shaped aperture in your skull. From the lips to the throat, it runs. It's crucial for several biological processes, including speech, breathing, and food digestion. Tissues in a healthy lip are pink, moist, odorless, and painless.

What's the make-up of the oral cavity?

The lips, gingivae, teeth, retromolar trigone, floor of the mouth, facial tissue, mobile tongue, and oral cavity floor are all parts of the oral cavity. Despite not being a member of the oral cavity, the major oral glands are closely related to the anatomy of the nasal cavity.

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when planning the care of the patient in cardiogenic shock, what does the nurse understand is the primary treatment goal?

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While planning the care of the patient in cardiogenic shock, the nurse should understand as  the primary treatment goal that the treatment of oxygenation needs of heart muscles should be priorly done.

What is cardiogenic shock?Meaning:Also known as Cardiac ShockThe condition when heart is not able to pump out blood in abundance to the brain and to all other vital organs.Symptoms Pressure and squeegeeing pain in the  center of your chest.shortness of breadth.Chest pain episode increases.4 Stages of shockinitialcompensatoryprogressiverefractoryMedication:Treating  oxygenation needs of heart muscles.intravenous fluids to support BP and Functioning of heart.

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the nurse note a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and noncommunicative during the past two weeks. which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client? a. encourage the client's family to visit more often b. schedule a daily conference with the social worker

Answers

Engage the client in a non-threatening conversation.

What is depression ?

Depression is a mood disorder that results in a constant sense of sadness and boredom. It affects how you feel, think, and behave and can cause a variety of emotional and physical issues. It is also known as major depressive disorder or clinical depression.

Consistent attempts to draw the client into conversations which focuson non-threatening subjects can be an effective means of eliciting a response, thereby decreasing isolation behaviors. There is not sufficient data to support the effectiveness of A as an intervention for this client. Although B may be indicated, nursing interventions can also be used to treat this client. C is too threatening to this client.

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a client at a health care facility is being treated for cancer of the bladder. the physician uses a urinary diversion to help the client with urinary elimination. what describes a urinary diversion?

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When urine flow is obstructed or when it is necessary to get around a diseased part of the urinary system, a surgical technique called urinary diversion establishes a new pathway for pee to leave your body.

The ureters are surgically inserted somewhere else, either one or both. Your body's drainage system for getting rid of urine, which is made up of waste and surplus fluid, is called the urinary tract. Urine should pass from your kidneys through your ureters, bladder, and urethra before leaving your body. The urine may accumulate in your bladder, ureters, or kidneys when it is unable to flow regularly. This accumulation of urine may result in discomfort, renal failure, urinary tract infections, calculi or stones, damage to the urinary system, or all of the above. A accumulation of urine in the urinary system can be fatal if addressed.

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a nurse is working in a clinic where a family member's spouse is treated for a sexually transmitted disease. the nurse is concerned about the risk to family members. what is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

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Encourage the client, if they haven't already, to discuss the diagnosis with the family member. The nurse has no choice but to suggest that the client speak with his spouse.

How are diagnostics and diagnoses different from one another?

Diagnoses is the plural form; it is pronounced [dahy-uhg-noh-seez]. The verb for this is diagnose. The term "diagnose" can refer to either an ailment or a patient, but both terms indicate the same thing—to diagnose is to determine what particular condition the patient is dealing with.

What makes a diagnosis significant?

Any type of therapy you might get, from medication to surgery, will be based on your diagnosis. A correct diagnosis is essential to avoid wasting time on the incorrect course of treatment. The patient is a key component in making the right diagnosis.

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which neurological test should the nurse implement to assess cerebellar function in a 5-year-old with symptoms of hyperactivity?

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The neurological test that  the nurse should implement to assess cerebellar function in a 5-year-old with symptoms of hyperactivity is  Finger to nose.

What are  neurological test?

A neurological test is described as the assessment of sensory neuron and motor responses, especially reflexes, to determine whether the nervous system is impaired.

A neurological test typically includes a physical examination and a review of the patient's medical history, but not deeper investigation such as neuroimaging.

A neurological test assesses motor and sensory skills, hearing and speech, vision, coordination, and balance. It may also test mental status, mood, and behavior.

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which resource(s) does the nurse utilize to identify the right client when administering medications? select all that apply.

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The client's medication, allergy , and medical background must all be reviewed by the nurse.

The nurse should go over the client's medication, allergy, and medical history to prevent any potential issues. To make sure that the correct drug is administered at the proper time and by the proper route, the nurse should read and match the medication's label with the patient's medical record at least three times (before, during, and after preparing the medication). The drug must be given between 30 and 60 minutes prior to the planned time to be considered timely and in accordance with the doctor's recommendation. The safe preparation of drugs is encouraged by giving oneself enough time and few distractions.

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in preparation for being discharged to home, the nurse is teaching a client with a chronic right ankle stasis ulcer about wound care. what statement by the client indicates a need further teaching?

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The nurse will cover the use of graduated compression socks in client education prior to discharge.

What is chronic in the body?

an ailment or illness that often lasts for three months or more and has the potential to develop worse over time. Elderly persons are more likely to have chronic diseases, which can usually be treated but not cured. Leukemia, heart disease, strokes, diabetic, & rheumatism are the most prevalent chronic illness categories.

Does chronic mean permanent?

An chronic condition is defined by Wikipedia as a sickness that develops over time or a physical health condition that really is persistent or has long-lasting impacts. Whenever a disease has a longer than three-month duration, the word "chronic" is frequently used.

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Which professional wrestler had a co-starring role in the film the princess bride?. A reinforcement that occurs when a behavior or response is reinforced after every demonstration is __________ reinforcement. a. intermittent b. continuous c. spontaneous d. negative The regular price of a sweater is $32. For a sale, the price of the sweater is marked down 30%. What is the sale price of the sweater? liability insurance serves all of the following purposes except . question 61 options: covers injury claims from employees not covered by workers compensation insurance. covers liability arising from professional services rendered by the contractor to the owner. covers injury to persons (not employees) or damage to property of third parties caused by an act of omission or commission by the contractor. cover employees in the event of job loss. #include #include #include "Savings.h" #include "Checking.h" using namespace std; pint main() { Checking* checking = new Checking(1); checking->setFirstName ("Alice"); checking->setLastName("Meacham"); checking->setAccountBalance (1000.00); checking->setoverdraftProtection(true); checking->display(); delete checking; Savings* savings = new Savings(2); savings->setFirstName("Bob"); savings->setLastName("Ferling"); savings->setAccountBalance(1003.00); savings->setInterestRate(5.00); savings->display(); return 0; 1 2 3 4 5 HNM COOO #include #include #include #include "Account.h" using namespace std; Account::Account(int accountNumber) { firstName = lastName = ". "; accountBalance = 0; this->account Number = account Number; 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 evoid Account::deposit(double amount){ accountBalance += amount; Ovoid Account::withdraw(double amount){ accountBalance -= amount; 1 W NPO 3a avoid Account::display(){ cout Which graph matches the following system of equations? does someone know this? to maintain skeletal, muscular, and cardiovascular health, a child should be physically active for at least minutes each day? a balanced scorecard typically includes: a. all of the choices are correct b. financial measures c. internal processes measures d. customer satisfaction measures Point O is the incenter of triangle A B C. Lines are drawn from the points of the triangle to point O. Lines are drawn from point O to the sides of the triangle to form right angles and line segments O Q, O R, and O S. Angle O B C is 15 degrees. Angle O C R is 30 degrees.What is mAngleQOB?a. 30b. 60c. 75d. 90 Please help me QUICKLY URGENT 50 POINTS + BRAINLYWhat is the sum of the infinite geometric series?25 minus 10 plus 4 minus eight fifths plus continuing The series diverges. five halves fifty sevenths one hundred twenty-five sevenths eighty-seven fifths 7. How should flatware and utensils that have been cleaned and sanitized be stored?1. With handles facing up2. Below cleaning supplies3. In drawers that have been washed and rinsed4. Four inches (10 centimeters) from the floor. jessie has elevated levels of triacylglycerides and fatty acids and normal levels of cholesterol. however, there is no evidence of ketone body formation. which statement best explains jessie's test results? What is the molecular formula for a compound that is 24.82% nitrogen, 49.87% oxygen, and25.31% fluorine and has a molar mass of 450.08g? Joey is considering two bowling membership plans. The plans are detailed here. Plan 1: $30 for a monthly pass and a $3 fee for each bowling visit Plan 2: $10 for each bowling visit Select the equation for Plan 1. y = -10 y = 10x y = 30x +3 3x+30 quasars emit significant amounts of radiation from the lyman-alpha transition. when the spectrum is observed on earth, it is found that the lyman-alpha line is accompanied by many absorption lines, called the lyman-alpha forest. what is the origin of these lines? Which state below is NOT true about black holes?They have the strongest force of gravity in the universe.At their cores, the laws of physics still apply.They give off no light radiation.They are points or areas in space. Match the information about a company to the correct SWOT Analysis element.Question 28 options:OpportunityStrengthThreatWeakness1. Could increase sales and grow a company. 2. Areas in which a company is lacking.3. Things a company does well. 4. Anything that poses a risk to a company's success and growth. an object of mass m rests on a frictionless surface and is attached to a horizontal ideal spring with spring constant k . the system oscillates with amplitude a . the oscillation frequency of this system can be increased by