This client's admission that she would up her lithium dosage when her moods changed is evidence of the need for additional nursing education.
What are the symptoms of lithium toxicity?The result of having too many lithium is lithium toxicity, commonly referred to as lithium overdose. Tremors, heightened reflexes, difficulty walking, kidney issues, and altered levels of consciousness are just a few symptoms that could be present. After levels stabilize, certain symptoms may persist for a year. Symptoms of minor lithium poisoning includes weakness, worsening tremor, mild ataxia, impaired focus, and diarrhea. Vomiting, a severe tremor, slurred speech, confusion, and drowsiness appear as the toxicity increases (Bauer and Gitlin 2016).
How do you manage lithium toxicity and how quickly does lithium toxicity happen?The mainstay of treating lithium toxicity is supportive care. Due to aspiration danger and emesis, airway protection is essential. Propofol, phenobarbital, and benzodiazepines can all be used to treat seizures.
A patient who regularly takes lithium should have their serum levels checked 6 to 12 hours after their previous dose in order to rule out toxicity. Other substances or hormones, such as blood urea nitrogen and creatinine, that have a link to lithium toxicity may also be checked in the patient's blood by the physician.
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a 55-year-old client presents to the clinic with persistent vulvar pruritus, burning, and a lump. she states she has had the symptoms for 5 months and has been trying to treat them with over-the-counter creams. she has a history of multiple sexual partners and hpv and is a smoker. what should the nurse do next?
The best course of action for a 55-year-old patient who visits the clinic complaining of chronic vulvar pruritus, burning, & a lump is to get her ready for a biopsy of the lesion.
The client displays classic vulvar cancer symptoms. Patients having vulvar lumps must undergo a biopsy even if they are asymptomatic. Cryosurgery may be considered if the biopsy reveals the presence of vulvar cancer. It is not necessary to know the client's history of cream use or her smoking habits at this point.
A skin lesion biopsy is the removal of a tiny patch of skin to allow for examination. To check for illnesses or skin disorders, the skin is examined. A skin biopsy can aid in the diagnosis or exclusion of conditions like psoriasis or skin cancer by your doctor.
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while responding to a fire in a health care facility, which intervention made by the facility personnel would the nurse feel is inappropriate
Excessive work hours have a negative influence on nurses' health care facility, which can then have a negative impact on patient care.
Which prehospital action has the highest priority for a client who has been bitten by a snake?Scene safety is given top consideration in prehospital care. Preventing the creation of new victims is crucial. The snake doesn't require capture or transportation to the hospital. Because bite reflexes can last for hours, even freshly killed snakes can envenom.
Based on their state and stability, which patient would the nurse treat first?Clients with red tags should receive priority care since prompt medical attention may save their lives. A customer with a yellow badge needs to be treated second.
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the nurse is using an interpreter to communicate with a client who speaks a different language. what would be the best way to choose an interpreter for this client?
The interpreter should be a certified medical interpreter, and the nurse is using him or her to converse with a patient who has a different language.
BriefingThe patient's diagnosis, orders, procedure, prescription medication, and other papers requiring consent, according to Copensky, "a record is required." Everything must be done through a hospital-approved translator, as required by law, according to this rule. Calling a coworker in to explain is not the appropriate course of action even if they are a nurse and speak the language that is required.
Who is a certified medical interpreter?A certified medical interpreter is an individual who has been assessed for professional skills for accurate interpretation and demonstrates a high level of proficiency in at least two languages.
Who is a translator?A translator is a person who converts one language to another .
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a client at 32-weeks gestation comes to the prenatal clinic with complaints of pedal edema, dyspnea, fatigue, and a moist cough. which question is most important for the nurse to ask this client?
The question is most important for the nurse to ask this client do you have rheumatic fever a history?
Why does the temperature rise during ovulation?The body's core temperature is what it is when it is at rest. The body's hormone levels are one of many variables that affect basal body temperature. The hormone progesterone is produced in greater quantities during ovulation, which raises body temperature as a result.
Over the course of the remaining menstrual cycle, it stays higher. Progesterone then decreases right before the start of your period. If you're pregnant, however, your temperatures will stay higher because progesterone will remain high, which means that your basal body temperature will also decrease.
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how do clinical information systems with decision support incorporate evidence-based information? group of answer choices by using inputted patient information to bring relevant standards of care and resources to the attention of care givers
Systems known as clinical information systems work to maintain articulated management through computer programs that ensure the information of all the services that the user or patient has undertaken.
Analyze the evidence critically; doing so is crucial because it enabled her to compile the data.It is possible to describe clinical information as the act of selecting one course of action over another. This ability develops as clinicians gain experience as physicians, nurses, and practitioners of particular specialties. Making clinical decisions involves critical thought and sound judgment.Clinical decision support systems give professionals access to vast informational repositories and aid in making decisions in novel conditions.
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an adolescent has been diagnosed with polycystic ovarian syndrome (pcos). which statement by the adolescent indicates the need for more teaching?
Ovulation irregularities, elevated androgen levels, and cystic ovaries are the three most frequent characteristics connected to PCOS, although signs and symptoms differ (Table 1).
What happens if polycystic ovaries are left untreated?
Untreated PCOS may have both short- and long-term negative implications on one's health. It has been associated with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease, type 2 diabetes, infertility, cardiovascular disease, obesity, and sleep apnea (9-11). These risks can be decreased with early discovery and treatment.
What is the lifespan of polycystic ovaries?
Most frequently, symptoms start to show up in adolescence, right around the beginning of menstruation. Some women, however, do not have symptoms until they are in their early to mid-20s. Despite starting early in life, PCOS continues throughout and after the reproductive years.
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a nurse is caring for a client who has suffered a severe stroke. during routine assessment, the nurse notices cheyne-stokes respirations. cheyne-stokes respirations are
The nurse discovers cheyne-stokes respirations during normal assessment. Progressively deeper breaths are followed by weaker breaths during cheyne-stokes respirations, which also include apneic intervals.
How does Cheyne-Stokes breathing tell us something?Cheyne-Stokes respiration is thought to be a symptom of heart failure, as opposed to obstructive sleep apnea (OSA), that can induce heart failure. Additionally, Cheyne-Stokes respiration in people with heart failure raises the risk of abrupt cardiac death and predicts worse outcomes.
Why does Cheyne-Stokes occur?Heart failure and stroke are the most common causes underlying Cheyne-Stokes respirations. Cheyne-Stokes breathing is seen in 25% to 50% of patients with heart failure, although being unusual.
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you come back to the laboratory with a tube of blood and notice that the tube does not have a label. you have one extra label for a patient from whom you were to collect. do you use this label to label the extra tube?
No, throw away the additional tube as we are unsure whose blood it contains.
What would the patient say about themselves?The English word "patient" comes from the Latin word "patiens," which meaning to endure or suffer. According to this expression, the patient is extremely passive, willing to put up with the necessary suffering and accept the interventions of the outside expert.
Patient is a noun or a verb.Since it requires learning to wait patiently in the face of irritation or discomfort, which is almost always present, we have the opportunity to cultivate patience. But exercising patience can be the key to a happy existence.
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an older adult client states, 'i walk 2 miles [3.2 km] a day for exercise, but now that the weather is hot, i am worried about becoming dehydrated.' which statement would the nurse use to respond to this client?
"Drink fruit juices if you start to feel dehydrated. "ark urine in hot conditions is a sign of dehydration.
What is dehydration?When you use or lose more fluid than you consume, your body becomes dehydrated because it lacks the water and other fluids it needs to function normally. Dehydration will occur if lost fluids are not replaced.Dehydration can affect everyone, but it is particularly dangerous for small children and elderly people.Dehydration in young children is most frequently brought on by severe diarrhoea and vomiting. Older people naturally have less water in their systems, and they may have diseases or take medications that make them more susceptible to becoming dehydrated.This means that even relatively small ailments, such lung or bladder infections, can cause elderly people to become dehydrated.To learn more about Dehydration refer to:
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which statement by the nursing student in regard to the pharmacokinetic parameters of calcium carbonate requires further intervention?
Butter. Raw milk, kale, sardines, yogurt/kefir, broccoli, watercress, cheese, bok choy, okra, and almonds are the top 10 calcium-rich foods.
Which of the following assertions about calcium absorption are true?Which of the following claims about calcium absorption are true? The intestinal absorption of calcium is reduced by calcitonin. Calcium and phosphorus absorption from the digestive tract is regulated by vitamin D. Dietary calcium absorption is influenced by the food's structure and hormonal regulation.
Which medical ailments could oral esomeprazole be used to treat, according to a nurse?Esomeprazole is used to treat the symptoms of Zollinger-Ellison syndrome and other illnesses involving excessive stomach acid such as gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Esomeprazole is also used to encourage erosive esophagitis healing (damage to your esophagus caused by stomach acid).
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a patient with osteoarthritis is taking up to 4 grams of acetaminophen daily. the nurse knows to obtain periodic:
The nurse is aware of the need for routine liver enzyme tests.
How do patients describe themselves?The Latin term "patiens," which means to endure or suffer, is translated to "patient" in English. This phrase portrays the patient as being incredibly passive, bearing the required discomfort, and accepting the interventions of the outside expert.
Patient can be a verb or a noun.We have the opportunity to develop patience since it calls for learning to wait patiently in the face of annoyance or discomfort, which is almost always present. But the secret to a happy life may lie in having patience.
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a 44-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of severe dry skin in the area over her right nipple. she denies any trauma to the area. she noticed the skin change during a self-breast examination 2 months ago. she also admits that she had felt a lump under the nipple but kept putting off making an appointment. she does admit to 6 months of fatigue but no weight loss, weight gain, fever, or night sweats. her past medical history is significant for hypothyroidism. she does not have a history of eczema or allergies. she denies any tobacco, alcohol, or drug use. examination shows a middle-aged woman appearing her stated age. inspection of her right breast reveals a scaly eczema-like crust around her nipple. underneath a nontender 2-cm mass is palpable. the axilla contains only soft moveable nodes. the left breast examination and axilla are unremarkable. what visible skin change of the breast does she have?
She has Paget's disease if there are obvious skin changes on her breasts. The axilla and left breast examinations are unremarkable.
What services are covered under Medi-Cal?Medi-Cal provides coverage for many medically necessary services. Visits to the dentist and doctor are included in this, as well as prescription drugs, eye examinations, family planning, mental health services, and drug and alcohol rehabilitation. Medi-Cal also pays the transportation costs associated with receiving these therapies.
Do you often receive free Medi-Cal?Many people who sign up for Medi-Cal are not required to pay a premium, a co-payment, or any out-of-pocket payments. Some households will enjoy affordable costs, including a low monthly premium. The average monthly Medi-Cal premium for a household is $39, with a $13 per-child maximum.
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joe ate at a chinese restaurant on friday night at 8 p.m. he ate fried rice, orange chicken and salad. he awoke at 12 a.m. vomiting and had abdominal cramps. he had no fever and no diarrhea. this continued for about 6 hours and then he felt better. a fecal sample would have revealed the presence of gram positive aerobic endospore forming bacilli. what is the most likely cause of his illness and which food was most likely to have been contaminated?
Joe is most likely to have been infected with Salmonella enteriditis which was present in the orange chicken that he had. This organism is responsible for gastrointestinal tract infections. Thus, the correct option is C.
What are Gastrointestinal tract infections?
Gastrointestinal infection is the infection of gastrointestinal tract which is mainly include viral, bacterial or parasitic infections that cause gastroenteritis, inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract which involves both the stomach and the small intestine. Symptoms of this infection include diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.
Salmonella infection is one of the most common infection which causes gastroenteritis and leads to the highest number of hospitalizations and deaths in the world.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
Joe ate at a chinese restaurant on friday night at 8 p.m. he ate fried rice, orange chicken and salad. he awoke at 12 a.m. vomiting and had abdominal cramps. he had no fever and no diarrhea. this continued for about 6 hours and then he felt better. a fecal sample would have revealed the presence of gram positive aerobic endospore forming bacilli. what is the most likely cause of his illness and which food was most likely to have been contaminated?
A. Bacillus cereus; fried rice
B. Clostridium botulinum; fried rice
C. Salmonella enteriditis; Orange chicken
D. Vibrio parahaemolyticus; salad
which of the following is a fomite? a. water b. droplets from a sneeze c. pus d. insects e. a hypodermic needle
Of the following, b.Droplets from a sneeze is a fomite
What are fomites?Fomite transmission is respiratory secretions or droplets secreted by infected individuals that can contaminate surfaces and objects, creating fomites (contaminated surfaces). Transmission can also occur indirectly by touching surfaces in the immediate environment or objects contaminated with the virus from an infected person, such as a stethoscope or thermometer, followed by touching the mouth, nose, or eyes.
Some viruses or bacteria are known to survive for a long time on certain surfaces. If we touch the surface of a contaminated object, then touch our face (eyes or mouth) with dirty hands, this has the potential to transmit disease.
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a client is to have a serum thyroxine and thyroid stimulating laboratory test performed to assess the baseline status of the hypothalamic-pituitary target cell hormones. when educating the client about the laboratory tests, when would the nurse inform him the test should be obtained?
The nurse inform him that the test should be obtained before 0800.
What is Thyroid?
The thyroid is a small butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck, just above the windpipe (trachea). It secretes hormones that regulate your heart rate and body temperature. Too much of these hormones can cause unpleasant and potentially serious side effects that may necessitate treatment.
A thyroid function test, in which a sample of blood is tested to measure your hormone levels, is the only accurate way of determining whether you have a thyroid problem. Learn more about thyroid underactivity testing.
Thyroid disease is frequently a life-long medical condition that must be constantly managed. This frequently entails taking a daily medication. Your healthcare provider will monitor your treatments and make changes as needed.
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various states have now enacted laws enabling patients with terminal diseases to write a request that extraordinary life-sustaining procedures should not be used if they are unable to make such decisions on their own. this request is called a . multiple choice question.
The request is called a living will.
What are life-sustaining procedures?
Life-sustaining procedures, also known as life-sustaining treatments or life-prolonging procedures, are used to extend or sustain life without reversing the underlying medical condition.
These interventions, also known as "life-sustaining measures" or "life support," frequently include artificial ventilation to enable breathing, medications to stimulate heart function, and artificial nutrition and hydration for those who are unable to swallow.
Doctors will attempt to restart a person's heart if it stops beating. CPR, which keeps blood and oxygen flowing throughout the body, electric shocks (called defibrillation) to get the heart beating again, and medication to help the heart work are all examples of life support methods.
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the nurse is caring for a client receiving patient-controlled analgesia (pca). the nurse knows to assess the client's sedation score for what reason?
The nurse needs to prevent reactivation of the PCA pump and administration of another dose during the specified period of time.
What is patient-controlled analgesia ?With patient-controlled analgesia (PCA), you can choose when to receive a dose of pain medication. When compared to asking someone (usually a nurse) to provide pain medication, PCA may in some cases be a more effective pain management technique.
Morphine or fentanyl are the drugs most frequently prescribed for PCA. Painkillers or opioids are the names of these drugs. The treating anesthetist is the one who places the order for the PCA; he or she will evaluate your need for pain relief and include a PCA in the treatment plan if it is deemed necessary.
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a client has been taking opioid analgesics for more than 2 weeks to control post-surgical pain. although pleased with the client's progress, the surgeon decides to change the analgesic to a non-opioid drug. the surgeon prescribes a gradually lower opioid dose and increasingly larger non-opioid doses. the surgeon is changing medications in this manner to avoid:
The surgeon is changing medications in this manner to avoid withdrawal symptoms
What is withdrawal symptoms ?Abnormal physical or psychological symptoms that appear after the abrupt cessation of a substance that can cause physical dependence. For instance, frequent withdrawal symptoms from opiates include sweating, goosebumps, vomiting, anxiety, insomnia, and muscle pain.
Within a day or two of quitting drinking, withdrawal symptoms may start to appear. Withdrawal symptoms could start as soon as a few hours after your last drink if you abused alcohol severely and chronically. Symptoms of mild to moderate alcohol withdrawal usually last a week or two.
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the nurse is caring for a patient with parkinson disease. the patient informs the nurse that the patient has been angry with god because of the worsening illness, but after talking to the hospital chaplain, the patient is ready to return to the church choir and become active again in the group at the church. what is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient?
An appropriate nursing diagnosis for this patient with Parkinson disease is readiness for enhanced spiritual well-being.
Parkinson disease is a disorder of the central system that affects movement, usually together with tremors. Nerve cell injury within the brain causes monoamine neurotransmitter levels to drop, resulting in the symptoms of Parkinson's disease. Parkinson's usually starts with a tremor in one hand. different symptoms are slow movement, stiffness and loss of balance.
Spiritual well-being relates to our sense of life-meaning and purpose. It will embody our affiliation to culture, community, spirituality and/or devoutness and includes the beliefs, values, mental models and ethics we tend to hold. Once we're spiritually healthy, we tend to feel additional connected to not solely a better power, however to those around us.
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a nurse is teaching a prenatal class. the nurse teaches that during weeks 25 to 28, which fetal development occurs?
The eyes reopen during this period, and the foetus grows plumper with nicer skin.
The baby is particularly active between the 25th to 28th week of pregnancy, moving around erratically and responding to sounds and touch. The mother should be able to feel the baby kick when there are loud noises. The infant's eyelids will also open during this time, and he or she will begin to blink.
After 18 weeks, and typically by 20 weeks in a primigravida, foetal movement can be noticed. Before 18 weeks of gestation, when the uterus has risen into the abdomen, foetal movement is typically not detected. Although it often occurs four to six weeks before this point, foetal movement should still be noticed at 24 weeks of gestation.
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to prepare for surgery, the surgical instruments undergo and the area on the patient undergoes . a. sterilization, disinfection b. disinfection, sanitization c. sterilization, antisepsis d. sanitization, antisepsis e. decontamination, antisepsis
Sterilization, disinfection is the ultimate goal of most stringent microbial control techniques; it involves eliminating or destroying all vegetative cells, endospores, and viruses from the targeted object or environment.
In environments such as laboratories, hospitals, industrial plants, and the food business, where it may be essential for specific things to be fully free of potentially infectious pathogens, Sterilization techniques are typically used. Physical methods, such as exposure to intense heat, pressure, or filtration via a suitable filter, or chemical methods, can also be used to Sterilization. Sterilants are substances that may be used to Sterilization objects. Sterilants efficiently eliminate all bacteria, viruses, and, with the right amount of exposure time, endospores as well. Degerming or sanitising are effective cleaning solutions for non-critical things that need to be cleaned. By eliminating the microbial organisms from the materials being cleaned, these approaches lessen the microbial burden on them. Keep in mind that these terms frequently do not kill microbial , and if they do, only some of the microbes are killed. Both of these approaches rely on the fact that most people have an immune system that works and that they can withstand and recover from some contact with microbes.
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the health care provider has prescribed an oropharyngeal airway for a client with a decreased level of consciousness. the health care provider has noted gurgling respirations and the client's tongue is in the posterior pharynx. the client vomits as the airway is inserted. which actions should the nurse take? select all that apply.
The client vomits as the oropharyngeal airway is inserted so the nurse should position client onto the side immediately provide oral suctioning and mouth care, and remove oropharyngeal airway.
An oropharyngeal airway (oral airway, OPA) is an airway adjunct wont to maintain or open the airway by stopping the tongue from covering the cartilaginous structure. during this position, the tongue might forestall a private from respiratory.
Oral suctioning is finished to clear secretions (mucus) from the mouth if a baby is unable to clear it on their own through coughing or processing their nose. A hard-plastic tip with a handle known as a Yankauer is sometimes wont to suction secretions within the mouth.
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a nurse enters the client's room and finds the client lying on the floor experiencing a seizure. after stabilizing the client, the nurse informs the health care provider. the health care provider advises the nurse to prepare an incident report. what is the purpose of an incident report?
An incident report's objective is to evaluate the quality of care and the client's risk of harm.
An incident report's goal is to pinpoint the problem's origin and any corrective measures that may be implemented to lessen the possibility of a repeat occurrence. Through the usage of the papers, safe documentation may be produced by identifying possible workplace safety problems.
In nursing, an evaluation of an occurrence involving property damage or personal injury is known as an incident report. An incident report must be made if these things happen on a medical facility's property. The goal of the incident report is to accurately describe what happened while it is still recent in the thoughts of people who were present. In the future, when dealing with liability concerns resulting from the incident, this knowledge could be helpful.
The objective of the incident report is to record all pertinent information about the incident while it is still recent in the witnesses' memories.
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a client undergoing a cardiac angiogram has also had serum thyroid panel study. the physiologic principle behind looking at thyroid panels includes which possible correlations with cardiac symptoms? select all that apply.
A serum thyroid panel investigation was performed on a patient who was having a cardiac angiography. The physiologic associations with heart problems. CO production rises, whereas oxygen consumption rises.
The peripheral vascular system and the heart are directly impacted by thyroid hormone. In addition to raising heart rate and myocardial inotropy, the hormone can widen peripheral arteries and boost cardiac output. Thyroid hormone excess and deficiency both increase the risk of premature morbidity and mortality by causing or exacerbating cardiovascular diseases like atrial and ventricular arrhythmias, atherosclerotic vascular disease, dyslipidemia, and heart failure.
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a client is receiving baclofen for muscle spasms because of a spinal cord injury. which side/adverse effect related to this medication would the nurse monitor the client for?
According to the theory, baclofen lessens the release of excitatory neurotransmitters in pre-synaptic neurons and increases the activity of inhibitory neuronal signals in post-synaptic neurons, hence reducing spasticity.
Which conditions that cause spasticity are baclofen-treatable?When multiple sclerosis, spinal cord injuries, or other spinal cord illnesses are present, baclofen is used to treat pain and specific types of spasticity (muscle stiffness and tightness).
The effects of baclofen on muscles?You can use baclofen to relax some of your body's muscles. It eases the spasms, cramping, and rigidity of muscles brought on by ailments including multiple sclerosis or specific spinal injuries.
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lakita doesn't have any close relationships and is feeling increasingly isolated and lonely. lakita wishes she could find a few people with whom she could spend time and share like friends do, but she feels that she can't reach out and meet people. she is afraid that if she says something silly or acts in an inappropriate way, she will be criticized and shamed by the individuals with whom she wants to be friends, and they will not want to be her friend. the thoughts of humiliation and rejection are too much for lakita. she has always struggled with this problem and has thus lived a relatively isolated life for quite a few years. lakita might be diagnosed as having personality disorder. dependent antisocial schizoid avoidant
A personality disorder is a type of mental illness where you have an unnaturally rigid way of thinking, acting, and behaving. People and situations are difficult for someone with a personality disorder to perceive and relate to.
What is schizoid personality disorder ?People with schizoid personality disorder, a rare illness, avoid social situations and continuously avoid interacting with others. Additionally, their capacity for expressing emotion is constrained.
Your distinct personality is a culmination of your thoughts, feelings, and actions. It involves how you see yourself, how you perceive, comprehend, and relate to the outside environment. During childhood, personality develops as a result of the interaction between inherited traits and environmental circumstances.
Children gradually develop the ability to recognize and appropriately respond to social cues as part of normal development. Schizoid personality disorder has no known etiology, but it may be influenced by a number of genetic and environmental factors, particularly those present during early life.
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a client who has been diagnosed with osteoarthritis asks if he or she will eventually begin to notice deformities in the hands and fingers as the condition progresses. which concept should the nurse include in the response?
The concept that the nurse should include in the response is that hand and finger deformities may be related to rheumatoid arthritis.
What is the rheumatoid arthritis medical condition?Rheumatoid arthritis is a medical condition that may lead to deformities in the extremities which is well known to be an autoimmune disease associated with an excessive inflammatory immune response in the individual.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that rheumatoid arthritis medical condition associated with an improper inflammatory immune response and this disease may lead to the deformation of extremities in hands.
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when scheduling and confirming travel arrangements for the physician, the medical assistant would get which of the following from the travel agent
The medical assistant that would get itinerary from the travel agent when scheduling and confirming the travel arrangements.
What is Itinerary?An itinerary is the travel plan which include where an individual will go and when they will be there. If someone makes a plan to fly to Paris from Beijing or take a train to Chicago from Mexico City, they will need an itinerary for it.
A travel itinerary is generally prepared by a travel agent who assists one in conducting all their travel arrangements for business or leisure. A travel agent provides a list of pre-planned travel itineraries to a traveler, who can then pick any one that they're most satisfied with from the itineraries.
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when caring for the client with laennec cirrhosis, the nurse recognizes which pathophysiologic finding to be an expected etiology of jaundice?
Jaundice is typically caused by impaired bilirubin uptake, which is a pathophysiologic condition. if a client with laennec cirrhosis is being cared for.
What exactly does pathophysiologic mean?The study of the disrupted physiological processes that produce, result from, or are somehow connected with a disease or damage is known as pathophysiology (sometimes known as physiopathology), which is a fusion of pathology and physiology.
What exactly is a diagnosis' pathophysiology?Pathophysiology: Disease-related abnormal function in a person or an organ. As opposed to a structural flaw, a pathophysiologic modification, for instance, is a change in function.
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which would the nurseteach the parents of a child who is being discharged from the hospital after a diagnosis of acute spasmodic laryngitis to help repvent anohter cropu epsidose
It is determined that the patient has acute spasmodic laryngitis (spasmodic croup). The mother queries how to handle a subsequent attack at home during discharge.
What is the priority action in the immediate postoperative period of a child who has undergone a tonsillectomy?After surgery, aggressive hydration is the most important recommendation. The patient must consume more water than usual during the first 10 to 14 days in order to avoid dehydration.
What are the immediate postoperative management?Maintaining breathing and circulation, monitoring oxygenation and level of awareness, avoiding shock, and controlling pain are the key goals of immediate post-anesthesia nursing care (phase 1). The nurse should regularly check on and record the patient's respiratory, circulatory, and neurological functions.
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