Neoadjuvant chemotherapy was associated with a significantly lower rate of "adequate" ALNDs as defined by current guidelines. The patient subset that received neoadjuvant pertuzumab was more likely to have fewer than 10 axillary lymph nodes retrieved.
How long is neoadjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer?
Adjuvant and neoadjuvant chemo is often given for a total of 3 to 6 months, depending on the drugs used. The length of treatment for metastatic (Stage 4) breast cancer depends on how well it is working and what side effects you have.
How effective is neoadjuvant chemotherapy in breast cancer?
A meta-analysis that combined the results of 12 studies found no difference in rates of breast cancer recurrence or overall survival in women who had neoadjuvant chemotherapy versus those who had adjuvant chemotherapy [157].
What is the benefit of neoadjuvant therapy?
Doctors use neoadjuvant chemotherapy before a person's primary cancer treatment. It can shrink tumors, making surgery possible in otherwise inoperable areas. It can also allow doctors to test a chemotherapy drug to gauge how the body responds to it.
Therefore, the 10-lymph node guideline for axillary lymph node dissection in breast cancer has to be revised.
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how many moles are present in 10.0 gram sample of sodium
Answer:
0.07 moles
Explanation:
i have a test tomorrow Ó╭╮Ò
Analyze the relationships among the key terms ATP, NADP+, and ATP synthase.
Answer: ATP synthase binds ADP and phosphate to produce ATP.
Explanation:
Which of the following is a characteristic of life?
A.) growth and heredity
B.) metabolism
C.) homeostasis
D.) all of the above
Which letter choice is correct? A, B, C, or D?
Answer:
A.) Growth and heredity
Explanation:
how do cells at the completion of meiosis compare with cells that have replicated their dna and are just about to begin meiosis 1 they have twice the amount of cytoplasm and half the amount of dna 2 they have half the number of chromosomes and half the amount dna 3?
Cells at the completion of meiosis have half the number of chromosomes and one-fourth the amount of DNA than that who have replicated their dna and are just about to begin meiosis.
The cells which are produced at the end of meiosis in cell division have half the number of chromosomes (also termed as Haploid), so they will have half the number of chromosomes and same amount DNA as that of the parent cell as DNA divides and makes a copy of the parent cell DNA. But after Replication one-fourth the amount of DNA will be there compared to the cell that have completed meiosis. It is a complex task. It still needs to separate sister chromatids (the two halves of a duplicated chromosome), as in mitosis. But it must also separate homologous chromosomes, the similar but nonidentical chromosome pairs an organism receives from its two parents.
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one way scientists hope to use the recent knowledge gained about noncoding rnas lies with the possibilities for their use in medicine. of the following scenarios for future research, which would you expect to gain most from rnas?
Scientists who is hoping to use the knowledge gained by a noncoding rnas lies among the Targeting siRNAs which is disable and the expression for any of the allele with autosomal dominant the disease. Option (c) is correct.
SIRNAs is a very the small interfering RNAs that don't function a template at some point of the system of protein synthesis. These RNA molecules are double-stranded and feature approximately 23 nucleotides in total. siRNAs manage the expression of genes that selectively inhibiting the mRNAs.
They manage gene expression on the post-transcriptional stage through selectively cleaving mRNA molecules which have the nucleotide sequences complementary to the siRNA. The siRNA molecules may be used to selectively inhibit the expression of the allele for an autosomal dominant disorder. This selective inactivation of the allele related to the ailment could assist to govern the corresponding genetic disorder.
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Correct Question:
One way scientists hope to use the recent knowledge gained about noncoding RNAs lies with the possibilities for their use in medicine. Of the following scenarios for future research, which would you expect to gain most from RNAs?
A) exploring a way to turn on the expression of pseudogenes
B) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal recessive disease
C) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal dominant disease
D) creating knock-out organisms that can be useful for pharmaceutical drug design
E) looking for a way to prevent viral DNA from causing infection in humans
what distinguishes reversible inhibitors from irreversible inhibitors? reversible inhibitors are not covalently bound to enzymes but irreversible inhibitors are. there is an equilibrium between bound and unbound reversible inhibitor. there usually is little back reaction for the binding of an irreversible inhibitor. reversible inhibitors are easier to purify from solutions of enzymes than irreversible inhibitors. all of the above a and b only
The correct option is D : All of the above, In contrast to irreversible inhibitors, reversible inhibitors are not covalently attached to enzymes. Reversible inhibitors are more difficult to isolate from enzyme solutions than irreversible inhibitors.
More substrate with irreversible inhibitors can be added to restore enzyme activity, but not with reversible inhibitors. Reversible enzyme inhibition inactivates enzymes by noncovalent interactions, which is the primary distinction between reversible and irreversible enzyme inhibition. In contrast, irreversible enzyme inhibition renders enzymes inactive by covalently rendering the active site inactive.
In order to prevent the formation of more enzyme-substrate complexes, an irreversible inhibitor will attach to an enzyme. The enzyme will get denatured as a result of its covalent bonding with it at the active site.
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Full Question :
What distinguishes reversible inhibitors from irreversible inhibitors?
A) There is an equilibrium between bound and unbound reversible inhibitor. There usually
is little back reaction for the binding of an irreversible inhibitor.
B) Reversible inhibitors are not covalently bound to enzymes but irreversible inhibitors are.
C) Reversible inhibitors are easier to purify from solutions of enzymes than irreversible
inhibitors.
D) All of the above
E) A and B only
quizl;et parasitology all of the following are correct about helminths except they generally make only a few eggs per day. their eggs and larvae are vulnerable to heat. as parasites, their reproductive organs are their most developed organs. tapeworms and pinworms are two examples. they are not all parasites, although some are.
The following is incorrect about helminths: a) Typically, they only lay a few eggs every day. This is because they produce thousands of eggs each day.
Eggs that are transferred in the feces of infected persons are what cause soil-transmitted helminths to spread. Adult worms lay hundreds of eggs daily in the colon where they reside. These eggs infect the soil in places with poor sanitation. Several things might cause this to occur:
Eggs of helminths are consumed via polluted water sources, eggs are ingested from vegetables that have eggs attached to them, eggs are ingested by kids who play in contaminated dirt and then put their hands in their mouths without washing them, and eggs are ingested from vegetables that have eggs attached to them.
Additionally, hookworm larvae that develop into a form that can actively pierce the skin are released when their eggs hatch in the soil. The main way that people get hookworm is by going barefoot on the contaminated ground. The eggs of helminths carried in feces must develop in the soil for about 3 weeks before they become infectious, thus there is no direct person-to-person transmission or infection from fresh feces.
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102) auxin enhances cell elongation in all of the these ways except a) increased uptake of solutes. b) gene activation. c) acid-induced denaturation of cell wall proteins. d) increased activity of plasma membrane proton pumps. e) cell wall loosening.
With the exception of acid-induced denaturation of cell wall proteins, auxin promotes cell elongation in all of these ways.
Role of auxin in cell elongation:Cell walls, which are dynamic structures with a tightly controlled balance between rigidity and flexibility, surround the cells of plants. Although walls are extensible to allow for cell expansion, which is induced by a high intracellular turgor pressure, they are rather rigid to give support and protection. A variety of cell sizes and shapes are produced as a result of the regulation of wall characteristics on the differential growth of the cell. It is generally known that the plant hormone auxin promotes cell elongation by lengthening cell walls. Auxin causes the wall to relax, contributing to the modulation of cell wall characteristics.
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Which of the following is not an event necessary to supply the body with O2 and dispose of CO2?
a. external respiration
b. pulmonary ventilation
c. blood pH adjustment
d. internal respiration
Blood pH adjustment is not an event necessary supply to the body with O2 and dispose of CO2.
What is body fuilds?Blood and lymph are the two at main body fluids in to the relative position human body.
In respiration
External ,internal the gaseous exchange took place among CO 2 and O2 the which is further exchange by body fluids by it.
And in pulmonary ventilation lungs are used to the respiratory
But the change of pH in blood is not directly controlled by the gases
So right answer is blood pH adjustment.
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the boulders studied in the investigation described above were deposited by a glacial retreat approximately 14,000 years ago. these boulders then eroded over time to form components of the soil in the forest. describe a different natural occurrence that could lead to soil formation from similar initial conditions.
Soil is essential to our continued existence on Earth, and weathering is a crucial step in the process of soil formation. In other words, weathering is responsible for our existence, so we must take care of the soil.
Although scientists define soil as the loose material that contains organic matter, originates in the top few tens of centimetres of the surface, and is essential for sustaining plant growth, many people refer to any loose substance on the Earth's surface as soil.
A complex blend of minerals (about 45%), organic matter (about 5%), and empty space (about 50%, filled to variable degrees with air and water) makes up soil. Although soil contains a variety of minerals, quartz and clay minerals predominate, with feldspar and tiny rock pieces appearing less frequently.The types of weathering that occur in a given area have a significant impact on the composition and texture of the soil. For instance, soils are more likely to be clay-rich in warm climates where chemical weathering is predominant.
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Place the following steps of phagocytosis in the order that they occur:
1) Endosome fuses with lysozome
2) Dendritic cell engulfs Rhinovirus
3) Epitopes are attached to MHC-II
4) Digestion of the Rhinovirus
5) MHC-II plus the attached epitope move to the outside of the dendritic cell
cd4+ t cells are activated by interaction between CD4+ and MHC II.
What is MHC molecule?Antigens are foreign proteins that enter the host body through an infection. Antigens are generally high molecular weight proteins or polysaccharides. Viruses and bacteria contain antigen on their surface or inside the body.Epitope is the molecular region on the surface of the antigen which interacts with the antibody binding site on the antigen. Epitopes are capable of stimulating an immune response so, these are also known as antigenic determinants. Binding between the receptor and epitopes occurs when they both fit together like a puzzle, that event is necessary to activate B-cell production of antibodies.A sizable region of vertebrate DNA called the major histocompatibility complex houses a group of closely related polymorphic genes that code for the cell surface proteins needed by the adaptive immune system. These MHC molecules are cell surface proteins.A controlled, efficient immune response to pathogens depends on CD4+T cells. After interacting with the antigen-MHC complex, naive CD4+T cells become activated and undergo specialized subtype differentiation that is largely influenced by the cytokine milieu of the microenvironment.Hence the correct answer is interaction between CD4+ and MHC II.
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which one of the following is best associated with proteins? a. phosphate linkages b. hydrocarbon rings c. hydrocarbon chains d. amino acids
Amino acids are best associated with proteins. Thus the correct answer is option (D).
The chemical molecule known as an amino acid is one that has both a carboxylic acid (-COOH) and an amino (-NH2) functional group.
The carbohydrate molecule known as starch, on the other hand, is composed of monomers known as monosaccharides. A lengthy chain of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms makes up the monosaccharide.
This suggests that the main structural distinction between starch and amino acids is that the former contains nitrogen, whereas the latter does not.
The complete question is:
Which one of the following is best associated with proteins?
a. phosphate linkages
b. hydrocarbon rings
c. hydrocarbon chains
d. amino acids
e. saccharides
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Muscles of the axial skeleton might have an origin or insertion on any of the following except...
1. bones of the skull
2. humerus, femur
3. cranial bones, cervical vertebrae
4. thoracic vertebrae, lumbar vertebrae
Muscles of the axial skeleton might have an origin or insertion on any of the following except option 2 humerus, femur.
The axial skeleton is comprised of the 80 bones that form your body's central core. This includes your skull, neck, back, and chest bones. Your brain, spinal cord, and organs are all protected and cushioned by your axial skeleton. The skull, laryngeal skeleton, vertebral column, and thoracic cage are all part of the axial skeleton. The humerus and femur are the bones that correspond to the arms and legs, respectively. While their parts are similar in general, their structures have been modified to serve different purposes. The humeral head is nearly hemispherical, while the femoral head is roughly two-thirds of a sphere.
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If an offspring has a recessive trait show up, such as blue eyes, what combination of alleles must be present?
Group of answer choices
1 dominant and 1 recessive gene
2 dominant genes
2 recessive genes
Answer:
2 recessive genes
Explanation:
A recessive trait can only be present in the absence of the dominant gene.
For example the gene for brown eyes are dominant and the gene for blue eyes are recessive.
**the dominant gene is usually represented with a capital letter and vice versa for the recessive*
Denoting:
B for brown eyes
b for blue eyes
We know that gametes (sex cells) have half the number of chromosomes (haploid number) than all the other cells in the body, the reason for this is because during fertilization, both male and female gametes combine and then in total they have the diploid number of chromosomes.
so for each trait, you have an allele from each the mother and father. Heterozygous means that there are two different alleles for the gene and homozygous means that both alleles for a specific gene are the same.
In the case of eye colour, any combination that has the dominant Brown allele in it results in the offspring having brown eyes no matter if there is also a recessive blue allele.
the combinations BB, Br all result in brown eyes and the only possibility of blues eyes are bb
Safe Cooking Temperatures To ensure food safety when preparing meats, a thermometer should be used to gauge the internal temperature. Put the four meats in order of lowest recommended minimum internal temperature (left) to highest recommended minimum internal temperature (right) Medium rare steak Pourty Heat to 140°F Heat to 145°F Heat to 160°F Heat to 165°F Reset
Temperatures for Safe Cooking A thermometer should be used to gauge the internal temperature of meats to ensure food safety.
When cooking meat or eggs at home, keep the following temperatures in mind: Cook eggs and all ground meats to 160°F; poultry and fowl to 165°F; and fresh meat steaks, chops, and roasts to 145°F. Check temperatures with a thermometer. for safe cooking Chilling food does not kill bacteria, but it does prevent them from multiplying to dangerous levels. As a result, it is a legal requirement that perishable foods be kept refrigerated at 8oC or lower. Frozen food should ideally be stored at a temperature of -18oC or lower.
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nucleotides are composed of a(an): a. amino acid, b. nitrogen-containing base, c. fatty acid, d. 5-carbon sugar, e. phosphate molecule. which combination is correct:
The correct option is B,D,E : A molecule made comprised of a nitrogen-containing base (in DNA, adenine, guanine, thymine, or cytosine; in RNA, adenine, guanine, uracil, or cytosine), a phosphate group, and a sugar (deoxyribose in DNA; ribose in RNA).
An amino acid is a protein molecule monomer, whereas a nucleotide is a nucleic acid monomer. As a result, this is the primary distinction between amino acid and nucleotide. Furthermore, amino acids have C, H, N, O, and S atoms, whereas nucleotides contain C, H, N, O, and P atoms.
Nucleotides are made up of three components: phosphate, a sugar molecule, and one of four bases. A (adenine), g (guanine), t (thymine), and c are the bases (cytosine).
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what characteristic of dna allows methylation patterns to be maintained throuh replication and cell devision
Maintenance of such a methylation pattern in DNA during replication is mediated by DNA nucleotide methyltransferase 1 (DNMT1) [11], which methylates newly synthesized CpG sequences.
Depending on the methylation status of the template strand, inheritance of DNA methylation through replication occurs easily and rapidly, as newly replicated hypomethylated DNA serves to recruit housekeeping DNA methylases to restore DNA methylation in the newly replicated strand of DNA. Cell division and epigenetic inheritance: DNA replicates in a semi-conservative way. Various DNA replication machines preserve genetic and epigenetic information. DNA methylation patterns are believed to be maintained through mitosis by DNA methyltransferase. Most DNA methylation is essential for normal development and plays a very important role in a number of key processes, including genomic imprinting, X chromosome inactivation and repeat deletion. transposition and transcription elements and, when dysregulated, contributes to diseases such as cancer.
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which observation is the best sign that a chemical change is happening? PLEASE HELP I NEED AN ANSWER ASAP! WILL MARK BRAINLIEST
Answer: The Answer is : The release of light and heat
Explanation: I did the test
Answer: release of light and heat
Explanation:
The best sign that a chemical change is happening is the formation of a new substance with different properties from the original substances. Here are some observations that indicate a chemical change:
1. Formation of a precipitate: If two clear liquids are mixed and a solid substance (precipitate) forms, it indicates a chemical change. For example, when silver nitrate solution is mixed with sodium chloride solution, a white precipitate of silver chloride forms.
2. Color change: When a substance changes color during a reaction, it suggests a chemical change has occurred. For instance, when iron rusts, it changes from a shiny metallic color to a reddish-brown color.
3. Evolution of gas: If bubbles or gas is produced during a reaction, it signifies a chemical change. An example is when vinegar (acetic acid) reacts with baking soda (sodium bicarbonate), it produces carbon dioxide gas, causing bubbles.
4. Temperature change: Sometimes, a chemical reaction causes a noticeable change in temperature. For instance, when magnesium reacts with hydrochloric acid, the solution becomes warmer, indicating a chemical change.
5. Release or absorption of energy: Chemical reactions often involve the release or absorption of energy. This can be observed through light, heat, or sound changes. For example, when wood burns, it releases heat and light, indicating a chemical change.
Remember, these observations alone do not always guarantee a chemical change. It's important to consider multiple indicators to confirm the occurrence of a chemical reaction.
a horticulturalist wants to produce geraniums with specific characteristics. she knows that the trait of red flowers is governed by the allele r (rr and rr) and the trait of white flowers is governed by the allele r (rr).
a cross of two geraniums yields offspring that are 25% rr, 50% rr, and 25% rr.
which choice best represents the alleles of the parents?
A. Rr and rr
B. rr and rr
C. Rr and Rr
D. RR and rr
Answer C Rr and Rr
Explanation:
because i did that test hope this helps
Answer: C. Rr and Rr
Explanation:
Took the test
90) what is the probable role of salicylic acid in the defense responses of plants? a) destroy pathogens directly b) activate systemic acquired resistance of plants c) close stomata, thus preventing the entry of pathogens d) activate heat-shock proteins e) sacrifice infected tissues by hydrolyzing cells
The role of salicylic acid in plant defense responses is b) activating systemically acquired plant resistance
Growth hormone is an organic compound both naturally occurring and man-made that can promote plant growth and development. Hormones control plant growth and development, by influencing cell division, cell elongation, and cell differentiation.
Salicylic acid is a phenolic compound that plays a role in regulating plant growth. These phenolic compounds can increase plant growth and have an effect on protecting the development of antistress programs. Resistance to disease in the process of plant production can be achieved by using biopesticides through the induction of systemic resistance by increasing secondary metabolites with salicylic acid. Salicylic acid plays an important role in induced systemic resistance in response to pathogenic infections. The mechanism of plant resistance to disease can be in the form of physical or chemical resistance. Salicylic acid is more dominant to overcome the attack of biotrophic pathogens.
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what is feedback inhibition? how enzymes catalyzing the irreversible reactions in glycolysis and krebs cycle are regulated by amp:atp ratio?
A feedback inhibitor chemical that binds to an enzyme and inhibits its activity is known as an enzyme inhibitor. By increasing the Km for fructose-6-phosphate, ATP blocks the phosphofructokinase process. The reaction is triggered by AMP. Thus, glycolysis starts when energy is needed. The reaction slows down when energy is in abundance.
What is glycolysis?
The metabolic process that changes glucose into pyruvate is known as glycolysis. The high-energy molecules adenosine triphosphate and reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide are created using the free energy released during this process. A series of ten enzyme-catalyzed processes make up glycolysis.
Hence, the answer is feedback inhibitor chemical that binds to an enzyme and inhibits its activity is known as an enzyme inhibitor. By increasing the Km for fructose-6-phosphate, ATP blocks the phosphofructokinase process. The reaction is triggered by AMP. Thus, glycolysis starts when energy is needed. The reaction slows down when energy is in abundance.
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when you arrive at work, you are unable to park your car in your assigned spot because someone has already parked there. what type of enzyme process could this be related to? your answer: denaturation competitive inhibition substrate specific inhibition non-competitive inhibition
when a car is parked exactly where you usually do, making it impossible for you to park. In this problem, enzymes are compared to a car's parking capabilities. The car is the substrate, the parking space is the active site, and the nearby cars are the competitive inhibition.
Competitive inhibition is the disruption of a chemical pathway as a result of one chemical substance competing with another for binding or bonding, hence inhibiting the action of the other. This principle may have an impact on any metabolic or chemical messenger system, but several classes of competitive inhibition, such as the competitive form of enzyme inhibition, the competitive form of receptor antagonism, the competitive form of antimetabolite activity, and the competitive form of poisoning, are particularly significant in biochemistry and medicine (which can include any of the aforementioned types)
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With regard to pharyngeal slits, match each of the following with the statement that it is associated with. Invertebrate chordates ✓ [Choose ] Suspension-feeding devices modified to become part of the gill apparatus for gas exchange Slits are closed off and the remaining tissues become part of the ears and head Vertebrates TETUUSC) Tetrapods [Choose ] Question 13 0.4 pts The [Select ] of the tunicate filters water while the holds its organs ✓ [Select ] coelom top portio
Pharyngeal slits are a third chordate feature; these are openings between the pharynx, or throat, and the outside.
Deuterostomes have filter-feeding structures called pharyngeal slits. Repeated holes known as pharyngeal slits can be found along the pharynx caudal to the mouth. They let water to flow out of the pharyngeal slits and into the mouth by holding themselves in this position. According to one theory, pharyngeal slits helped aquatic chordates breathe by first assisting with filter-feeding and then, when gills were added to their walls, helping with respiration. Similar developmental principles govern these repetitive segments. Some hemichordate species have gill slit counts of up to 200. During the early developmental phases of tetrapod growth, pharyngeal clefts that resemble gill slits are momentarily present. Ernst Haeckel famously proposed that the growing human embryo's neck had pharyngeal arches and clefts.
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monitor the position of skeletal muscles and joints. interoceptors somatic sensory receptors special sensory receptors proprioceptors exteroceptors
The exteroceptors is more sophisticated particular senses of sight, smell, and hearing as well as touch, temperature, and pressure sensations.
What is skeletal muscles?
A highly organized tissue with several bundles of muscle fiber called skeletal muscle (myofibers). Each myofiber, which consists of numerous myofibrils, represents a muscle cell, which is composed primarily of sarcomeres.
What is sensory receptors?
Sensory receptors are trained to recognize specific types of stimuli. They transform the stimulus' energy into electric signals as soon as they receive it. The brain and spinal cord receive the electric signal, action potential, or impulses that are thus produced from sensory neurons or afferent neurons.
The more sophisticated particular senses of sight, smell, and hearing as well as touch, temperature, and pressure sensations are all provided by exteroceptors. Proprioceptors keep track of how skeletal muscles and joints are positioned and moving.
Therefore, exteroceptors is more sophisticated particular senses of sight, smell, and hearing as well as touch, temperature, and pressure sensations.
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which proteins bind guanosine triphosphate (gtp) and act as an intermediate between a receptor and an effector enzyme?
G proteins bind guanosine triphosphate (GTP) and serve as a link between a receptor and an effector enzyme.
Guanosine-5'-triphosphate is a purine nucleoside triphosphate. It is an individual of the construction blocks wanted for the combination of RNA all along the copy process. Its building is complementary to that of the guanosine nucleoside, the only distinctness being that nucleotides like GTP have phosphates on their ribose carbohydrate.
Guanosine triphosphate (GTP) may be taken advantage of as a substrate for deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA and RNA) combination, as a strong beginning for protein combining and gluconeogenesis, and as an indicating particle. An enzyme is a meaning that acts as a stimulant in living structures, organizing the rate at that synthetic backlashes originate outside itself and are changed in the process.
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Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method?
A) belief in a preconceived idea
B) formulate a hypothesis
C) systematic observation
D) laboratory experimentation
E) development of a theory
A) belief in a preconceived idea
The scientific method does not involve holding onto predetermined notions.
Which four steps comprise the scientific method?The procedures for applying the scientific method differ from text to text, but they typically include: defining the issue, gathering background data, formulating a hypothesis, making observations, testing the hypothesis, and drawing conclusions.
Does the scientific approach include holding to predetermined notions?The scientific method is unbiased in that researchers don't allow preconceived notions or prejudices to affect the data collecting, and it is systematic in that experiments are carried out in a logical manner.
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What is the expected size of the world's population in 2050?
O A. There will be too many people for the world to feed.
OB. It will be smaller than today's population.
C. It's expected to be 7.8 billion people.
OD. It will exceed 9 billion people.
Answer:
D. It will exceed 9 billion people
Explanation:
The current world population of 8 billion is expected to reach 8.6 billion in 2030, 9.8 billion in 2050 and 11.2 billion in 2100
question at position 1 horses and donkeys can interbreed, but their offspring (mules) are infertile. this is an example of what kind of reproductive isolating mechanism?
genetic incompatibility post-zygote. The production of healthy sperm and eggs is hampered by the misaligned chromosomes. Mules are therefore sterile because the chromosomes of horses and donkeys are simply too different.
A type of postzygotic isolating mechanism is hybrid sterility. For instance, the mule is a cross between a horse or pony and a donkey. The donkey has 62 diploid chromosomes, while a horse or pony has 64. The mule is therefore sterile and has 63 chromosomes. An progeny known as a mule can be born from the union of a donkey and a horse. Due to the donkey parent having 62 and the horse parent having 64 chromosomes, the resulting mule has 63 chromosomes in its cells. The mule can't do it.
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A student designed a model of active transport. In order to refine the model to be more accurate, what should be added to the diagram?
In order to refine the model of an active transport to be more accurate, the addition of ATP being converted to ADP should be added to the model to show that energy is being used to transport materials and is therefore denoted as option B.
What is Active transport?This is referred to as the movement of molecules from a region of lower concentration to that of a region of higher concentration against a gradient with the use of external energy.
ATP being converted to ADP means that energy was used up to transport materials thereby making it the correct choice.
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The options are:
The addition of ADP being converted to ATP should be added to the model to show that energy is being stored during the process.The addition of ATP being converted to ADP should be added to the model to show that energy is being used to transport materials.Nothing should be addedWhich of the following correctly matches the phase of the eukaryotic cell cycle with an event that takes place in that phase?
a. G2 phase—mitosis
b. G1 phase—DNA synthesis
c. S phase—cell growth
d. M phase—cytokinesis
The correct answer is D : M phase—cytokinesis , The M phase is made up of two processes: cytokinesis (or cell division), in which the cytoplasm of the cell divides in half to create two distinct daughter cells, and mitosis, in which the cell's chromosomes are distributed equally between the two daughter cells.
While cytokinesis involves the division of the cytoplasm to create two separate, new daughter cells, mitosis involves the division and duplication of the cell's nucleus or the separation of duplicated chromosomes.
The main distinction between cytokinesis and mitosis is thus this. Meiosis and mitosis are the two distinct cell division processes.
Two genetically identical daughter cells are produced during mitotic cell division from a parent cell.
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