The nurse should measure from the nose, through the ear, to the lower sternum to determine the proper length to put the nasogastric tube.
A nasogastric tube (NG tube) is a unique tube that travels from the nose to the stomach to deliver food and medications.
A thin, soft tube called a nasogastric tube is inserted through the nose, down the throat, and into the stomach. When a youngster is unable to consume food by mouth, they are used to give them formula. Children may receive medication through a tube.
In addition to being used to treat intestinal blockage, nasogastric tubes can also be utilized to assist nourishment. They are most frequently used in surgical patients, but they are also helpful in any patient population that requires nutritional assistance or stomach decompression.
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question 1 according to research by the national survey on drug use and health (nsduh), in 2013 an estimated 28.7 million people reported driving under the influence of alcohol at least once during the previous year. a) true b) false
According to research by the national survey on drug use and health (nsduh), in 2013 an estimated 28.7 million people reported driving under the influence of alcohol at least once during the previous year, the statement is true.
What is drug?Anything that is used to treat, diagnose, or relieve the symptoms of an illness or other abnormal condition that is not food. Additionally, drugs may alter the way the brain and the rest of the body function, resulting in modifications to mood, consciousness, thoughts, feelings, or behavior.
Why is it called drug?Etymology. The term "drug" in English is assumed to derive from the Old French "drogue," maybe from "droge (vate)" from Middle Dutch meaning "dry (barrels)," alluding to medicinal herbs kept as dry materials in barrels.
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the nurse is caring for an 8-month-old infant. a urinalysis has been prescribed, and the nurse plans to collect the specimen. which method should be used for urine collection in an infant?
For collecting urine the nurse should do Option b) that is : Attaching a urine collection device to the infant's perineum
What is a urine collecting device ?The most popular way to collect urine samples from people, especially men, is midstream (clean-catch) urine collection. This technique enables the collection of a specimen devoid of external contamination without the need for catheterization.
The most frequent cause of severe bacterial infections in febrile children younger than 90 days is urinary tract infections (UTIs). In order to diagnose a condition, urine must be collected using one of four methods: clean-catch, suprapubic aspiration, urethral catheterization, or sterile urine bags (CC).
This sample will be collected by a medical professional using a catheter. With an antiseptic, the region around the urethra is cleaned. To collect the urine, a tiny catheter is inserted into the baby's bladder.
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the nurse is performing nasotracheal suctioning. after suctioning the client's trachea for fifteen seconds, large amounts of thick yellow secretions return. what action should the nurse implement next?
A nurse performing nasotracheal suction, suctioning the patient's trachea for 15 seconds, returns a profuse dark yellow discharge. The nurse should then re-oxygenate the patient before attempting suction again.
What is Nasotracheal Suctioning and can nurses use nasotracheal suction?Nasotracheal suctioning is one of the most common methods of maintaining a patient's airway. A flexible catheter is inserted through the nose and throat into the trachea to remove secretions, blood, vomit, and other foreign objects.A registered nurse (RN), licensed practice nurse (LPN), or respiratory therapist can perform nasotracheal suctioningHow does nasopharyngeal and nasotracheal suction differ each other?The most important difference between nasopharyngeal and nasotracheal aspiration is that nasotracheal aspiration is more invasive. This means that the latter requires longer catheters and greater precision. Nasopharyngeal suctioning is indicated when there is evidence of fluid retention but the child is unable to expel the fluid on its own and the fluid is deep in the airways.To learn more about nasotracheal suction visit:
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the nurse is teaching a client proper use of an inhaler. when should the client administer the inhaler-delivered medication to demonstrate correct use of the inhaler?
It is best to give the client instructions to administer the medication during the last part of inhalation.
When administering medication using an inhaler you should?Inhale via the inhaler. As you begin to breathe in slowly, immediately press down on the inhaler to release the medication. Take three to five deep breaths. Hold your breath for ten seconds to allow the medication to enter your lungs deeply.
What should you assess before administering Albuterol?Indications: The treatment of asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with albuterol is widely utilized (COPD). Nursing Considerations: Prior to and following administration, listen for changes in breathing rate, oxygen saturation, and lung sounds. If multiple inhalations are required, at least two minutes should pass between each ONE.
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which condition causes hypoventilation in a patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (
In a patient with a history of both diabetes mellitus and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), an excess of oxygen therapy results in hypoventilation.
How can hypoventilation occur?The term "hypoventilation" refers to breathing that is either too shallow or too slowly for the body's needs. The amount of CO2 in the body increases when someone hypoventilates. Acid level increases and there is insufficient oxygen in the blood as a result of this. Hypoventilation can make a person feel dizzy.
What is the ideal course of action for COPD?Short-acting bronchodilator inhalers are the initial line of treatment for the majority of COPD patients. By broadening your airways, bronchodilators help you breathe more easily. Short-acting bronchodilator inhalers come in two varieties: beta-2 agonist inhalers, such as salbutamol and terbutaline.
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Overdose of oxygen therapy causes hypoventilation in a patient who has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
What is hypoventilation?
It is breathing that is too shallow or too slow to meet the needs of the body. If a person hypoventilates, the body's carbon dioxide level rises.
This causes a buildup of acid and too little oxygen in bloodWhat is obstructive pulmonary disease?
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a chronic inflammatory lung disease that causes obstructed airflow from lungs.
Symptoms include breathing difficulty, cough, mucus production and wheezing.Smoking is main cause of COPD and is thought to be responsible for around 9 in every 10 cases.learn more about COPD at
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the nurse is performing an initial assessment on a newborn infant. when assessing the infant's head, the nurse notes that the ears are low-set. which nursing action is most appropriate?
The nurse is performing an initial assessment on a newborn infant. when assessing the infant's head, the nurse notes that the ears are low-set. The health care provider nursing action is most appropriate.
What about nurses?According to the Merriam- Webster wordbook, nurses are trained in promoting and maintaining health and should work autonomously or under the supervision of a croaker, surgeon, or dentist.From the time of birth to the top of life, nursers are present in every community, big and little.Nurses do a spread of duties, from furnishing direct case care and managing cases to setting nursing practice morals, creating internal control procedures, and managing intricate medical care systems.The maturity of long- term care in the country is handled by nurses, who also structure the largest single group of the sanitarium labor force.The four- time Bachelorette of Science in nursing( BSN) degree is the main route to professional nursing, as opposed to rehearsing at the specialized position.Nursing includes furnishing independent and platoon- rested care to people of all periods, families, groups, and communities, whether or not they're ill or not and anyhow of the position.Health creation, complaint forestallment, and thus the care of the ill, impaired, and dying are all included in nursing.A RN is a good healthcare provider who offers direct case care in a variety of sanitarium and community settings.Learn more about nurses here:
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assessment of a patient who complains of the sudden onset of chest discomfort reveals a central intravenous catheter to his right upper chest. while assessing this piece of medical equipment, which finding related to the catheter should be of greatest concern to the emt?
The line of the catheter should be unclamped and without a cap is the greatest concern to the emt (emergency medical technician) for treating chest discomfort.
What is the use of catheter attached to the chest?Cardiac catheterization is used to test the reason for having chest pain and abnormal heart rhythm. It is a small, flexible, hollow tube fixed into the blood vessel in the groin, arm, or neck that will enter into the blood vessel of aorta.
Chest discomfort is caused by heartburn (burning sensation behind the breastbone) occurs when acid in the stomach washes up from stomach into the tube.
It may also be caused by:
Heart attack- blockage of blood flow to the heart muscleAngina pectoris- Chest pain caused by the reduced blood flow in the heartPericarditis- Swelling and irritation of the membrane surrounding the heart (Pericardium)Myocarditis- Swelling or inflammation of the middle layer of heart wall (Myocardium).Hence, catheter should be unclamped and without a cap to minimize the pressure in the tube during the introduction to right upper chest.
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many elderly patients appear to be stooped as if they have recently lost weight. the main reason for this can be attributed to?
Many older patients appear to be stooped as if they have recently lost weight because of calcium loss in the body, which causes changes in the spinal column.
This stooped posture, also known as hyperkyphosis, or an overly rounded upper spinal column, is the result of a number of reasons. These include disc degeneration, osteoporosis, and a loss of muscle strength. The vertebrae, which are the bones that make up the spinal column, are cushioned by discs.
Parkinson's disease is characterized by a stooped posture. This hunched posture has been linked to an increase in muscular stiffness or rigidity. Parkinson's disease is characterized by a forward head, rounded shoulders, increased thoracic kyphosis, increased trunk flexion, and knee bending.
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select all that apply: the nurse is assessing the abilities of an older adult. which activities are considered iadl’s?
The nurse is assessing abilities of an older adult then activities that are considered IADLs are : preparing a meal, balancing checkbook and grocery shopping.
What is IADLs?The major domains of IADLs are cooking, cleaning, transportation, laundry, and also managing finances. Occupational therapist assess IADLs in the setting of rehab to determine the level of need of an individual for assistance and cognitive function.
Instrumental activities of daily living or IADLs are the things that you do every day to take care of yourself and home.
IADLs are the self-care tasks we generally learn as teenagers. They require complex thinking skills and including organizational skills. They also include: managing finances like paying bills and managing financial assets.
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the nurse will notify the health care provider immediately if the client taking amoxicillin for otitis media is also taking what medication?
The nurse will notify the health care provider immediately if the client taking amoxicillin for otitis media is also taking tetracycline for acne
Amoxicillin is first-line antibiotic recommended by most scientific societies for treatment of uncomplicated acute otitis media (AOM) in children and adults
Tetracycline works by slowing down growth of the bacteria that cause acne. It also acts as anti-inflammatory, so it helps make pimples less swollen and red.The tetracycline class of antibiotics inhibits C. acnes growth in pilosebaceous unit thus making the tetracyclines successful in treating acne.
Ear infections happen when bacteria or virus infect and trap fluid behind eardrum, causing pain and swelling/bulging of the eardrum.
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the home health care nurse is providing instructions to a client after a vulvectomy. which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
The nurse should tell the client to resume the activities slowly, keeping in mind that walking is beneficial activity.
What is vulvectomy ?During a vulvectomy, the outer genitalia may be partially or entirely removed.
Lichen sclerosus, precancer, and cancer are all removed surgically together with other damaged tissue.
la- bia maj- ora or minora, whichever is larger. The cli- toris or Barth- olin glands are where it starts less frequently.
to remove the urine from your bladder using a cath- eter or drainage tube.
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the long-term care nurse is performing assessments on several of the residents. which are normal age-related physiological changes the nurse should expect to note? select all that apply.
Decline in visual acuity, increased risk of urinary tract infections, and more frequent awakenings after falling asleep.
Short definition of infection:An infection occur when bacteria infect the body, grow, and cause the body to react. Three events are necessary for an infection to occur: Source: Infectious (germ) agent habitats. a vulnerable person who acts as a germ entry point.
For instance, what exactly is an infection?An disease starts when a bacterium harms a person by entering their body. The microbe reproduces and colonizes on that person's body, living off of it. These dangerous microbes proliferate quickly and are contagious. Examples of pathogens include bacteria.
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the nurse is preparing discharge teaching for a client diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease (pvd). which teaching points should the nurse include about foot and leg care?
Teaching points about leg and foot care for the client diagnosed with peripheral vascular disorder:
1. Each day, wash your feet. Completely drying them. Apply moisturizer to avoid cracks that can become infected. However, avoid moisturizing in between the toes as this can encourage the growth of fungus.
2. Put on comfortable footwear and sturdy, dry socks.
3. Treat any fungus that has affected your feet, such as athlete's foot, right away.
4. When clipping your nails, be careful.
5. Check your feet every day for damage.
5. Have bunions, corns, or calluses treated by a podiatrist.
6. As soon as you notice a wound or sore on your skin, consult your healthcare provider.
What is Peripheral Vascular Disorder?
A slow-moving circulation disorder called peripheral vascular disease (PVD) affects the extremities. PVD may be brought on by a blood vessel narrowing, blockage, or spasm.
The blood vessels, including arteries, veins, and lymphatic vessels, can develop the condition of PVD outside of the heart. Legs and the brain, which are supplied by these vessels, may not receive enough blood flow to function properly. But the most typical affected body parts are the legs and feet.
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which strength test best measures muscular endurance? a. 1-minute sit-up test b. bench press (1rm) c. grip strength d. leg press (1rm)
The best strength measure test for muscular endurance is a. 1-minute sit-up test
What is muscular endurance ?The capacity of a muscle or group of muscles to sustain repeated contractions against a force over an extended period of time is known as muscular endurance. The more repetitions you could perform, the stronger your muscle endurance was.
The term "muscular endurance" describes a muscle's capacity to continue contracting repeatedly despite opposition for an extended period of time. Long-distance running, cycling, or swimming, as well as circuit training and bodyweight workouts, are exercises that increase muscle endurance.
Push-ups, sit-ups, and repeated squat tests were used to measure the muscular endurance of subjects. The push-up test evaluates how well the arm, shoulder, and trunk muscles work to stabilize the trunk during performance.
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during shift change report, the nurse receives report that a client has abnormal heart sounds. which placement of the stethoscope should the nurse use to hear the client's heart sounds?
Over the anterior chest's valvular areas, place the stethoscope bell.
When a client with a nasogastric tube complains of nausea, what urgent step would the nurse take?Some patients could be permitted to eat ice chips. Report it right away if the patient has nausea, stomach pain, or any of these symptoms, or if they start to vomit. The drainage tube has to be watered because it is possibly blocked in flow. Never allow these patients to rest entirely flat.
The diaphragm is best at transferring higher frequency sounds, whereas the bell is best at sending lower frequency sounds. Some stethoscopes have a single surface that serves both of these purposes.
All of the anterior lobes of the lungs should be thoroughly auscultated.
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you have been called to a residence for a patient who is sick and not feeling well. the patient has multiple medical problems and is confined to bed, with care provided by family members. the patient has a gastric tube and an indwelling urinary catheter. which assessment finding should raise your suspicion that the patient has a urinary tract infection?
The catheter bag must be positioned beneath the patient's bladder by the EMT. The patient is being looked for by family members despite having numerous medical issues. There is a gastric tube in the patient.
What is the purpose of a gastric tube?
A gastrostomy tube, commonly known as a G-tube, is a tube that is put into the stomach to deliver food directly to a stomach. It's one method doctors can guarantee that picky eaters get the calories and fluids they require.
A stomach tube is it everlasting?
Having a gastrostomy might be permanent or temporary. Compared to NG- or NJ-tube feeding, it is regarded as a longer-term alternative feeding technique. (Feeding through NJ tube also occurs through the nose,
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an 8-year-old child was chasing his dog when the boy ran out into the street and was struck by a car. he is responsive to verbal stimuli and has an unstable pelvis and a bruise to the side of his face. his airway is open and his breathing is rapid and shallow. his radial pulse is rapid and weak and his skin is cool, moist, and diaphoretic. the patient also has abrasions to his back after being thrown by the car onto the pavement. based on these assessment findings, the emt would treat the patient for which life-threatening condition?
Shock is a life-threatening condition that EMTs would treat the patient for.
What is Shock?
The body's response to a sudden drop in blood pressure is a shock. The body's initial response to this potentially fatal circumstance is to limit (constrict) the blood arteries in the extremities (hands and feet). Vasoconstriction, as it is also known, helps maintain blood flow to the body's important organs. However, the body also produces the hormone (chemical) adrenaline, which can make the body's initial reaction go the other way. The blood pressure lowers as a result, which can be fatal.
What are EMTs?
An EMT provides transportation and emergency on-site medical care for seriously injured or unwell patients who need quick medical attention. EMTs provide this fundamental and urgent medical care inside an ambulance using the equipment and supplies that are there while making sure that every second counts.
Hence, Shock is a life-threatening condition that EMTs would treat the patient for.
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a young client is being treated for a femoral fracture suffered in a snowboarding accident. the nurse's most recent assessment reveals that the client is uncharacteristically confused. what diagnostic test should be performed on this client?
A young client is being treated for a femoral fracture suffered in a snowboarding accident. the nurse's most recent assessment reveals that the client is uncharacteristically confused. So, arterial blood gases (ABG) diagnostic test should be performed on this patient.
What are arterial blood gases used for?Due to the risk of fat embolism syndrome, subtle personality changes, restlessness, irritability, or disorientation in a patient who has received a fracture are grounds for prompt arterial blood gas investigations. This evaluation finding does not suggest that electrolyte levels, an ECG, or abdominal ultrasound are required right away.
What causes arterial blood gas?An arterial blood gases (ABG) test determines the acidity (pH) and amounts of oxygen and carbon dioxide in artery blood.
This test determines how well your lungs can transfer oxygen into your blood and eliminate carbon dioxide from your blood.
This can occur as a consequence of the lungs failing to function correctly (called respiratory acidosis) or as a result of a buildup of acid from metabolic reasons, most commonly as a result of tissues being deprived of oxygen (called metabolic acidosis).
So, arterial blood gases (ABG) diagnostic test should be performed on this patient.
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a nursing assistant wants to check the temperature of a patient. however, when she enters the room of the patient, she discovers that the patient very recently had a cold drink. how long should the nursing assistant wait before taking the oral temperature of the patient?
The nurse should wait for 10 to 20 minutes before taking the oral temperature of the patient who recently had a cold drink.
You will receive an incorrect reading if you take a patient's oral temperature after he or she has taken a hot or cold drink. The average time it takes for a patient's temperature to return to normal after consuming a cold beverage is 15 minutes, according to nurses who studied this issue.
Clinical judgments have long been based on oral temperature. It has been suggested that consuming cold drinks, like iced water, which is usually available at patients' bedsides or in clinic waiting areas, may reduce oral temperature readings.
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name 2 conditions that require anticoagulant therapy. please indicated for each condition if therapy will be short or long term?
Medication are often used to treat and prevent; the most common situation for this is heart disease .
What is the most used therapy?Cognitive behaviour therapy may currently be the most popular form of therapy (CBT). CBT investigates the connection between a person's feelings, thoughts, and behaviors, as was previously mentioned. It usually focuses on identifying unfavorable thoughts and changing them to better ones.
Why is therapy so important?You get the chance to examine your thoughts, feelings, your behavioral patterns when you engage in therapy with only a psychologist, therapist, and counselor. Moreover, it can help you develop new strategies to cope and methods for handling daily pressures and symptoms related to your disease.
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a client with a traumatic brain injury is able, with eyes closed, to identify a set of keys placed in his or her hands. on the basis of this assessment finding, the nurse determines that there is appropriate function of which lobe of the brain?
The parietal lobe is suspected to be affected after the brain injury patient was able to identify the set of keys placed in his or her hands.
What is the Parietal lobe?
Just behind the parietal bone of the skull is where the parietal lobe is located. This crucial brain region supports the integration of sensory information and language processing.
What is a Brain?
The brain is made up of a variety of specialized regions that cooperate:
The cortex is composed of the brain's outermost layer of cells. The cortex is where thought and free will movement start. Between the spinal cord and the base of the brain is the brain stem. Here, you can regulate fundamental processes like breathing and sleeping.The brain's core contains a collection of structures known as the basal ganglia. Messages between numerous additional brain areas are coordinated by the basal ganglia.The base and back of the brain contain the cerebellum. Balance and coordination are functions of the cerebellum.
Hence, the parietal lobe is suspected to be affected after the brain injury patient was able to identify the set of keys placed in his or her hands.
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the texas department of health has isolated yersinia pestis from wood rats and prairie dogs in west texas and the texas panhandle. in addition to the fever, chills, and severe headache, this patient has developed hemorrhages under the skin. what disease is this camper likely to have? the texas department of health has isolated yersinia pestis from wood rats and prairie dogs in west texas and the texas panhandle. in addition to the fever, chills, and severe headache, this patient has developed hemorrhages under the skin. what disease is this camper likely to have? septicemic plague pneumonic plague bubonic plague tularemia
Bubonic plague is a disease that campers are likely to have.
What is the bubonic plague?
The most prevalent type of plague is bubonic plague. The plague happens when a person is bitten by an infected flea or when objects contaminated with yersinia pestis enter through a skin breach.
How plague is discovered and diagnosed
On board ships, rats carried fleas and the bubonic plague. The bubonic plague, often known as the "Black Death," was so named because the majority of those who contracted it perished and many frequently had gangrenous tissue. The bubonic plague lacked a treatment. By collecting samples from the patient, particularly blood or a portion of a swollen lymph gland, and sending them to the lab for analysis, a diagnosis can be obtained. Once the plague has been ruled out as a possible cause of the illness, the proper course of treatment should begin immediately.
Hence, campers have bubonic plague.
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to assist with preventing misuse of insulin and episodes of hypoglycemia after discharge, what information should the nurse provide to derek and his mother regarding the peak times of regular and intermediate-acting insulins?
The nurse should provide the following information to Derek and his mother regarding the peak times of regular and intermediate-acting insulins :
1. In 1 to 5 hours, NPH-insulin peaks.
Regular insulin starts working within 30 to 60 minutes, peaks between 1 to 5 hours, and lasts for up to 10 hours.
2. Peakless NPH-insulin
Insulin-glargine has a 24-hour duration, a 70-minute peak time, and no peaks.
3. In 6 to 14 hours, NPH-insulin peaks.
NPH-insulin has a 60 to 120-minute onset, a 6 to 14-hour peak, and a 16 to 24-hour duration.
4. The insulin surge lasts 12 to 24 hours.
Insulin-detemir has a gradual start, peaks between 12 and 24 hours after administration, and a dosage-dependent duration.
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to maintain skeletal, muscular, and cardiovascular health, a child should be physically active for at least minutes each day?
Children and adolescent between the ages of 6 and 17 should engage in 60 minutes (or more) of moderate-intensity physical activity each day.
What characterizes adolescence?A teen who has begun puberty but who has not yet reached adulthood. A kid goes through physical, hormonal, and cognitive changes during adolescence that signal the start of adulthood. Typically, adolescence occurs in older of ten and 19.
When does adolescence officially end?Puberty, which is biologically normal, signals the start of adolescence, which ends when an adulthood identity and behavior are accepted. The World Health defines adolescence as the time between ages of 10 to 19 years, which generally correlates to this developmental stage.
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a patient has (age-related) osteoporosis. they are seen for an initial encounter in the ed and diagnosed with a current pathological fracture of the right humerus. which icd10cm code is assigned to describe this scenario?
A patient has (age-related) osteoporosis. They are seen for an initial encounter in the ed and diagnosed with a current pathological fracture of the right humerus. ICD code-M8 1.0 is assigned to describe this scenario.
What is the ICD-10 code for osteoporosis caused by advancing age?Age-Related Osteoporosis without Current Pathological Fracture is a billable ICD-10 code used for healthcare diagnosis reimbursement. Age-related osteoporosis with a recent pathological fracture is classified as a medical condition by the WHO under the category of osteopathies and chondropathies, and its ICD-9 code is 733.
ICD-10 code M81.0, which is billable for osteoporosis, unspecified, is typically used to code DEXA scan or bone density scan procedure codes. The two most common diagnoses used to code DEXA scan examinations are osteoporosis and osteoeopenia.
The WHO classifies ICD-10 code Z13. 820, Encounter for osteoporosis screening, as a medical condition that falls under the heading of "Factors influencing health status and interaction with health services."
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a client develops a mild skin irritation while receiving penicillin therapy. which products or actions would the nurse advise the client to avoid? select all that apply
The nurse's preadministration evaluation should cover the client's allergy history, medical and surgical history, medication history, and the client's current infection symptoms.
What are some typical penicillin adverse effects?The most typical penicillin side effects are hives, skin rashes, diarrhea, nausea, and headache. Shortness of breath or irregular breathing, joint pain, sudden lightheadedness and fainting, puffiness and redness of the face, scaly, red skin, vaginal itching and discharge, possibly with white patches, sore mouth and tongue, and abdominal cramps, spasms, tenderness, or pain are less frequent side effects.
How is penicillin allergy treated?Treatment for Penicillin Allergy: Antihistamines are a type of medication that they may suggest.To aid with your symptoms, try taking diphenhydramine. They may prescribe you a corticosteroid drug for more serious issues like edema. They will immediately administer the medication epinephrine to you if you experience anaphylaxis.
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a nurse needs to administer a continuous medication drip to a client. the nurse knows that, for a continuous infusion, she will likely need to add medication to which volume of iv solution?
The amount of medication she will need to add is Option C that is 500 to 1000 ml
What is a continuous infusion ?A parenteral medication is infused continuously over several hours. Adding medication to a sizable amount of IV solution—approximately 500 to 1,000 cc, not less—is known as a continuous drip and is done in this manner.
We defined "continuous infusion" as continuous intravenous administration throughout a 24-hour period, and "intermittent dosing" as the administration of an intravenous infusion for a duration of less than or equal to 30 minutes.
In the following situations, continuous infusion should be taken into account: children have pain for which oral and intermittent parenteral opioids do not sufficiently control pain; intractable vomiting prevents oral medications;
IV lines are not preferred; and children would prefer to stay at home despite severe pain.
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a nurse is teaching an older adult client to use an incentive spirometer following hip replacement surgery when the client asks why using this machine is necessary. how will the nurse respond?
You can be asked to wear a spirometer after surgery if you suffer from lung conditions, a smoking history or have been inactive for a time.
What is the purpose of a spirometer?
A spirometer is indeed a diagnostic tool that analyzes your capacity to breathe both in and out as well as how long it takes someone to completely exhale after taking a deep breath. You must breath into a tube connected to a device called a spirometer in order to undergo a spirometry test.
Is using a spirometer a healthy lung exercise?
The way a lung-training equipment works is similar to how an incentive spirometer works. It helps to maintain lung health or helps weak lungs recover after an illness and damage. A motivating spirometer after surgery
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a multivitamin/mineral is recommended for all patients with pressure injuries. group of answer choices true false
It is untrue that all patients with pressure injuries should take a multivitamin/mineral.
What is important to prevent injuries?Warm up to improve blood circulation and also to relax your body. Any slow, rhythmic motions were beneficial, including taking deep breathes. Stretching carefully, only remaining in each position for 20 seconds at a time. Do not stretch parts that are already sore or to the point of pain.
Which is best to prevent injury?One of the best ways to prevent injury is to keep your body fluid and flexible. So accomplish this, incorporate flexibility exercises into your routine. According to Radcliffe, more the supple your physique is, the more range of motion you enjoy and the lower your risk of injury.
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the nurse will notify the health care provider immediately if the client taking amoxicillin for otitis media is also taking what medication?
The nurse will notify the health care provider immediately if the client taking amoxicillin for otitis media is also taking tetracycline for acne.
Tetracycline is used to treat acne and typically manifests as hives or wheals on the skin after a hypersensitivity reaction.
Infections are treated with tetracyclines, and they also aid in controlling acne. Your doctor may prescribe demeclocycline, doxycycline, or minocycline for further issues. Tetracyclines won't help with the flu, the cold, or any other viral illnesses.
Middle ear irritation or infection is known as otitis media. An infection of the respiratory system, a cold, or a sore throat can all lead to otitis media.
An infection of the air-filled area behind the eardrum is known as otitis media (the middle ear).
Acute otitis media Bacteria or viruses are typically the culprits behind ear infections.
Fever and ear discomfort are typical symptoms. Hearing loss or fluid leaking from the ear are less frequent possibilities.
The majority of ear infections heal on their own. Many people need antibiotics.
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