A flying disc has a 7 3/4 inch radius. What is its approximate circumference,
rounded to the nearest inch?

36.)B

37.)C

38.)C

39.)C

40.)A

hoped that helped :)

Step-by-step explanation:

(f+g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) =

x/2 - 3 + 4x² + x - 4 = 4x² +3x/2 - 7

so, yes, B is the right answer.

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

The distance between the points in RISE/RUN is 10/2.

10/2 = 5. Your slope is 5

Hope that helps. Brainliest is appreciated

Answer:

11

Step-by-step explanation:

Givens:

AD = 8

AC = 4y - 28

y = ?

First we can see that AD and DC are equal.

-note AD and AC are not equal

But 2 times the length of AD should give you AC so.....

2 x length of AD = 16 = AC

We can use the equation:

16 = 4y - 28

Solve for y

16 + 28 = 4y

44 = 4y

y = 11

Therefore value of y is 11.

Answer: B

Step-by-step explanation: this equation is written in slope intercept form, which represents: y = mx + b. m = the slope and b = the y intercept.  

The y intercept of that line 3, since that is the value of y when x equals 0. If we go from that point to the next one up. Notice how the value of x and y is changing. We go over by 1 and up by 2. That can be written as 2/-1 or 2.

HOWEVER, since the slope is going down from right to left, it has a a negative slope. Meaning the slope is a -2 not a positive 2.

Now, let's insert our values into the equation y = mx + b. That would be:

y = -2x + 3 which is B and therefore our answer

Answer:

x could be 10

y could be 5

those are some possible answers.

Answer:

x=4 and y=0

(4,0)

hope I help or maybe correct

Answer:

4 is the correct answer

Step-by-step explanation:

|-7| = 7

|3| = 3

7 - 3 = 4

I suppose you mean to convert 58₁₀ to base 2, and not 5810₁₀ to base 2.

Write 58 as the sum of the largest powers of 2 that you can:

58 = 32 + 26

58 = 32 + 16 + 10

58 = 32 + 16 + 8 + 2

58 = 2⁵ + 2⁴ + 2³ + 2¹

58 = 1×2⁵ + 1×2⁴ + 1×2³ + 0×2² + 1×2¹ + 0×2⁰

⇒   58₁₀ = 111010₂

To convert from base 2 to base 10, write out and simplify the decimal expansion as in the last line of the previous example.

10111₂ = 1×2⁴ + 0×2³ + 1×2² + 1×2¹ + 1×2⁰

10111₂ = 16 + 0 + 4 + 2 + 1

⇒   10111₂ = 23₁₀

#a

[tex]\\ \sf\Rrightarrow (58)_{10}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\Rrightarrow (2+8+16+32)_{10}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\Rrightarrow (2^1+2^3+2^4+2^5)_{10}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\Rrightarrow 0(2^0) 1(2^1)+0(2^2)+1(2^3)+1(2^4)+1(2^5)[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\Rrightarrow (111010)_2[/tex]

#b

[tex]\\ \sf\Rrightarrow (10111)_2[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\Rrightarrow 1\times 2^0+1\times 2^1+1\times 2^2+0\times 2^3+1\times 2^4[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\Rrightarrow 1+2+4+16[/tex]

[tex]\\ \sf\Rrightarrow (23)_{10}[/tex]

Answer:

160.93

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm not that great at math so forgive me if I'm wrong, but from my knowledge the answer would be 160.93 since you're multiplying 16.093 to 10.

hope this helped! :)

Answer:

-7 , 9

1, -3

5, -9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is

-7 , 9, 1, -3, 5, -9

Hope this helps;)

Answer:

What do you need help with?

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm confused because you didn't include a question.

Answer:

Its 27

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

see explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

TQ and TR are perpendicular bisectors , so

QO = QN = 3.75

RP = OR = 3.4

The circumcentre T is equally distant from the triangle's 3 vertices, then

PT = QT = 4.5

Answer: 2

Step-by-step explanation:

distribute: 6 [ 9 − 9 + 8 ] + 3 = 0

add the numbers: 6 [ 1 7 − 9 ] + 3 = 0

rearrange terms: 6 [ − 9 + 1 7 ] + 3 = 0

distribute again: − 5 4 + 1 0 2 + 3 = 0

combine like terms:  − 5 4 + 1 0 2 + 3 = 0

Subtract  102  from both sides of the equation: − 5 1 + 1 0 2 − 1 0 2 = 0 − 1 0 2

simplify:− 5 1 = − 1 0 2

Divide both sides of the equation by the same term: -51x/-51 = -102/-51

simplify: 2

i hope this helps! ^^

Answer:

Divide both sides by 22.

\frac{3y}{2}=x

2

3y

=x

2 Switch sides.

x=\frac{3y}{2}

x=

2

3y

Answer:

the start numbew woould be 26

Step-by-step explanation:

6 less than 26 is 20

Answer:

n=26

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-71

Step-by-step explanation:

let 'n' = a number

2(143 + 2n) = 0n + 2

2(143 + 2n) = 2

143 + 2n = 1

2n = -142

n = -71

Step-by-step explanation:

-8 - 6x < 1

Bringing like terms on one side

-6x < 1 + 8

-6x < 9

x < 9/-6

x < 3/-2

I think the correct answer is none

Answer:

The answer is 13/6

Step-by-step explanation:

9/6 + 6/9

9/6 = 3/2

6/9 = 2/3

Now,

3/2 + 2/3

Cross Multiply

3 × 3 + 2 × 2/2 × 3

9 + 4/6 = 13/6

Thus, The answer is 13/6

-TheUnknownScientist 72

[tex]\large\huge\green{\sf{Answer:-}}[/tex]

[tex] = \frac{9}{6} + \frac{6}{9} \\ = \frac{27 + 12}{18} \\ = \frac{39}{18} \\ = \frac{13}{6} [/tex]

Answer:

2 terms

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this helps! :D

have a miraculous day!! <3

Answer:

-6

Step-by-step explanation:

10x1 + 4y = -14

10+4y=-14

4y=-14-10

4y = -24

y = -24/4

y = -6

Answer:

y = [tex]\frac{4}{5}[/tex] x - 1

Step-by-step explanation:

The equation of a line in slope- intercept form is

y = mx + c ( m is the slope and c the y- intercept )

Calculate m using the slope formula

m = [tex]\frac{y_{2}-y_{1} }{x_{2}-x_{1} }[/tex]

with (x₁, y₁ ) = (5, 3 ) and (x₂, y₂ ) = (0, - 1 )

m = [tex]\frac{-1-3}{0-5}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{-4}{-5}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{4}{5}[/tex]

The line crosses the y- axis at (0, - 1 ) ⇒ c = - 1

y = [tex]\frac{4}{5}[/tex] x - 1 ← equation of line

Answer:

5 hours at least, 10 at most

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1750

Step-by-step explanation:

Just multiply 250 by 7. There are 250 km in 1cm, so in 7 centimeters, there will be 7 times as much as in 1 centimeter.

Answer:

10

Step-by-step explanation:

Equation=5*2^3/2^2

3(y - 2) = 3y - 6

3y - 6 = 3y - 6

3y - 3y = - 6 + 6

0 = 0

It has ∞ solutions.

0 = 0, so 'y' can be replaced with any value & we'll still get the LHS & RHS as 0. So, the equation has ∞ solutions.

_____

Hope it helps ⚜

Answer:

Infinitely Many Solutions

Step-by-step explanation:

3(y - 2) = 3y - 6

3y - 6 = 3y - 6      Distribute 3.

0 = 0                    Combine the like terms.

Since we get the end result of 0 = 0, which is a true mathematical statement (i.e. 0 is equal to 0), we can see that regardless of the value of x, the original equation is true. So we have infinitely many equations.

Or, we can see the 2 parts as equations for 2 separate graphs. In other words, assume that we have 2 lines: y = (3x - 2) and y = 3y - 6. Since they both have the same m value (slope) and b value (y-intercept), the 2 lines are actually overlapping. So we have infinitely many solutions because the 2 equations represent the same linear graph.

Answer:

i belive by rounding you get 1

Step-by-step explanation: