A factory needs to produce 1,800 jars of peanut butter on a certain day.
They start production at 8:30 A.M. By 10:30 A.M., they have produced 600 jars of peanut butter. At what time will they complete the total number of jars that they need to produce?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

2:30 am

Step-by-step explanation:

There is a 2 hour gap in between 8:30 and 10:30 and since they only made 600 jars throughout those 2 hrs you can divide 600 by 2 so you can fins out how many jars they make every hr.

Or you can multiply 600 and 2 to find out how much they make within the next 2 hrs.

600 * 2 = 1200

1200 jars were made at 12:30

1200 * 2 = 1800

1800 jars were made at 2:30

Answer 2

There are two hours between 8:30 A.M. and 10:30 A.M. If they make 600 jars of peanut butter per two hours, then they will make 300 jars per hour. 1800 divided by 6 is 300, so they need six hours to make 1800 jars of peanut butter. So, if they begin production at 8:30 A.M., the factory will have produced 1800 at 4:30 P.M.


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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

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Answer:

C. 24

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answers

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answers

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Answers

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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If △EFG ≅ △HJK, complete each part.

Answers

Answer:

[tex] \overline{EG} \cong \overline{HK} [/tex]

[tex] \overline{HJ} \cong \overline{EF} [/tex]

[tex] \angle F \cong \angle J [/tex]

[tex] \angle H \cong \angle E [/tex]

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Step-by-step explanation:

Since ∆EFG ≅ ∆HJK, therefore, the corresponding sides and angles of both ∆s are congruent.

Thus:

[tex] \overline{EG} \cong \overline{HK} [/tex]

[tex] \overline{HJ} \cong \overline{EF} [/tex]

[tex] \angle F \cong \angle J [/tex]

[tex] \angle H \cong \angle E [/tex]

∆FGE ≅ ∆JKH (take note of the arrangement of the letters or naming of each vertex of both triangles. Each vertex of in one ∆ must correspond to the vertex of the other for the ∆s to be congruent)

△EFG ≅ △HJK,

From the figure attached we can conclude  that

  [tex]\rm \bar {EG}[/tex] ≅ [tex]\rm \bar {HK}[/tex]

  [tex]\rm \bar HJ[/tex] ≅ [tex]\rm \bar FE[/tex]

   ∠[tex]\rm F[/tex] ≅∠[tex]\rm J[/tex]

   ∠[tex]\rm H[/tex] ≅∠[tex]\rm E[/tex]

△FGE △JKH

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△EFG ≅ △HJK,

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Two triangles are said to be congruent when they are of similar shape and size means all the angles of one triangle are  equal to the corresponding angles of other triangle and  all the  sides of one triangle are equal to  corresponding sides of other triangle.

From the figure attached we can conclude  that

  [tex]\rm \bar {EG}[/tex] ≅ [tex]\rm \bar {HK}[/tex]

  [tex]\rm \bar HJ[/tex] ≅ [tex]\rm \bar FE[/tex]

   ∠[tex]\rm F[/tex] ≅∠[tex]\rm J[/tex]

   ∠[tex]\rm H[/tex] ≅∠[tex]\rm E[/tex]

△FGE △JKH

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Answers

Step-by-step explanation:

irrational ok????>>>>

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helped, Have a Great Day!!

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Answers

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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i will give brainliest for correct answer !

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answers

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answers

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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120 is the answer to the problem.

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