Spironolactone (Aldactone), an aldosterone antagonist, is a potassium-sparing diuretic and should be avoided if your diet contains a lot of potassium because it can cause hyperkalemia.
Which practice needs to be carried out by the nurse before administration?Before administering the drug, the nurse must make sure the patient's identify matches the MAR and the medication label to make sure the right patient is receiving it.
What medications should the client be advised against taking while receiving an opioid analgesic by the nurse?Avoid writing concurrent prescriptions for benzodiazepines, opioids, or other sedative-hypnotic drugs. When giving opioid prescriptions to people who regularly take benzodiazepines or other sedative-hypnotic drugs, proceed with utmost caution.
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the nurse is caring for a client with shock. the nurse is concerned about hypoxemia and metabolic acidosis with the client. what finding should the nurse analyze for evidence of hypoxemia and metabolic acidosis in a client with shock?
Arterial blood gas (ABG) findings. Arterial blood gas monitoring is the gold standard for assessing oxygenation, ventilation, hypoxemia, and acid-base status.
Although non-invasive monitoring has mostly taken the role of ABG monitoring, the latter is still helpful for validating and adjusting non-invasive monitoring methods. Hypoxemia, which can cause a variety of symptoms including shortness of breath, is an indication of a respiratory or circulation issue.
Hypoxemia can be detected by measuring the quantity of oxygen in a blood sample taken from an artery. A pulse oximeter, a little gadget that clamps to your finger, can also be used to gauge it by monitoring the blood's oxygen saturation. Although hypoxemia can have many different causes, the most frequent one is an underlying disease that interferes with breathing or blood flow, such as heart or lung problems. Certain drugs have the potential to inhibit breathing and cause hypoxia.
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which activity would the nurse manager complete during an emergency event when acting as the triage officer according to the hospital incident command system (hics)? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Rapidly evaluating each person who comes to the hospital.
What is the purpose of Hospital Incident Command System?
HICS is an incident management system built on the Incident Command System (ICS) concepts that aids hospitals and healthcare organizations in enhancing their emergency planning, response, and recovery capabilities for both planned and unforeseen incidents. HICS adheres to the principles of both ICS and the National Incident Management System (NIMS).
Hospital doctors, nurses, and administrators, as well as anyone with a reaction role during a crisis, will continue to be the main beneficiaries of HICS. The information on this website will be helpful for understanding healthcare response issues as well as incident command practices and tools used during various events with health impacts. Community partners with whom hospitals work in partnership (such as public safety, local health departments, emergency management, etc.) as well as emergency management students will find the information on this website useful.
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if jolene drinks alcohol while pregnant, particularly during the sensitive period of prenatal development, then it is possible that her baby will be born with facial deformities or other delays characteristic of
If jolene drinks alcohol while pregnant, particularly during the sensitive period of prenatal development, then it is possible that her baby will be born with facial deformities or other delays characteristic of- fetal alcohol syndrome.
What is fetal alcohol syndrome?
Fetal alcohol syndrome affects children who were exposed to alcohol when their mothers were pregnant. In addition to brain impairment, fetal alcohol syndrome also results in developmental issues. Fetal alcohol syndrome-related issues are specific to each kid, although the impairments are long-lasting.
There is no established safe limit for pregnant women to drink. If you drink while pregnant, it could have an impact on your unborn child.
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which physical findings would the nurse observe in a newborn that would indicate that the newborn is full-term? select all that apply.
Option(a), (b), and (e)i.e., the physical findings that a nurse will detect in a newborn would suggest that the newborn is a full-term. There are fingernails, and they reach the tips of the fingers.
How many years is the nursing program?
The length of time it takes to become a registered nurse might range from 16 months to four years, depending on the nursing program you choose to enroll in. ChiChi Akanegbu, a member of the Class of 2020 who graduated from Regis College with a Bachelor of Science in Nursing, says, "I chose to earn my BSN, which takes four years.
What is a nurse's job description?
Nurses treat patients' wounds, give medications, perform regular physicals, keep meticulous records of their medical histories, and keep an eye on their heart rates.
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a home health nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse who is drawing blood from a client for laboratory testing and gets stuck by a used needle. which of the folowing statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates a need for further teaching?
The following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates a need for further teaching:
"the client will be tested for hepatitis A virus"
What is a home health nurse?
A home health nurse is a registered nurse (RN) who provides health care services to individuals in their own home or living environment. Home health nurses provide patient care, education, and support for patients and their families. Home health nurses also provide care for people with chronic illnesses or disabilities, and may assist with medications, wound care, physical therapy, and other medical tasks.
What is Hepatitis virus?
Hepatitis virus is a type of virus that can cause liver inflammation and damage. It can be caused by several different viruses, including hepatitis A, B, C, D, and E. Symptoms of hepatitis virus infection can include jaundice, fatigue, loss of appetite, abdominal pain, and dark urine. Treatment usually involves rest, fluids, and medications to help manage symptoms. Vaccines are available to protect against hepatitis A and B.
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kelly is the compliance officer for a teaching hospital. the hospital has providers that specialize in dermatology, pediatrics, urology, family medicine, internal medicine and infectious disease. only the pediatricians accept medicaid. the family practice group also employs nurse practitioners whereas the other specialties only have mds and dos. how should kelly address these special issues? a.these are not issues at all. compliance and training will not be affected. b.kelly should give specialized training to the coders and billers that code and bill for the pediatricians and family practice that takes into account the medicaid insurance and nurse practitioners because it impacts those two out of the six specialties. c.kelly should train all the coders and billers to know the billing rules for medicaid and nurse practitioners for all the specialties. d.kelly should have the organization decide on one way of running the practice.
Kelly needs to provide specialist training to the coders and billers who work for pediatricians and family practices and take Medicaid insurance into consideration.
What obligations are placed on nurses?Registered nurses (RNs) oversee and perform medical treatments, as well as offer emotional support to patients' families and inform the public about a variety of health issues. The vast majority of registered nurses work in conjunction with doctors and other medical professionals in a variety of settings.
A nurse can be one qualified applicant for the position.One of their duties is carrying out a variety of therapeutic post-operative surgical activities. On cardiac, pediatric, or obstetric surgery, many surgical nurse practitioners concentrate their work.
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how would the nurse respond to parents who are concerned about separation anxiety in their 15-month-old child
In order to reduce the child's fear, the nurse responds by keeping calm and reassuring and setting rituals at separations.
What is the first course of action for treating anxiety?The first-line medication treatments are antidepressants, which include medications from the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) and serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI) groups.
What is the most effective method for reducing anxiety while speaking?Breathing in and breathing out deliberately is one of the finest techniques to overcome speaking anxiety. Don't listen to those who advise you to take a deep breath before speaking. Pay attention to your exhales instead. You'll start to relax by taking short breaths on inhales and holding your breaths out.
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a client with a history of alcohol abuse comes to the emergency department and complains of abdominal pain. laboratory studies help confirm a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. the client's vital signs are stable, but the client's pain is worsening and radiating to his back. which intervention takes priority for this client?
Administering morphine I.V. is ordered
The nurse should address the client's pain issues first by administering morphine I.V. as ordered. Placing the client in a Semi-Fowler's position, maintaining NPO status, and providing mouth care don't take priority over addressing the client's pain issues.
What is morphine and for what is it used?
Injections of morphine are used to treat moderate to severe pain. It can also be administered alongside an anesthetic before or during surgery (medicine that puts you to sleep). Morphine is a member of the class of drugs known as narcotic analgesics (pain medicines). To treat pain, it works on the central nervous system (CNS). The non-synthetic narcotic morphine is produced from opium and has a significant potential for abuse. It is employed to manage pain. You could become groggy, sleepy, confused, or disoriented from this medication. Until you are certain of how this medication affects you, avoid driving or engaging in any activity that could be hazardous. Long-term opioid use might result in severe constipation.
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which serious effect of inhalant use would the school nurse include in a teaching session to a high school health class about inhalant abuse?
High dosages of exposure can result in delirium and confusion. Abusers of inhalants may also experience stupor, generalized muscle weakness, depressed reflexes, lethargy, dizziness, and drowsiness.
Which of the following is used as an anesthetic inhalant?Among the medical anesthetics are nitrous oxide, ether, chloroform, and halothane (commonly called "laughing gas"). Inhalants have effects that are comparable to anesthesia.
How do inhalants influence neurotransmitters?By directly stimulating Ventral Tegmental Area Neurons, the abused inhalant toluene increases dopamine release in the nucleus accumbens | Neuropsychopharmacology. Sedation, refractory bronchospasm, and treatment of status epilepticus unresponsive to anticonvulsant drugs are the main uses of inhaled anesthetic agents in the ICU.
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the nurse is assessing a client who has a unilateral obstruction of the urinary tract. which clinical finding by the nurse correlates to this diagnosis?
A client with a unilateral blockage of the urinary system is being evaluated by the nurse. The clinical finding made by the nurse that corresponds to this diagnosis is an increase in blood pressure.
Although injuries or other disorders may also contribute to unilateral blockage obstructive uropathy, kidney stones are the most common cause of the syndrome. When the urine flow is interrupted unilateral blockage, the kidneys get clogged. This causes kidney enlargement, commonly known as hydronephrosis. but sporadically may result in infection, discomfort, renal failure, or blood in the urine.
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in healthcare, regulations often dictate that important systems remain unpatched to maintain compliance. which kind of vulnerability does this introduce?
To comply with legislation or other limits, critical systems may have to be left unpatched. As a result, these systems have inherent vulnerabilities that must be addressed by additional security controls.
Which of the following are frequently regarded as the three key security goals?The three most critical ideas within information security are confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Considering these three concepts in the context of the "triad" might aid in the creation of organisational security policies.
When discussing data and information, we must keep the CIA trinity in mind. The CIA triad is a three-part information security concept that consists of confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Each component reflects a key information security aim.
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An online medicine shop claims that the mean delivery time for medicines is less than 120 minutes with a standard deviation of 30 minutes. Is there enough evidence to support this claim at a 0. 05 significance level if 49 orders were examined with a mean of 100 minutes?.
At online medicine shop which claims mean delivery time for medicines, the null hypothesis is rejected as there enough evidence to support this claim at a 0. 05 significance level if 49 orders were examined with a mean of 100 minutes.
An online medicine shop is an internet-based seller that sells medicines and includes each legitimate and illegitimate pharmacies. It could be of an online retail look that provides pharmaceutical medicine, among different products.
A null hypothesis could be a form of applied mathematics hypothesis that proposes that no applied statistical significance exists during a set of given observations. Hypothesis testing is employed to assess the believability of a hypothesis by victimization sample knowledge. generally mentioned merely because the "null," it's depicted as H0.
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find the percent reduction in intensity for a 1-mhz ultrasound beam traversing 10 cm of material having an attenuation of 1 db/cm.
[tex]I_{o}= \frac{I_{o} }{10}[/tex] is the reduction in intensity that is 90%.
What causes a sound's strength to lessen?extending the distance The square of the distance from the source of the sound wave determines how loud the sound is. Since sound waves transmit their energy over a two- or three-dimensional medium, their intensity reduces as they get further away from their source.
What in wave theory is intensity?The intensity of a wave is the amount of energy it transports over a surface in a unit of time and area. It is also equal to the energy density times the wave speed. Watts per square meter are typically used to measure it. A wave's strength and amplitude will affect intensity.
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refer to the article by phillips et al., 2018 posted under the case resources (the effectiveness of the braden scale as a tool for identifying nutrition risk). what is a braden score? which six criteria are considered in the braden scale? per the nursing assessment data (see the case study for the section on ‘nursing assessment’), what is mr. campbell’s braden score and what does it mean? how does nutrition relate to pressure ulcers and wound healing? (
In general, a Braden score is a numerical score that is used to assess an individual's risk of developing pressure ulcers.
The Braden Scale is a tool that is commonly used to assess this risk, and it considers six criteria: sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, friction and shear, and nutrition.
The individual's score on each of these criteria is added up to give a total Braden score, which can range from 6 to 23. A higher score indicates a lower risk of pressure ulcers, while a lower score indicates a higher risk.
Nutrition is an important factor in pressure ulcer prevention and wound healing. Adequate nutrition is essential for maintaining the health and integrity of the skin and supporting the body's natural healing processes.
Malnutrition or poor nutrition can increase the risk of pressure ulcers and impair wound healing, making it more difficult for the body to repair damaged tissue. It is important for individuals at risk of pressure ulcers, such as Mr. Campbell, to receive proper nutrition in order to support their overall health and prevent the development of pressure ulcers.
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the client with osteoarthritis is seen in the clinic. which assessment finding indicates the client is having difficulty implementing self-care?
Due to their claimed incapacity to perform ADLs, the client may be unable to practice self-care. The most typical type of arthritis is osteoarthritis (OA). Degenerative joint disease or "wear and tear" arthritis are two names for it.
What causes osteoarthritis primarily?The cause of primary osteoarthritis is unknown. Secondary osteoarthritis develops as a result of another condition, an infection, an accident, or a deformity. The first symptom of osteoarthritis is the degeneration of joint cartilage. When the cartilage degenerates, the ends of the bones may enlarge and produce bony growths.
What is the ideal osteoarthritis treatment?The main therapies for osteoarthritis symptoms involve modifying one's way of life, such as exercising frequently and keeping one's weight within a healthy range. medication will help you feel better. supportive therapies: to help with making daily tasks easier.
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a patient complains of unrelenting back pain. resting does not help; neither do stretching and exercise. what is most likely?
A patient reports constant back pain. Stretching and exercise don't help; neither do naps. It's most likely not a musculoskeletal problem.
What are the most typical back issues that patients encounter?the following ailments are frequently related to back pain: strain on a muscle or ligament. Back muscles and spinal ligaments might get strained as a result of frequent heavy lifting or a sudden uncomfortable movement. Constant tension on the back might result in uncomfortable muscle spasms in persons who aren't in good physical shape.
Why do you get back pain?When mechanical or structural issues arise in the back's discs, muscles, ligaments, tendons, or spine, back pain may result. Sprain: An damage to the ligaments supporting the spine, frequently brought on by inappropriate twisting or lifting. Strain: a muscular or tendon injury.
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a healthcare provider informs the charge nurse of a labor and delivery unit that a client is coming to the unit with suspected abruptio placentae. what findings should the charge nurse expect the client to demonstrate? (select all that apply.)
The nursing assessment findings which the charged nurse should expect from the client with suspected abruptio placentae to demonstrate are:
Dark, red vaginal bleedingIncreased uterine irritabilityThe correct answer choices are options a and b.
What is meant by abruptio placentae?Abruptio placentae can simply be defined as that medical condition in which the placenta of a pregnant woman separate from the wall of the womb before delivery. That being said, it a. very serious health condition which which can hinder the growing baby in the womb of nutrients necessary for growth and development; thereby leading to dangerous risk of the survival of the baby. Pregnant women with this health condition usually manifest clinical signs such as vaginal bleeding.
So therefore, we can now deduce from above that a growing foetus whose mother is suffering from abruptio placentae finds it difficult to access oxygen.
Complete question:
A healthcare provider informs the charge nurse of a labor and delivery unit that a client is coming to the unit with suspected abruptio placentae. what findings should the charge nurse expect the client to demonstrate? (select all that apply.)
a.Dark, red vaginal bleeding
b. Increased uterine irritability
c. A rigid abdomen
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when preparing to discuss nutrition with a diabetic patient, what would be the second step after determining the goal of the communication?
The next stage is to decide which group of people can hear your message after you've stated your objectives. People who can help you achieve your objectives may be your target audience.
Which of the three steps of communication should come first?the recipient of the message. Message: The details that the sender is communicating to the recipient. A message's transmission technique is referred to as a communication channel. Decoding: The receiver's interpretation of the communication.
What is the communication planning process' final and fifth step?absorbing all the details of the communication. Receiving while engaging in active listening entails: Concentrating on the information you've been given.
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the nurse is planning to instruct a mental health client and the family about the importance of medication compliance. the nurse should plan for which interventions that are associated with increased compliance? select all that apply.
When planning to instruct a mental health client and the family about the importance of medication compliance the nurse should plan for large number of intervention that are associated with increased compliance
The following interventions should be planned for by the nurse:
Participating the family in the preparation of the medicationCollaborating with the psychiatrist to determine the proper medicine and dosageGiving the patient the medication's injectable, long-acting form, if one is available.Collaborating with the psychiatrist to identify the drug that has the fewest negative side effects for the client.The responsibility of a nurse is to provide comprehensive care, which may include attending to a patient's mental health. Although not all registered nurses have psychiatric nursing training, it is their duty to care for patients who are mentally ill and assist them in getting treatment for psychological discomfort.
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a nurse is assessing the stoma of a client with an ostomy. which intervention should the nurse perform when providing peristomal care to the client to preserve skin integrity?
To maintain the integrity of the client's skin, the nurse should wash it with a gentle cleanser and water during peristomal treatment.
Which assessment result by the nurse would require the surgeon to be informed when evaluating a fresh colostomy?The peristomal skin should be normal, the stoma must be wet, elevated above skin level, and pink to red in hue. If there is a change from this, the surgeon should be informed. The size of the stoma should not be greater than 1/16 to 1/8, thus it should be measured or the prior measurement should be recorded.
What serious complications following surgery are possible with a colostomy?Inadequate stoma site selection, vascular compromise, retraction, peristomal skin irritation, peristomal infection/abscess/fistula, and acute stomal complications are some of the early postoperative complications that are frequently seen.
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a patient is receiving dopamine, a vasoactive drug used for shock, to increase stroke volume. what should the nurse be aware of when monitoring a vasoactive drug?
A patient is receiving dopamine, a vasoactive drug used for shock, to increase stroke volume. what should the nurse be aware of when monitoring a vasoactive drug is :
The drug dose should be weaned down prior to discontinuing.
What is a vasoactive drug ?An endogenous agent or medication that affects blood pressure and/or heart rate by changing vascular activity, also known as vasoactivity, is referred to as a vasoactive substance (effect on blood vessels). It aids the body's homeostatic processes (such the renin-angiotensin system) in maintaining hemodynamic stability by altering vascular compliance and resistance, often through vasodilation and vasoconstriction. Examples of significant endogenous vasoactive compounds include angiotensin, bradykinin, histamine, nitric oxide, and vasoactive intestinal peptide.
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the nurse is assigned a group of clients. for which client would the use of acetaminophen pose a higher risk?
The nurse is assigned a group of clients. The client which will have use of acetaminophen pose a higher risk is Because of its interaction with the liver, acetaminophen use carries a higher risk for clients who drink alcohol. Clients should be made aware of the potential for hepatotoxicity associated with liver malfunction and failure when using acetaminophen.
The World Health Organization's "analgesic ladder" for the treatment of cancer-related pain should be followed in pain management. Depending on the level of pain experienced by each client, the appropriate analgesic and dosage should be chosen. For mild to moderate pain, the rung on the ladder is nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs) or acetaminophen. Acetaminophen may be contraindicated because people with sickle cell disease may have varied degrees of hepatic impairment. Thus, the client who drinks too much is most at risk.
There is no increased risk of hepatotoxicity associated with cocaine usage in patients taking acetaminophen. The risk of hepatotoxicity associated with the use of acetaminophen is not higher for patients who have a history of asthma.
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a child with adhd is being placed on the restricted elimination diet. after teaching the mother about this diet, which food choice if selected by the mother would indicate that the teaching was successful?
Cognitive-behavioral therapy is one kind of conduct disorder treatment. A youngster gains improved communication, problem-solving, and stress-handling skills. Also taught is impulse and anger management.
What three treatments are available for children with ADHD?Medication, behaviour therapy, counselling, and educational programmes are among the common treatments for ADHD in kids. Although they don't treat ADHD, these therapies can alleviate many of its symptoms. The process of figuring out what works best for your child may take some time.
Medication, instruction, skill development, and psychological therapy are frequently used as part of standard treatments for ADHD in adults. The best treatment strategy frequently involves a combination of these. Although they don't treat ADHD, these medicines can assist with many of its symptoms.
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the nurse is educating the patient with low back pain about the proper way to lift objects. what muscle should the nurse encourage the patient to maximize?
The nurse demonstrates to the patient how to safely and correctly lift objects by engaging their strong quadriceps muscles rather than their weak back muscles.
What are the four quadriceps muscles, and what do they do?The one in the thigh is home to the quadriceps group of muscles.They are made up of the rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus intermedius, and vastus medialis, four different muscles.For actions like walking and jumping, they are in charge of extending the leg.
The quadriceps are made up of which three muscles?The anterior and posterior sides of the thigh are covered by the quadriceps femoris muscle, a big, meaty muscle group.It is composed of four different muscles: the rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, vastus medialis, & vastus intermedius.
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when teaching about prevention of infection to a client with a long-term venous catheter, the nurse determines that the client has understood discharge instructions when the client makes which statement?
when teaching about prevention of infection to a client with a long-term venous catheter, the nurse determines that the client has understood discharge instructions when the client makes "My husband will change the dressing three times per week, using sterile technique.
A central venous catheter, also referred to as a central line, is a tube that medical professionals insert into a sizable vein in the arm, neck, chest, or groin to quickly administer fluids, blood, or medications or perform diagnostic tests. A tube known as a central venous catheter enters a vein in your arm or chest and exits at the right side of your heart (right atrium). There are occasions when a catheter that is in your chest is connected to a port that is located beneath your skin. Aseptic and sterile are frequently used as synonyms for one another. In spite of the fact that they both refer to the same thing—eliminating or reducing potentially harmful microorganisms—sterile goes one step further and means devoid of any bacteria or other microorganisms.
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the nurse applies a transdermal patch of fentanyl for a client with pain due to cancer of the pancreas. the client puts the call light on 1 hour later and tells the nurse that it has not helped. what is the best response by the nurse?
I'll give you something else right away to ease the discomfort because it will take the medication between 12 and 18 hours to start working.
Which jobs are nurses expected to perform?Registered nurses (RNs) oversee and perform medical procedures, as well as provide emotional support to patients' relatives and educate the public about various health concerns. In a variety of contexts, most registered nurses collaborate alongside doctors and other healthcare professionals.
A nurse could be an appropriate candidate for the job.Their duties include a number of post-operative surgical therapeutic duties. The job of many surgical nursing practitioners is focused on cardiac, pediatric, or obstetric surgery.
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An infant born with an imperforate anus returns from surgery after requiring a colostomy. The nurse assesses the stoma and notes that it is red and edematous. Based on this finding, which action should the nurse take?
The nurse must document the findings.
What is colostomy ?A colostomy is a procedure to direct one end of the colon (a portion of the bowel) into a stomach hole. The stoma is the name of the aperture. To collect your waste, you can put a pouch over your stoma (stools). A colostomy can be either temporary or permanent.
Some signs include :
stomach cramps, bloating, and stomach swelling.
an enlarged stoma.
vomiting and/or nauseous.
In some situations, when the surgeon removes a section of the colon, it can be required to perform a treatment to connect the colon's remaining portion to the outside of the body.
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at the beginning of the shift, the nurse assesses a client who is admitted from the post-anesthesia care unit (pacu). when should the nurse document the client's findings?
Evaluations should be documented as soon as possible following the assessments, so assessments should be placed into the client's medical file when they are admitted from the post-anesthesia care unit (pacu).
What are the three assessments should the PACU nurse prioritize?The PACU nurse first assesses the patient's airway, respiratory and circulatory conditions before concentrating on a more thorough evaluation.
How frequently is BP measured in PACU?The majority of national anesthesiology societies have advise sedated patients undergoing surgical operations to have their blood pressure checked at least once in every five minutes. Oscillometric cuffs are typically used to non-invasively monitor blood pressure.
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a kindergarten teacher is diagnosed with acute streptococcal pharyngitis. on exam, her throat is a bright-red color with no tonsillar exudate, and clear mucus is seen on the lower nasal turbinates. the urinalysis shows a large amount of white blood cells and is positive for nitrites. which of the following is the best treatment choice?
The most effective course of therapy would be 250 mg of levoquinolone (Levaquin) PO daily.
Levoquinolone (Levaquin), is a quinolone, that is used to treat both pharyngitis & urinary tract infections. Due to her sensitivities, Augmentin & Bactrim were unable to be utilized.
Acute pharyngitis, often known as strep throat, is brought on by Streptococcus pyogenes, also known as group A Streptococcus.
If left untreated, strep throat usually goes away in between three and five days. Antibiotic therapy is advised despite the brief period to reduce the probability of consequences. After taking antibiotics for one to three days, symptoms usually go away.
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the nurse in the clinic is completing an assessment on a client who has been prescribed digoxin for congestive heart failure. which data indicates the medication has been effective?
Digoxin is prescribed to treat heart failure and irregular heartbeats (arrhythmias). It improves cardiac performance and aids in heart rate regulation.
Which assessment results might point to the client's exposure to digitalis toxicity?Vision impairment, nausea, and dizziness are symptoms of poisoning (such as seeing green and yellow halos). Digoxin poisoning may be more likely in those with low potassium levels. If a patient with digoxin toxicity is not treated right away, severe bradycardia and even death may result.
Which findings support the theory that the patient has left-sided heart failure?Shortness of breath during sleep is one symptom of left-sided heart failure. breathing difficulties during exercising or when lying down. persistent wheeze or coughing
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