A client with addison's disease is scheduled for discharge after being hospitalized for an adrenal crisis. The client’s statements are-
"I need to call my doctor to discuss my steroid needs before I have dental work."
"I will call the doctor if I suddenly feel profoundly weak or dizzy."
"I need to obtain and wear a Medic Alert bracelet."
What is addison’s disease?
When your body doesn't create enough of one or more hormones, it can develop an uncommon disorder called adrenal insufficiency, often known as Addison's disease. Your adrenal glands, which are right above your kidneys, often produce too little aldosterone and too little cortisol when you have Addison's disease.
The potentially fatal Addison's disease can affect persons of any sex and of any age. Taking hormones to make up for those that are absent is one element of the treatment.
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a woman who gave birth 48 hours ago is bottle-feeding her infant. during assessment, the nurse determines that both breasts are swollen, warm, and tender upon palpation. what action should the nurse take?
The nurse should take apply ice to the breasts for comfort that is Option B.
What is the importance of applying ice on the breast?Engorgement in a bottle-feeding mother can be treated by placing ice on the breasts for comfort.
Because she is not breastfeeding, ice packs and cabbage leaves can be used to treat this woman's engorgement.
A mother who is bottle-feeding should refrain from any breast stimulation, such as milk expression or pumping.
For at least the first 72 hours after giving birth, a mother who is bottle-feeding should wear a well fitted support bra or breast binder consistently. A baggy bra won't help to suppress lactation. Additionally, the movement of the bra against the breasts may stimulate the nipples, causing lactation to increase.
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In the synaptic cleft, three nursing students discussed what would have to be absent to prevent the action potential from moving from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane:
1) Debra suggested that Ca++ would have to be missing to prevent the action potential from moving from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane.
2) Larry stated that Ca++ would have to be missing because it is the neurotransmitter that takes the messages from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane.
3) Timothy thought that the secretory vesicles would have to be absent to prevent the action potential from moving from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane since it contains the neurotransmitter responsible for taking the message from one membrane to the next.
(HELP NEEDED ASAP. THANK U SO MUCH)
Synapses are the communication links between neurons. The synaptic cleft, which is a space between the presynaptic axon terminal and the postsynaptic dendrite that is created when an action potential contacts. Thus, option C is correct.
What pre-synaptic to the post-synaptic membrane?Timothy reasoned that since the secretory vesicles contain the neurotransmitter necessary for transferring the message from one membrane to the next.
They would have to be absent in order to stop the action potential from travelling from the pre-synaptic membrane to the post-synaptic membrane.
Therefore, The presynaptic terminal, is where neurotransmitters are released from the neuron (often a spine).
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a nurse is caring for a client who has had extensive abdominal surgery and is in critical condition. the nurse notes that the complete blood count shows an 8 g/dl hemoglobin and a 30% hematocrit. dextrose 5% in half-normal saline solution is infusing through a triple lumen central catheter at 125 ml/hr. the physician orders include the following: gentamicin 80 mg iv piggyback in 50 ml d5w over 30 minutes zantac 50 mg iv piggyback in 50 ml d5w over 30 minutes one unit of 250 ml of prbcs (packed red blood cells) over 3 hours flush the nasogastric tube with 30 ml normal saline every 2 hours. how many milliliters should the nurse record as the intake for the 8-hour shift? enter the correct number only.
The nurse record as the intake for the 8-hour shift is 1470 mL.
Explanation:
Regular IV at 125 mL x 8 hours = 1000 mL. Gentanicin = 50 mL. Zantac = 50 mL. PRBCs = 250 mL. NG flushes 30 mL x 4 = 120 mL. TOTAL = 1470 mL.
What is Hemoglobin?
Hemoglobin is a protein that is found in red blood cells. Red blood cells transport oxygen throughout your body. Your haemoglobin levels may fall if you have a condition that impairs your body's ability to produce red blood cells. Low haemoglobin levels can be a sign of a variety of conditions, including anaemia and cancer.
Hemoglobin is a protein that is found in red blood cells. Red blood cells transport oxygen throughout your body. Oxygen fuels your cells and provides energy. A low haemoglobin level can indicate a number of conditions, including anaemia and cancer.
Your haemoglobin levels may fall if a disease or condition impairs your body's ability to produce red blood cells. When your haemoglobin level is low, your body isn't getting enough oxygen, which causes you to feel tired and weak.
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which of the following may be beneficial in staving off dementia but for which research into effectiveness has proved mixed?
There is no option provided, but most likely, staying engaged with social networks may be beneficial in staving off dementia, although research into their effectiveness has proven mixed.
Social engagement is linked to lower rates of disability and death, as well as a lower risk of depression. Maintaining a social life may benefit brain function and maybe even prevent the development of dementia. According to recent research, social isolation greatly increases a person's chance of dying prematurely from any cause, a danger that may rival physical inactivity, obesity, and smoking. Social isolation was also linked to a 50% increase in the risk of dementia.
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when categorizing victims of hypothermia as having mild, moderate, and severe hypothermia, which assessment findings will help the nurse identify the clients with moderate hypothermia? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Hypovolemia and Respiratory acidosis. Systemic hypoperfusion and a significant reduction in the effective blood volume are the causes of hypovolemic shock in hypothermia.
Hypovolemic shock can cause ischemia harm to key organs, which can result in multi-system organ failure and death if ignored. The initial stage in management is to rule out any more shocks, since this will determine the course of action. Hypovolemic shock may result from fluid loss in the entire body rather than haemorrhage. Once the cause of hypothermia has been identified, it is important to restore lost blood or fluids as quickly as possible to reduce tissue ischemia. The kind and pace of fluid replacement are factors to take into account while replenishing fluid or blood volume loss. This exercise examines the pathophysiology, appearance, and causes of shock while highlighting the need of the interprofessional team in managing it.
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which neurological test should the nurse implement to assess cerebellar function in a 5-year-old with symptoms of hyperactivity?
The neurological test that the nurse should implement to assess cerebellar function in a 5-year-old with symptoms of hyperactivity is Finger to nose.
What are neurological test?A neurological test is described as the assessment of sensory neuron and motor responses, especially reflexes, to determine whether the nervous system is impaired.
A neurological test typically includes a physical examination and a review of the patient's medical history, but not deeper investigation such as neuroimaging.
A neurological test assesses motor and sensory skills, hearing and speech, vision, coordination, and balance. It may also test mental status, mood, and behavior.
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An example of a dangerous bacterial infection that is resistant to several widely used antibiotics is.
the nurse note a depressed female client has been more withdrawn and noncommunicative during the past two weeks. which intervention is most important to include in the updated plan of care for this client? a. encourage the client's family to visit more often b. schedule a daily conference with the social worker
Engage the client in a non-threatening conversation.
What is depression ?Depression is a mood disorder that results in a constant sense of sadness and boredom. It affects how you feel, think, and behave and can cause a variety of emotional and physical issues. It is also known as major depressive disorder or clinical depression.
Consistent attempts to draw the client into conversations which focuson non-threatening subjects can be an effective means of eliciting a response, thereby decreasing isolation behaviors. There is not sufficient data to support the effectiveness of A as an intervention for this client. Although B may be indicated, nursing interventions can also be used to treat this client. C is too threatening to this client.
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in preparation for being discharged to home, the nurse is teaching a client with a chronic right ankle stasis ulcer about wound care. what statement by the client indicates a need further teaching?
The nurse will cover the use of graduated compression socks in client education prior to discharge.
What is chronic in the body?an ailment or illness that often lasts for three months or more and has the potential to develop worse over time. Elderly persons are more likely to have chronic diseases, which can usually be treated but not cured. Leukemia, heart disease, strokes, diabetic, & rheumatism are the most prevalent chronic illness categories.
Does chronic mean permanent?An chronic condition is defined by Wikipedia as a sickness that develops over time or a physical health condition that really is persistent or has long-lasting impacts. Whenever a disease has a longer than three-month duration, the word "chronic" is frequently used.
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the registered nurse (rn) teaches the nursing student about the implementation process of | nursing. which example will the rn use to describe indirect care interventions?
The example given to illustrate indirect care interventions is the dispensing of drugs.
What kind of nurse involvement falls under indirect care?When a nurse helps someone else without directly interacting with the patient, this is known as an indirect care intervention. Attending care conferences, documenting, and talking with other physicians about patient care are a few examples of indirect care interventions.
In this quiz, you'll learn which intervention a nurse would recognize as an indirect nursing intervention.Other members of the healthcare team can be consulted, referrals can be made, advocacy can be done, and the environment can be managed as indirect care interventions. Implementation is the phase that entails action, doing, and actually carrying out the nursing interventions specified in the care plan.
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the nurse provides a cool glass of water to a client with inflamed throat tissue. what condition should the nurse caution the client to avoid when drinking very hot liquids while having an inflamed throat?
The client has the condition called Hyperalgesia due to which she gets inflamed throat while drinking hot water.
What is Hyperalgesia ?A sign of hyperalgesia is experiencing substantially more intense pain in circumstances where feeling pain is expected. Disruptions in your body's pain-processing mechanisms are the source of it. Burns and many other injuries and illnesses can frequently result in this.
Examples could be back discomfort, leg pain, neck pain, or headaches. Some people call the discomfort "diffuse" or "spreading," respectively. Some people may complain of aches and pains all throughout their bodies. The nature or experience of the pain has changed throughout time.
Opioid-induced hyperalgesia (OIH) is characterized as a nociceptive sensitization condition brought on by opioid exposure. A paradoxical reaction to the condition causes a patient taking opioids for pain management to actually become more sensitive.
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a client with ataxia-telangiectasia is admitted to the unit. the nurse caring for the client would expect to see what included in the treatment regimen?
A client with ataxia-telangiectasia is admitted to the unit and nurse caring for the client would expect : IV gamma globulin administration.
What is ataxia-telangiectasia?Ataxia-telangiectasia is a rare and childhood neurological disorder that causes degeneration in part of the brain that controls motor movements and also speech. First signs of the disease are unsteady walking and slurred speech, generally occurring during the first five years of life.
Treatment for ataxia-telangiectasia are: IV gamma globulin, antimicrobial therapy, and bone marrow transplantation.
Genetic mutation causes ataxia-telangiectasia and anyone can inherit ataxia-telangiectasia if both the parents carry a copy of the ATM gene mutation and pass that to their child.
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how many grams of phenylephrine is needed to prepare 40. ml of a 14 % solution for a glaucoma patient?
A 14% 10mL solution must contain ( 10 x 14) / 100 = 1.4 grams of the solute
so, 14 grams of phenylephrine is needed to prepare 40. ml of a 14 % solution for a glaucoma patient.
The brief relief of nasal congestion or stuffiness brought on by hay fever or other allergies, colds, or sinus issues is provided by phenylephrine. Congestion caused by ear infections may also be reduced using this phenylephrine. The optic nerve is harmed by a set of eye disorders known as glaucoma. Good eyesight depends on the optic nerve, which transmits visual data from the eye to your brain. High eye pressure is frequently associated with optic nerve damage. But even with normal eye pressure, glaucoma can develop.
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a public health nurse interacts with many members of the community who are at risk for sexually transmitted infections (stis). the nurse should anticipate the use of tetracycline in a client who is diagnosed with what sti?
When a client is identified as having Chlamydia-related sexually transmitted infections (STI), the nurse should prepare for the client to take tetracycline.
What is sexually transmitted infections?The majority of STI cases are associated with eight infections. Only four diseases are currently curable: syphilis, gonorrhea, chlamydia, and trichomoniasis. Hepatitis B, herpes simplex virus (HSV), HIV, and human papillomavirus are the other 4 viral illnesses that cannot be cured (HPV). The virus that causes AIDS, known as HIV, is the most serious viral STD. The human papilloma virus (HPV), hepatitis B, and genital herpes are additional incurable viral STDs.
What STD Cannot be cured and can you heal from STD without antibiotics?STDs/STIs that cannot be treated are brought on by viruses like HIV, genital herpes, human papillomavirus, hepatitis, and CMV. If a person has a virus-based STI, they are always at risk of infecting their sexual partners and remain permanently infected.
No, don't count on a STI to disappear by itself. Ignoring warning signs, refusing to comply, or rejecting could seriously harm your partner's health and result in long-term problems. Even if you don't experience any symptoms, you still run the risk of developing issues and passing the virus to your sexual partners.
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the nurse is preparing a client for discharge who will receive a prescription for a hydroxymethylglutaryl-coenzyme a (hmg-coa) inhibitor. what statement by the client demonstrates a clear understanding of the teaching provided by the nurse?
the nurse is preparing a client for discharge who will receive a prescription for a hydroxymethylglutaryl-coenzyme a (hmg-coa) inhibitor contraindicated with liver or alcoholic disease
HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors are medications that are contraindicated with liver or alcoholic disease. The liver is more severely impacted by alcohol.The HMG-CoA inhibitor medication has resulted in the client's discharge. The client's declaration that he must only take the medication before bed. Since the patient's body only produces the majority of lipids at night. This will help you recover from the therapy more quickly.Discharge who will receive a prescription for a hydroxymethylglutaryl-coenzyme a (hmg-coa) inhibitor,contraindicated with liver or alcoholic disease and chance to get liver cancer.
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hector wants to pay more attention to his diet, but he does not want to get hung up on sticking to a rigid program. which best summarizes a strategy for a healthy diet?
Option 1 is correct.
Count calories and be sure to measure every portion.
What is Diet?In the realm of nutrition, a person's diet refers to the foods and beverages they regularly eat (or a group). The diet, or the one that satisfies a person's physical demands, may be regulated during a particular therapy for a disease or during the management of a certain health condition.
For example, a diabetic person's diet could be restricted to a certain list of foods and drinks that might help regulate blood sugar levels. The diabetic diet that is suggested for patients includes a variety of fibre-rich, non-starchy fruits and vegetables. When ingested in large quantities, starchy foods, which are high in carbs, have the potential to increase blood sugar levels.
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what is meant by the term etiology?likely future path of an illnessthe different symptoms of a given condition the cause of a disorder frequency with which a given illness occurs
Etiology means - 1. a disease or disorder's origins and progression. 2. the area of medical and psychological science dedicated to the methodical investigation of the root causes of physical and psychological disorders.
What medical term is used to describe a condition that can spread from one person to another?A communicable illness is one that can be spread from one person to another through a variety of different routes, such as coming into contact with blood or other bodily fluids, breathing in an airborne virus, or getting bitten by an insect.
The term "etiology" refers to the illness's root cause. One etiology can cause more than one disease entity, and more than one disease can result from the same etiology. A sequence of mechanistic chemical and cellular steps underlies the development of each disease entity.
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the parents of a 16-year-old boy who plays football want their child to receive growth hormone to improve muscle strength. what will the nurse tell the parents?
In conclusion, giving hGH to SGA kids improves their growth rate and has long-term impacts on their mass of muscle and fat tissue.
Does growth hormone help you become stronger?In healthy older individuals, human growth hormone appears to be able to increase muscle mass and decrease body fat, but the increased muscle mass does not necessarily transfer into an increase in strength. If human growth hormone has further advantages for healthy adults, it is unclear.
What hormone enhances muscular power?If a sufficient stimulus is available, anabolic hormones like as testosterone and the superfamily of growth hormones (GH) have been demonstrated to increase throughout 15 to 30 minutes of post-resistance exercise.
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true or false? adding butter to all of paul's food and making sure to feed him as many calories as possible may cause health complications for paul, as it would for someone at any age.
It is true that feeding Paul as many calories as possible while adding butter to everything he eats could lead to health issues, just as it would for anyone of any age.
Calories are a unit of measurement for the energy content of food and beverages. We frequently consume more calories from food and drink than we burn off, and our bodies store the extra as body fat. If this keeps happening, we may eventually start to gain weight. As a general rule, a strong guy needs about 2,500 kcal (10,500 kJ) every day to maintain a healthy weight.
Butter has a lot of calories and fat, especially saturated fat, which is linked to heart disease. If you have cardiovascular disease or are trying to cut calories, use this ingredient sparingly.
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nurse manager prepares teaching for staff nurses who care for clients with diabetes. which statements will the nurse manager include when discussing the differences between the endocrine and exocrine functions of the pancreas? select all that apply.
Option A, B, and D are correct when discussing the differences between the endocrine and exocrine functions of the pancreas.
Two primary tasks are carried out by the pancreas: Produces chemicals (enzymes) that aid in digesting as part of its exocrine function. Function of the endocrine system: Releases hormones that regulate blood sugar levels. Glands in the pancreas secrete chemicals that aid in digestion and regulate blood sugar. Diabetes types 1 and 2 affect the pancreas often. Pancreatitis and pancreatic cancer are two more pancreas disorders. This tells us that option A, B, and D are correct.
Along with other hormones, pancreas creates glucagon and insulin. Diabetes results from inadequate insulin production by the pancreas or improper insulin utilisation by the body.
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Complete question is:
A nurse manager prepares teaching for staff nurses who care for clients with diabetes. Which statements will the nurse manager include when discussing the differences between the endocrine and exocrine functions of the pancreas? Select all that apply.
• "Internal secretion of hormones is the function of the endocrine pancreas."
• "The endocrine pancreas secretes hormones through a ductless gland."
• "The exocrine pancreas secretes hormones from excretory ducts."
• "The exocrine pancreas secretes pancreatic enzymes into the GI tract."
a client is newly diagnosed with diabetes. the nurse would instruct the client to monitor for which indication of hypoglycemia?
A client has just received a diabetes diagnosis. The client would be given instructions from the nurse to watch for Kussmaul respirations, which are a sign of hypoglycemia.
How should a patient with hypoglycemia be monitored?If you experience any of the warning signs or symptoms of low blood sugar, use a blood glucose meter to measure and show your blood sugar level. When your blood sugar level falls below 70 mg/dL, you have hypoglycemia.
Which symptom should the nurse point out as being the most typical indicator of hypoglycemia when training a diabetic client?Looking pale is one of the initial symptoms of diabetic hypoglycemia (pallor) Shakiness. a feeling of faintness or dizziness.
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the nurse is teaching breastfeeding to prospective parents in a childbirth education class. which instruction should the nurse include as content in the class?
Feed your baby whenever they ask for food, which should be every two to three hours.
What are classes on birthing called?Lamaze Method Lamaze classes view delivery as a natural and healthy process because it is the most popular childbirth technique in the U.S.Lamaze classes do not encourage or oppose the use of medications or other standard medical procedures during labor and delivery.
How can I become a better mother?Classes on childbirth education are typically provided in hospitals, birthing facilities, doctor's offices, and private residences.You can also ask your doctor or a hospital for information on birthing education classes Friends and family .
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the nurse is preparing to care for a 5-year-old who has been placed in traction following a fracture of the femur. the nurse plans care, knowing that which is the most appropriate activity for this child?
Crayons and coloring books can be given to the child.
Activities to make a child involve:
Children naturally engage in play and recreation, which are essential to their healthy development. Through play and recreational activities, children are able to learn, master experiences, express themselves, manage anxiety, create, achieve, and build abilities.Children learn to adjust to the hospital experience through play as well. Children can explore, express, and process their healthcare experiences through play and leisure in a secure, non-threatening setting, which can be helpful.Children engage in medical play, a therapeutic activity that is frequently employed, where they use medical themes and objects in their play. Adults can gain insight into children's emotions, worries, concerns, and misconceptions by watching them play and engage in recreational activities. This knowledge is essential for assisting kids in coping with their healthcare experiences.Hence all about recreational activities during hospitalization
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communicable diseases are exempt or are not exempt from the privileged communication standard
Communicable diseases are exempt from the privileged communication standard.
What are privileged communication standard?
Privileged communication safeguards the secrecy of contacts between two people who are entitled to a private, protected connection under the law.
Attorney-client, doctor-patient, priest-parishioner, two spouses, and (in certain states) reporter-source ties are examples of relationships that afford the protection of privileged communication.
When persons are harmed or threatened with harm, the privileged communication protection is lost.
Examples of exempt privileged communication standard
Exempt by law and MUST be reported: births and deaths, injuries caused by violence, drug abuse, communicable diseases and STD's
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a low-sodium, low-protein diet is prescribed for a 45-year-old client with renal insufficiency and hypertension, who gained 3 pounds in the last month. the nurse determines that the client has been noncompliant with the diet, based on which report from the 24-hour dietary recall? (select all that apply.)
Snack of potato chips, and diet soda.
Lunch of tuna fish sandwich, carrot sticks, fresh fruit, and coffee.
Breakfast of eggs, bacon, toast, and coffee.
Bedtime snack of crackers and milk.
What is hypertension?
A condition when the blood exerts too much pressure on the arterial walls.
Blood pressure beyond 140/90 is typically regarded as hypertension; blood pressure above 180/120 is regarded as severe hypertension. consume insufficient amounts of fruit and vegetables and too much salt. do not exercise enough. excessive alcohol or coffee use, or smoking Early morning headaches, nosebleeds, abnormal heart rhythms, eyesight abnormalities, and ear buzzing are just a few of the symptoms that can appear. Fatigue, nausea, vomiting, bewilderment, anxiety, chest pain, and trembling of the muscles are all symptoms of severe hypertension. The heart must work harder to pump blood to the body's other organs because of high blood pressure. The lower left heart chamber becomes thicker as a result.
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Drag each label into the appropriate to : Brachial, Lumbar, Sacral and coccygeal
The Central Nervous System (CNS) consists of the brain and the spinal cord. The spinal cord is the continuation of the brain which lies protected within the bones of the spine.
The Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) consists of 12 cranial nerves, and 31 pairs of spinal nerves. The PNS acts as the system of electrical wires that allows for communication between the CNS and the body’s muscles and sensory receptors. They also control the automatic functions of the bowel, bladder, respiratory (breathing), and heart function.
Each spinal nerve is attached to the spinal cord by two roots: a dorsal (or posterior) root which relays sensory information and a ventral (or anterior) root which relays motor information. Therefore, once the two roots come together to form the spinal nerve, the nerve carries a combination of both sensory and motor information.
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what should the nurse teach a client with generalized anxiety disorder to help the client cope with anxiety?
Anxiety disorders are taught by nurses Be nonthreatening and composed. When interacting with the client, keep your cool and be non-threatening.
What anxiety intervention is the most successful?The most successful type of psychotherapy for anxiety problems is cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT). CBT, which is typically a brief course of treatment, focuses on giving you the knowledge and skills you need to reduce your symptoms and gradually resume the activities you've put off due to anxiety.
Which diagnostic tool is best for determining whether a patient has anxiety?An interview tool frequently used to measure anxiety is the Hamilton Anxiety Rating Scale (HAM-A). It evaluates a number of the GAD-related symptoms even though it predates modern conceptualizations of the disorder. There are subscales for somatic and mental anxiety in the HAM-A.
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the nurse is assessing with a head injury a client for decerebrate posturing. which position indicates the client has decerebrate posturing?
The nurse is examining a client who has a head injury for decerebrate posture. which posture suggests that the client has adopted a decerebrate stance
When should you visit a doctor after striking your head?
When an individual or group has a brain injury and exhibits the following signs and symptoms: nausea or vomiting that occurs frequently. a longer-than-30-second period of unconsciousness a persistent headache
What should you do if you bump your head?You can provide a cold pack for their head by using an ice bag or a bag of frozen beans wrapped in such a tea towel. If symptoms like moderate vertigo and a headache worsen, obtain medical help right away.
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the nurse is monitoring an infant who was born at 0515 hrs. at 1315 hrs, the same day, the nurse determines the infant is starting to show yellowish staining on the head and face. which action should the lpn prioritize?
Report to the RN and document. Jaundice that manifests during the first 24 hours may be an indication that there is too much bilirubin in the blood, which is now leaking into the tissues.
What sort of work are nurses tasked with?Registered nurses (RNs) deliver and organize medical treatment, inform the public about various health issues, and offer emotional support and guidance to patients and their families. The majority of registered nurses collaborate in teams with physicians and other medical specialists in a variety of settings.
Will a nurse be capable of performing?They are responsible for a variety of surgical post-operative therapeutic duties. Many surgical nursing professionals decide to specialize in one particular field, such obstetrics, pediatric surgery, or heart surgery.
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the healthcare team is planning health protection interventions for a client. which interventions would be considered primary prevention activities? select all that apply.
Regulation of the use of potentially dangerous products and enforcement of laws requiring safe and healthy behaviors instruction on safe and healthy habits.
Which practices fall under the category of primary prevention? Check all that apply.Activities for primary prevention are intended to stop or delay the beginning of disease. Primary-level interventions include practices like eating wholesome foods, working out, applying sunscreen, wearing seat belts, and getting immunized.
What practice is a patient's primary preventative intervention?Interventions designed to stop the development of disease, injury, or disability are referred to as primary prevention. The population that does not already have the disease that an initiative is trying to prevent is the focus of primary prevention strategies. A well-known example of primary prevention is vaccinations.
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