Answer:is A because it was tried to stop and help the client to get less, not more or other.
Explanation:
If a client is being treated for hyperthyroidism with propylthiouracil (PTU). then the action of this drug is to A) - decrease the amount of the thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood and D) - inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland.
Propylthiouracil, also known as 6-n-Propylthiouracil (PROP), is a thioamide drug which is indicated in hyperthyroidism (including Grave's disease). It reduces the amount of thyroid hormone produced by the thyroid gland. Propylthiouracil is used for treating overactive thyroid (hyperthyroidism).
PTU acts by inhibiting the thyroid gland from synthesizing excess thyroid hormone. It is preferred in patients who can not tolerate methimazole and in whom radioactive iodine therapy or surgery are not suitable for the management of hyperthyroidism.
Mechanism of action:
1 ) Central: Propylthiouracil inhibits thyroperoxidase enzyme, which oxidizes the anion iodide to iodine during thyroid hormone synthesis, assisting the addition of iodine to tyrosine residues present on the hormone precursor thyroglobulin. This is one of the major steps in thyroxine (T4) production.
The sodium dependent iodide transporter located on follicular cell's basolateral membranes is not inhibited by propylthiouracil. Competitive inhibitors (like perchlorate and thiocyanate) are required to inhibit this step.
2) Peripheral: Propylthiouracil also inhibits 5'-deiodinase enzyme, which converts T4 into the active T3.
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Athletes' hearts are heavier than average because:
Answer: Athletes need less oxygen than the average human.
Explanation:
Oxygen therapy is especially popular for high altitude sports or sporting events held in mountainous areas that are far above sea level, where athletes naturally draw in less oxygen per breath.
Answer:
It's A trust me im taking the quiz.
a client being treated for rheumatoid arthritis has been prescribed a glucocorticosteroid. how should the nurse best ensure this client's safety during treatment?
Make sure the patient is aware of how to reduce the dose if the healthcare professional stops giving it.
What should the nurse look out for while giving acetaminophen intravenously?A 15-minute infusion of IV acetaminophen is recommended. The nurse needs to keep a close eye on the levels of AST, ALT, BUN, and creatinine in patients who are susceptible to hepatotoxicity or renal toxicity. Hematologic reactions can be brought on by acetaminophen. The nurse needs to keep an eye out for anaemia and dropping red and white blood cell levels.
What element lessens the spread of pain?The opioid family of medications, which includes morphine, and heroin are the most effective ones for providing brief analgesia and pain relief in clinical settings.
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the nurse cares for a client with a chronic neurologic condition that decreases the peristalsis. what concern will the nurse use to plan care for this client's most likely risk?
A client with such a persistent neurologic illness that affects peristalsis is under the nurse's care. The nurse will use the client's concern about constipation to design care for the greatest risk.
Constipation: What Is It?Every age group is susceptible to the common disease known as constipation. It can indicate that you're not eliminating feces frequently or that you can't entirely empty your bowels. Your stools may also be stiff and lumpy, excessively huge, or unusually little if you have constipation.
What causes constipation most frequently?consuming too little fiber from sources like fruit, veggies, and grains a modification to your daily routine or way of life, such altering your dietary patterns. having little discretion when using the bathroom. avoiding the want to go to the bathroom.
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individuals with lepromatous leprosy are often placed on a regimen of what in an attempt to reduce the lesions associated with this condition?
Antibiotics are an attempt to reduce the lesions associated with leprosy.
What is lepromatous leprosy?
Leprosy is commonly referred to as Hansen's disease. Leprosy is caused by a bacterium called Mycobacterium leprae. It may have an impact on the nose lining, skin, eyes, and nerves (nasal mucosa).
What are the symptoms of leprosy?
Lepromatous leprosy symptoms and signs include the following:
Painlesslight, or red skin sores without numbnessIllness worsenslesionsPeripheral nerve thickening with decreased feeling, burning, or tingling is a protracted loss of sensory perception. Early detection and treatment of those who are afflicted are the best ways to stop the spread of leprosy. The leprosy was treated using mixed drugs such as clofazime,and rifampicin.Three weeks of using this antibiotic individuals with lepsory will have nasal secretions which contain M. leprae
Hence, antibiotics are used to reduce the lesions.
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members of the family of an unconscious client with increased intracranial pressure are talking at the client's bedside. they are discussing the client's condition and wondering whether the client will ever recover. the nurse intervenes on the basis of which interpretation?
The nurse intervenes on the basis of the fact that it might be possible for the client to hear the family. Some patients who have awoken from a coma recall hearing particular voices and discussions. Hence, family members or employees should act as though the client's hearing is still functional (coma stimulation).
What is intracranial pressure?The pressure that fluids like cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) exert inside the skull and on the brain tissue is known as intracranial pressure, or ICP. ICP is measured in millimeters of mercury (mmHg), and an adult lying supine usually has an ICP of 7 to 15 mmHg at rest.
What is increases intracranial pressure?A clinical condition known as increased intracranial pressure or intracranial hypertension (IH) is characterized by an increase in the pressures inside the skull. ICP leads to headaches. The pressure might worsen the existing injuries of the brain or spinal cord. This type of headache is urgent and needs to be treated as soon as possible.
What is coma stimulation?A coma stimulation program, also known as a coma arousal program, is a rehabilitation strategy focused on individually arousing the comatose person's senses of hearing, touch, smell, taste, and vision.
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the nurse is developing a plan of care for a client with dementia. which feature of confusion in the elderly is accurate?
A care plan is being created by the nurse for a client who has dementia. Accurately speaking, disorientation frequently follows migration to new settings in the elderly.
Describe dementia.Instead than referring to a specific illness, the term "dementia" is used to characterize poor memory, reasoning, or decision-making that makes it difficult to carry out daily responsibilities. Dementia is most frequently caused by Alzheimer's disease. Despite the fact that dementia primarily affects older persons, it is not a natural aspect of aging.
What alters a person with dementia?Dementia seems to be the loss of cognitive functioning, which includes thinking, remembering, and reasoning, to the point where it affects a person's ability to carry out daily tasks. Some dementia sufferers are unable to deal with their emotions, and even personalities may also change.
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when a client who has been taking opioids becomes less sensitive to the drug's analgesic properties, that client is said to have developed a(n)
When a client who has been taking opioids becomes less sensitive to the drug's analgesic properties, that client is said to have developed a(n) tolerance.
What do you mean by tolerance?
Tolerance is a fair and objective attitude toward others, usually the result of a conscious effort on the part of the individual. It is the capacity to experience and put up with something novel or divisive without expressing disapproval. Early in the 15th century, the Latin word tolerantia served as the basis for the English word tolerance. This word's original meaning was to support or endure suffering. Around the same period, it was also employed as a French word with a comparable meaning. It started to be connected with its more contemporary sense in 1765. It started to mean a propensity to be unaffected by other people's opinions around this time.
Thus from above conclusion we can say that when a client who has been taking opioids becomes less sensitive to the drug's analgesic properties, that client is said to have developed a(n) tolerance.
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a wife of a returning combat veteran called ems because her husband is complaining of constant headaches. when you ask about post-traumatic stress disorder (ptsd) or traumatic brain injury (tbi), she states that the patient was injured by an improvised explosive device in iraq, but cannot remember the event. she explains that the patient has undergone numerous cts and mris of head and has been told by his family doctor that there is no sign of injury. regarding these medical conditions, you realize that:
Despite the negative results of the CT and MRI examinations, TBI may still occur.
What part of the nervous system is instantly triggered by a threat to ensure fundamental survival?The body's quick, unconscious reaction to hazardous or stressful circumstances is controlled by the sympathetic nervous system. A surge of hormones increases the body's alertness and heart rate while also supplying more blood to the muscles.
Which of the following best sums up the four distinguishing characteristics of PTSD?Four categories of PTSD symptoms can be used to categorize them: intrusive memories, avoidance, depressive changes in thinking and mood, and adjustments in physical and emotional responses.
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a 70-year-old client confides to the nurse that she is ""terribly embarrassed"" that she has developed urinary incontinence over the past year. which nursing response supports the client’s self-esteem?
"Let's look at how to schedule activities and bathroom breaks", which is one of the responses that the nurse will ensure, to help in supporting the self-esteem of the client with urinary incontinence.
What are Nurses?
A qualified healthcare provider with training in promoting and maintaining health who works independently or under the supervision of a doctor, surgeon, or dentist.
What is Urinary?
Urinary is linked to the urinary system, bladder, urethra, ureters, and kidneys. The urinary system's functions include removing waste from the body, controlling blood volume and pressure, electrolyte and metabolite levels, and blood pH. Loss of bladder control, or urinary incontinence, is a common issue. The intensity can range from occasionally leaking urine when you cough or sneeze to having a sudden, intense urge to urinate that prevents you from reaching a restroom in time.
Hence, "Let's look at how to schedule activities and bathroom breaks", which is one of the responses that the nurse will ensure.
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the nurse is caring for a client who is receiving iv vancomycin. the nurse infuses the medication at the prescribed rate to prevent what from occurring?
The red guy syndrome. This syndrome has caused cardiovascular collapse, with the client's face and higher trunk turning bright red.
What kind of syndromes are examples of?For instance, women are more likely to experience irritable bowel the chronic fatigue syndrome or polycystic ovarian syndrome, which is a condition that only affects women. An assortment of symptoms or indicators characterizes a syndrome.
Is a syndrome a condition?A symptom is a collection of symptoms and indicators that develop simultaneously and change over time. The signs and symptoms of a disorder are also a collection, but they also have recognized linked qualities that are thought to be connected.
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a client newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. when addressing the most common adverse effect, what should the nurse describe?
A client newly diagnosed with cancer is scheduled to begin chemotherapy treatment and the nurse is providing anticipatory guidance about potential adverse effects. when addressing the most common adverse effect, Nausea and vomiting should the nurse describe.
What about Nausea and vomiting?Antiemetics and other over-the-counter (OTC) drugs can sometimes be used to treat nausea, vomiting, and upset stomach. Pepto-Bismol and Kaopectate, both OTC antiemetic drugs, contain bismuth subsalicylate.Although nausea is not a disease in and of itself, it can be a sign of a variety of digestive system conditions, such as: gastroesophageal reflux disease stomach ulcer illness. Stomach-related nerve or muscle issues that slow digestion or stomach emptying.Adults' nausea and vomiting often last one or two days and are not a symptom of anything dangerous. Vomiting is the body's method of removing dangerous items from the stomach, yet it can also be a reaction to something that has irritated the digestive tract.Vomiting and nausea are frequently brought on by long-term or chronic stomach conditions. Other symptoms like diarrhea, constipation, and stomach pain may accompany these conditions. Food intolerances, such as celiac disease, dairy protein intolerance, and lactose intolerance, are among these chronic illnesses.Learn more about Nausea and vomiting here:
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a client suffering from chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd) reports that it is hard to cough up secretions and the secretions are thick and sticky. which intervention will the nurse use to promote respiratory hygiene in this situation?
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd) says that secretions are also thick and sticky. In this case,increase fluid intake to lessen the patient's secretions.
What typically causes COPD?Smoking. In around 9 out of every 10 cases, smoking is regarded to be the primary cause of COPD. The lining of the lungs and airways can become damaged by the toxic compounds in smoke.
How is lung damage assessed?The chest X-ray is the most typical. A chest X-ray (CXR) is a quick, painless treatment that captures a three-minute interior image of your chest, showing the lungs, ribs, heart, and shapes of the major blood veins.An X-ray of the chest can help identify malignancies, hyperinflation, collapsed lungs, and infections.
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can cms take back monies without reviewing a patient’s record? a.no, cms always needs to review a patient’s record. b.yes, through the use of data mining. c.no, it would not be fair to take back monies without reviewing a patient’s record. d.yes, questioning the provider on medicare guidelines.
Correct choice is option B. Utilizing sophisticated algorithms, CMS can find any potential claim problems through data mining. In the event of glaring mistakes, the contractor may then ask for a refund.
What is the name of the organization that handles claims for Medicare?A commercial health insurance company known as a Medicare Administrative Contractor (MAC) is given a geographic region to handle Medicare Part A and Part B (A/B) medical claims or Durable Medical Equipment (DME) claims.
What are the top 3 elements of a medical claim?The following three elements are crucial to any medical claim: basic patient data, such as complete name, birthdate, and address. NPI (National Provider Identifier) CPT codes.
What are the two primary grounds for claim denial?Technicalities: missing codes or authorizations, incorrect claim filing, are frequently cited reasons for claim denials.
Medical: therapy that is either experimental or considered research-based and not deemed medically necessary.
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a client is prescribed demeclocycline. the nurse would teach the client to be alert for which signs or symptoms?
While treatment or for up to two or more months after discontinuing demeclocycline , watery or bloody stools, stomach pain, or fever.
ld Which over-the-counter medications shoua patient avoid when taking doxycycline, according to the nurse?Be advised that doxycycline is interfered with and rendered less effective by items containing magnesium, aluminum, or calcium, calcium supplements, iron products, and laxatives. Doxycycline should be taken one to two hours before or after taking antacids, calcium supplements, and magnesium-containing laxatives.
What are three possible negative effects of antibiotic use on patients?All of the antibiotics examined can have gastrointestinal side effects, including nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, stomach pain, appetite loss, and bloating, frequently as a result of disruption of the gut flora. Antibiotics with a broad spectrum are also likely to promote the growth of additional Candida species.
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the nurse is assisting an 82-year-old client to ambulate. which is the center of gravity for an elderly person?
The nurse is assisting an 82-year-old client to ambulate, upper torso is the center of gravity for an elderly person.
What is ambulate?Ambulation is the capacity to walk from one location to another independently, with or without the use of assistive equipment. Walking soon after surgery is one of the most important things elders can do to avoid postoperative problems.
Patients were classified as being in one of three stages by nurses: acutely ill, recovering, or getting ready for discharge.
What are the three stages of ambulation?Acutely sick, recovering, or getting ready for discharge were the three phases that nurses classified patients as being in.
So, upper torso is the center of gravity for an elderly person.
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a two year old child recently diagnosed with hemophilia a is discharged home. what information should the nurse include in a teaching plan about home care
Apply pressure, cold, elevate, and rest to the affected area if bleeding occurs. Hemophilia can be synthesized or derived from human blood.
What are the top 5 healthcare priorities?Recognizing that someone is dying, respectfully talking with them and their family, involving them in decision-making, supporting them and their family, and developing an individualized care plan that includes enough nutrition and hydration are the five priorities.
Which findings would the nurse immediately communicate to the doctor?For early and effective client health modification treatment, abnormal assessment findings or changes in the client's health status should be notified right away to the client's doctor or the charge nurse. Prioritization is based on the ABC pneumonic, which prioritizes the airway before moving on to breathing and circulation. It starts with identifying life-threatening situations as part of the initial assessment.
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a few weeks after ellen started medication to lower her blood pressure, she remembers feeling weakness, numbness, cramps, irregular heartbeats, and excessive thirst and urination. these are likely signs of: a. diabetes mellitus b. anemia c. magnesium deficiency d. potassium imbalance e. sodium imbalance
(d) potassium imbalance, including these symptoms like arrhythmia, cramps excessive thirst, urination, weakness, vomiting, and constipation.
What is Constipation?
The most frequent cause of hard, dry stools is when waste or stool passes through the digestive tract too slowly or cannot be efficiently removed from the rectum. There are numerous potential causes of chronic constipation.
What is Arrhythmia?
It is an erratic heartbeat. When the electrical signals that regulate the heart's beats don't function properly, heart rhythm issues (also known as heart arrhythmias) develop. Poor signalling results in the heart beating too quickly (tachycardia), too slowly (bradycardia), or irregularly.
Hence, potassium imbalance, including these symptoms like arrhythmia, cramps excessive thirst, urination, weakness, vomiting, and constipation.
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a nursing responsibility in managing iv therapy is to monitor the fluid infusions and to replace the fluid containers as needed. what is an accurate guideline for iv management that the nurse should consider?
An accurate guideline for IV management that the nurse should consider are listed below:
installing a main IV bag and priming it.prepping and hanging a backup IV bagdetermining IV ratesIV treatment efficacy is being tracked.removing a peripheral IV.What is IV therapy?IV treatment is administered through injection using a syringe or infusion, sometimes known as a drip. IV therapy is the quickest means to administer drugs, blood products, and other substances into the circulation to aid in the treatment of numerous health disorders, dehydration, and blood transfusions.
Depending on a number of various variables, including the kind of IV package, level of hydration, and body's natural metabolic rate, the effects may persist for up to a few days after the treatment is complete. It takes us 45 to 60 minutes to complete an IV treatment on average.
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you come back to the laboratory with a tube of blood and notice that the tube does not have a label. you have one extra label for a patient from whom you were to collect. do you use this label to label the extra tube?
No, We can't use this label to label the extra tube.
What might happen to the sample if a phlebotomist draws blood for testing and neglects to detect that the collection tube is old?The vacuum may not be able to extract enough blood to fill the tube entirely if a blood collection tube is used after its expiration date. Short-filled tubes might not pass muster for testing, necessitating the collection of a new sample.
How soon after collection tubes are labelled by the phlebotomist?In order for the test results to match the patient, a correctly labelled sample is necessary. a) Label every tube while the patient is present in the blood-drawing area, but only after the blood has been drawn.
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a 2-day old newborn is crying after being circumcised and the mother is attempting to comfort the infant but he continues to be fussy. which statement by the nurse would best support the mother’s actions?
The greatest way to encourage the mother's behavior is for nurse to ask the client why she doesn't want to go home.
What age is infant vs baby?Kids can range in age from birth to one year old and are regarded to be infants. Any child here between ages of birth and four is referred to as a baby, which includes newborns, babies, and toddlers.
What age is infant and toddler?Each stage of baby development (from 0 to 12 months) and toddler development (from 12 to 36 months) is marked by a different milestone. There is a lot of variance in how broad this window might well be, even while the majority of healthy newborns and toddlers accomplish each goal within a particular window of time.
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the nurse is gathering data from laboratory studies for a client who has hiv. the client's cd4 cell count is 200/mm³, and the client has been diagnosed with pneumocystis pneumonia. what does this indicate to the nurse?
All the given conditions indicates that the client has converted from HIV infection to AIDS.
Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is the primary cause of the immune system illness known as AIDS .
HIV weakens the immune system and impairs the body's capacity to fend against illness and infection. Contact with infected blood, semen, or vaginal secretions can transfer HIV.
AIDS cannot be cured, however drugs can slow the spread of the virus and stop the disease from getting worse.
2 to 4 weeks after contracting the infection, some HIV-positive individuals have flu-like symptoms. For years, people on HIV drugs might not have any other symptoms. Fever, exhaustion, and enlarged lymph nodes are just a few signs that might emerge when the virus multiplies and kills immune systems' cells. HIV usually progresses to AIDS if left untreated in 8 to 10 years.
There is no treatment for AIDS
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what medication for the treatment of opioid use disorder does not currently have evidence showing that it reduces transmission of hiv and hcv?
Drugs used to treat opioid use disorders can lower the risk of HIV and HCV transmission by lowering risky drug injector behaviour.
Which therapy works best for treating an opioid use disorder?Methadone, buprenorphine, and naltrexone are the three drugs recognised by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) as the most efficient therapies for opioid use disorder (OUD).
Does naltrexone stop the spread of HIV?Compared to placebo, extended-release naltrexone therapy decreased HIV risk behaviours. While alternative therapies including detoxification alone are not related with decreased HCV infection rates in young adults who inject drugs, methadone and buprenorphine treatment is.
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which issues are considered impediments to a fully functional electronic health record (ehr) system?
Issues are considered impediments to a fully functional electronic health record (EHR) system -
(i) Organizational culture.
(ii) Cost.
(iii) Standardization.
(iv) Privacy and confidentiality.
What is EHR?An electronic record of a patient's medical history that is kept on file by the healthcare provider throughout time. It may include all of the essential administrative clinical data pertinent to that patient's treatment under a specific provider, such as demographics, progress notes, issues, prescriptions, vital signs, past medical histories, vaccinations, laboratory information, and radiology reports.
What is the purpose of EHR?EHRs assist clinicians in better managing patient care and providing better health care by providing accurate, up-to-date, and full information on patients at the point of service. Providing instant access to patient records for better coordinated, efficient care.
The issues are -
(i) Organizational culture.
(ii) Cost.
(iii) Standardization.
(iv) Privacy and confidentiality.
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a nurse educator is preparing to discuss immunodeficiency disorders with a group of fellow nurses. what would the nurse identify as the most common secondary immunodeficiency disorder?
The most prevalent secondary disorder and most well-known secondary immunodeficiency disorder is AIDS. An infection with the human immunodeficiency virus causes it (HIV).
What is impacted by the human immunodeficiency virus?The pathogen known as HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) targets the immune system. (The immune system defends a person's body from illnesses and infections.) HIV weakens the immune system over time, making it more difficult for the body to fight against infections. HIV leads to Aid (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome).
What illness is the HIV's primary cause?The virus that causes aids (HIV) seems to be the primary cause of the chronic, potentially fatal disorder known has immune deficiency (AIDS) (HIV). HIV weakens your immune system, which interacts with your body's ability to fight sickness and infection.
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our patient is complaining of flashes of light to her peripheral vision associated with blurred vision secondary to a traumatic eye injury. the likely condition is:
Due to a serious eye injury, the patient with a disability complains of flashes of light in her peripheral vision and blurry vision.
What makes peripheral vision poor?
Glaucoma or retinitis pigmentosa are the two disorders that affect peripheral vision the most frequently. Glaucoma is a condition where pressure builds up inside the eye as a result of fluid accumulation. The optic nerve, which transmits visual information from of the eye to the brain, may get damaged over time as a result of this strain.
Why is peripheral vision so poor?
When you have peripheral vision loss (PVL), you are only able to perceive things that are directly in front of you. Also referred to as tunnel vision, this Loss or side vision can cause difficulties in daily living and frequently affects orientation,
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the nurse is caring for a client with weakness who is ambulatory but tires easily. which method for urinary elimination does the nurse recommend?
A bedside toilet may be helpful for the frail or quickly worn-out customer. There is no need for a bedpan or fracture pan since the individual is mobile.
Who is an ambulatory patient?The practise of providing medical treatments in an outpatient environment is known as ambulatory care. Without needing patients to enter a hospital, this sort of care may include diagnostic, observation, consultation, treatment, intervention, and rehabilitation services.
This indicates that the patient is mobile. After surgery or other medical procedures, a patient can need assistance to walk. Once the patient is capable of moving about, he is classified as ambulatory.
A bedside toilet may be helpful for the frail or quickly worn-out customer. There is no need for a bedpan or fracture pan since the individual is mobile.
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The last stop for deoxygenated blood in your circulatory system is the:
Answer: Pulmonary Arteries!
Explanation: trust me bro
The last stop for deoxygenated blood in the circulatory system is the pulmonary arteries, which is present in the last option because this artery carries the deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
What happens to the deoxygenated blood?The deoxygenated blood that comes from the cells has very little oxygen and a high concentration of carbon dioxide, and this deoxygenated blood from the cells goes to the right atrium by way of the superior and inferior vena cava from different organs of the body. Then from the right heart, this blood goes through the pulmonary artery to the lungs for oxygenation and this is the last place where the deoxygenated blood remains and at the lungs the oxygenation takes place.
Hence, the last stop for deoxygenated blood in the circulatory system is the pulmonary arteries, which are present in the last option because this artery carries the deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
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which rationale would the nurse understand for placing a chest tube after an infants open-heart surgery
The rationale would the nurse understand for placing a chest tube after an infants open-heart surgery is to reduce intracranial pressure.
What is the problem of myelomeningocele repair?The side-lying position with the head slightly elevated promotes venous return by gravity, which helps reduce intracranial pressure, a problem after myelomeningocele repair.
Although preventing aspiration, promoting respiration, and maintaining cleanliness of the suture line are all important, the reason for this position that is unique with this type of surgery is that it minimizes intracranial pressure.
Therefore, The rationale would the nurse understand for placing a chest tube after an infants open-heart surgery is to reduce intracranial pressure.
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when continuing to assess the abdominal area, the nurse hears a swishing sound. in what area would this sound be heard?
the registered nurse (rn) is caring for a client with a newly placed nasogastric tube (ngt). once the placement of the ng tube is verified by x-ray, which technique should the rn use as a reliable method to ensure the ngt is not displaced?
Check pH of aspirate in stomach contents obtained from the NGT.
Checking the pH of the aspirate is the best method to validate that the nasogastric tube is not displaced and should reveal an acidic pH of 1.5 to 3.5 due to presence of gastric acid.
A nasogastric tube (NG tube) is a special tube that transports food and drugs from the nose to the stomach.
A nasogastric tube, which is thin and soft, is put via the nose, down the throat, and into the stomach. When a child is unable to swallow food by mouth, formula is given to them. Medication may be administered to children via a tube.
Nasogastric tubes can be used to help with nutrition in addition to treating intestinal obstruction. They are most commonly utilized in surgical patients, although they can be useful in any patient population that requires nutritional support or stomach decompression.
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