a 6 year who suffered a head trauma is unconscious and intubated. you are the nurse caring for him and are monitoring his motor response carefully. you notice that he is responding to pain by abnormal flexion of his extremities. this is called:

Answers

Answer 1

The correct option is A. Decorticate posturing.

A person who is stiff, having bent arms, with clenched legs and fists held out straight, is said to be in decorticate posture. The fingers and wrists are held on the chest while the arms are bowed inward toward the body. Posturing in this way indicates severe brain injury.

What causes Decorticate posturing?

Decorticate posture can be caused by a number of conditions, including brain tumors, infection (such as malaria), traumatic brain injury (TBI), increased pressure in the brain, stroke, bleeding in the brain, brain issues due to infection, drug use, poisoning, or liver failure.

What are the risks of Decorticate Posturing?

Decorticate posturing indicates severe brain damage. If you do not seek medical attention immediately, you could die. Decorticate posture can also result in decerebrate posture. Decerebrate posturing is associated with more serious health issues. It's possible that the problems that led to your decorticate posturing will persist. The effects of brain damage may last for years. Even after receiving treatment, paralysis, seizures, headaches, and other issues could persist.

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The correct format of the question is:

A 6 year who suffered a head trauma is unconscious and intubated. you are the nurse caring for him and are monitoring his motor response carefully. you notice that he is responding to pain by abnormal flexion of his extremities. this is called:

A. Decorticate posturing.

B. Degenerative posturing.

C. Decerebrate posturing.

D. Determining posturing.


Related Questions

a young child has been brought to the clinic with signs and symptoms that are consistent with otitis externa. what assessment question should the nurse ask to address the etiology of this health problem?

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Young child has been brought to the clinic with signs and symptoms that are consistent with otitis externa, then assessment question that nurse should ask is : Has he been swimming a lot in the last little while?

What is otitis externa?

Otitis externa in children is often due to to moisture in the ear, as a result of swimming. Poor hygiene, interaction with animals, and lack of immunizations are not relevant factors.

Otitis externa is a condition that causes inflammation of external ear canal, which is a tube between outer ear and eardrum. Otitis externa is often called as "swimmer's ear" because repeated exposure to water makes the ear canal more vulnerable to inflammation.

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the nurse is educating a client who will be performing self-catheterization at home. what information provided by the nurse will help reduce the incidence of infection?

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Make sure to wash your hands both before and after interacting with a patient who has an indwelling catheter.

What kind of care is needed for a urinary tract infection following treatment?

Though routine structural inspection is infrequently required, follow-up urine and cultures should be considered after the conclusion of therapy. Diagnosis. Asymptomatic bacteriuria is a disorder when there are "significant" levels of bacteria in the urine but no symptoms.

What common problems arise during catheterization?

Infections of the urethra, bladder, or kidneys are frequently brought on by urinary catheters. These illnesses are known medically as urinary tract infections (UTIs), and the treatment for them often involves taking medication.

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in which settingd would the nurse prepare to administer developmental assessment for pediatric clients

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Pediatric developmental evaluations are conducted in a variety of contexts, including the home, classroom, hospital, and daycare facility.

Some of the well-child visits to medical experts include a developmental screening as a standard part of the appointment. All children should undergo a developmental screening during routine well-child visits at the following ages: 9 months, 18 months, and 24 or 30 months, according to the American Academy of Pediatrics.

What is a pediatric developmental assessment?

A developmental assessment is an effort to evaluate many facets of a child's functioning in areas including cognition, communication, behaviour, social interaction, motor and sensory abilities, and adaptive skills in children under the age of three.

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You are assisting in taking a final impression of a patient's mandibular arch, using an automix material. After transferring the syringe material to the dentist, you ready the heavy-bodied material for the tray. While you are preparing the tray, the cartridge runs out of material before the tray is completely filled. What could have prevented this? What should you do?

Answers

The initial mistake that was made was not checking to see if there was syringe clogging and could have been prevented by following the right steps and changing the equipment where necessary.

Who is a Dentist?

This is referred to as a healthcare professional who specializes in the oral health of humans.

In a scenario where the cartridge runs out of material before the tray is completely filled, we must ensure that after transferring the syringe material to the dentist, the heavy-bodied material for the tray is prepared and faulty equipment should be changed in other to prevent this incident.

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A nurse provides preoperative education to a client scheduled to undergo elective surgery. The nurse includes instructions about proper skin care. Which client statement indicates the need for further education?
a) "On the morning of surgery, I won't use lotions or cosmetics."
b) "On the morning of the surgery, I can shave my surgical area at home to save time."
c) "I should begin to use an antibacterial soap a few days before my surgical procedure."
d) "I'll shower before coming to the hospital on the day of the surgery."

Answers


a) "On the morning of surgery, I won't use lotions or cosmetics."

a client is admitted to the hospital with aspiration pneumonia secondary to progression of parkinson disease. which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

Answers

A client is admitted to the hospital with aspiration pneumonia secondary to progression of Parkinson disease. The assessment finding should the nurse anticipate is Coughing when drinking liquids.

What is pneumonia?

The inflammation of the air sacs in one or both the lungs is known as pneumonia.

Cause:Generally it happens as a result of bacterial infection.aspiration pneumonia as a result of breathing in vomit.Early symptoms:fever a dry cough headachemuscle pain weakness.

Hence, A client is admitted to the hospital with aspiration pneumonia secondary to progression of Parkinson disease. The assessment finding should the nurse anticipate is Coughing when drinking liquids.

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the client comes to the healthcare provider reporting nasal discharge, malaise, headache, and a nonproductive cough. the healthcare provider orders guaifenesin for the client. what interventions should the nurse suggest with this medication? select all that apply.

Answers

Humidify the air and increase fluid intake is the interventions the nurse should take.

What is non productive cough?

A dry cough that does not generate sputum, or the mucus that collects in the lower airways of the lungs during an infection or chronic sickness, is referred to as a non-productive cough. This is in contrast to a productive cough, sometimes referred to as a wet cough, when the act of coughing causes sputum to be produced and is typically a symptom of chronic lung disease, congestive heart failure, viral infections, or other disorders.Non-productive coughs can have a variety of causes, such as viral illnesses like the common cold or bronchospasms, which are bronchial tube spasms brought on by irritation. Infections, chilly air, or environmental toxins and pollutants are common bronchospasm inducers. A non-productive cough can also be brought on by allergies and postnasal drip. A non-productive cough can also be caused by an inhaled object, such as food or a tablet, blocking the airway. A persistent dry cough may also be a symptom of cough variant asthma, a kind of asthma in which a dry, ineffective cough is the primary symptom.

Humidify the air and increase fluid intake is the interventions the nurse should take.

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a client with an emergently placed central venous catheter (cvc) is to have emergent hemodialysis. upon assessment of the cvc the nurse visualizes redness, drainage, and odor to the area around the cvc. palpation of the surrounding skin causes the client pain. which intervention is the priority?

Answers

As per the information provided in the question, the nurse visualizes redness, drainage, and odor to the area around the cvc palpation of the surrounding skin which causes the client pain.

Hence, the nurse should notify the health care provider about the assessment findings of the patient.

What is a central venous catheter?

A central venous catheter, also referred to as a central line, is a tube that doctors insert into a sizable vein in the neck, chest, groin, or arm to quickly perform medical tests or administer fluids, blood, or medications.

How long can a CVC stay in?

A central venous catheter can be left in place for weeks or months, and many patients are treated through the line multiple times per day. In intensive care units, central venous catheters are crucial for treating a variety of conditions.

What are the risks of CVC?

Artery puncture, heart arrhythmias, improper positioning of CVC, and hematomas at the site of catheter insertion are the most frequent complications that can occur during CVC application. By coming into contact with the heart structures if the catheter's top enters the right heart chambers, arrhythmias in the heart can result.

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a multigravid client diagnosed with chronic hypertension is now in preterm labor at 34 weeks' gestation. the health care provider (hcp) has prescribed magnesium sulfate at 3 g/h. which assessment finding indicates that the intended therapeutic effect has occurred?

Answers

Decreased uterine contractions indicates that the intended therapeutic effect has occurred.

What is a Multigravid client?

A multigravid is a term used to describe a woman who has been pregnant more than once. This term is typically used to describe a woman who has been pregnant multiple times and has carried the pregnancies to term, meaning she has given birth to multiple babies. The term is derived from the Latin words 'multi' which means 'many' and 'gravida' which means 'pregnant'.

What is a Chronic hypertension?

Chronic hypertension is a long-term medical condition in which the blood pressure in the arteries is consistently elevated. High blood pressure can damage the heart, kidneys, and other organs and can lead to serious health problems, such as stroke, heart attack, and kidney failure. Treatment of chronic hypertension usually involves lifestyle modifications, such as eating a healthy diet and exercising regularly, as well as medications.

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the nurse makes the following assessment. a middle-age client reports falling asleep frequently at his job during the day, feels like he is not getting enough sleep at night (even though the number of hours of sleep is unchanged), continues to feel tired, and is not able to think clearly. also, the client reports his wife believes he is irritable upon awakening. nursing interventions include teaching the client to:

Answers

The analysis of the client's sleep reports: A client may be asked to keep track of their sleep habits for a week or more in a sleep log or diary. The nurse will then evaluate and analyse this information to identify any sleep disruptions.

Which advice would the nurse give a client to encourage sleep?

A few treatments that can make individuals feel more at ease and comfortable include providing loose-fitting nightwear, encouraging voiding before bed, encouraging hygiene practises, and making sure bed linen is smooth, clean, and dry.

Frequent side effects of hypertension include fatigue and early morning awakening. Hypothyroidism slows down stage 4 sleep, but hyperthyroidism speeds it up.

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which is not one of the general nursing measures employed when caring for the client with a fracture?

Answers

The best nursing diagnostic for a patient with a fracture is acute pain.

Which laboratory experiment is most important for treating a patient with a pelvic fracture?

Anteroposterior pelvic radiography, a fundamental screening procedure for pelvic fracture, has historically been recommended in all patients who have sustained blunt trauma in accordance with ATLS protocols.

Which phrase describes a fracture in a bone's continuity?

A fracture is a rift in a bone's continuity. Any bone can sustain a fracture, which can range in size from minor partial cracks to complete breaks. The most frequent causes of fractures are physical trauma, excessive use, and diseases like osteoporosis.

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a newborn, whose mother is hiv positive, is scheduled for follow-up assessments. the nurse knows that the most likely presenting symptom for a pediatric client with aids is

Answers

Infections of the respiratory system are quite prevalent in children. The infant with AIDS, however, commonly exhibits a persistent cold as their first presenting symptom because of their body's limited ability to fight off these infections.

The correct option is C

What transpires if an infant has HIV?

Ears and nasal infections, sepsis, pneumonias, TB, urinary tract infections, gastrointestinal illnesses, skin conditions, and meningitis are common infections among children who are HIV-positive. Children with HIV are frequently diagnosed with TB, diarrhea, and respiratory infections, especially in developing nations.

What longer can a child with HIV survive?

Children with HIV have a death rate of 52.5% by the time they are 2 years old, compared to 7.5% for children without HIV. A kid with HIV is unlikely to survive past age one if antiretroviral therapy is not started as soon as possible, say some HIV experts.

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the client is 24 weeks pregnant. by how many calories have her nutritional needs increased compared to those during the first trimester

Answers

The customer gained roughly 300 calories over her first trimester at 24 weeks' gestation.You can start experiencing nausea and sore breasts as pregnancy symptoms.

Which week in the first trimester is most important?

The first 12 weeks are when the fetus is most susceptible. All of the body's major organs and systems are developing during this time, and exposure to drugs, infectious diseases, radiation, some medications, tobacco, and toxic substances can harm the developing fetus.

How should I sleep in the first trimester?

You could find that getting regular exercise throughout pregnancy makes it easier for you to fall asleep. Stop heartburn. Eat little, frequently, and stay away from eating three hours before bed. Heartburn sensations might also be lessened by sleeping with your head elevated on your left side.

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a patient with high cholesterol is ordered to take atorvastatin. what information will be included in the patient teaching? (select all that apply.)

Answers

Patient teaching must include option c ,d and optionf that is : The medicine should be taken with a full glass of water. The patient should watch for body aches or gastrointestinal upset as side effects. The patient should have liver function tests frequently.

What is atorvastatin ?

A class of drugs known as HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors includes atorvastatin . It functions by reducing the amount of cholesterol that may accumulate on the artery walls and obstruct blood flow to the heart, brain, and other organs of the body. This is done by delaying the body's creation of cholesterol.

typical adverse consequences :

experiencing nausea or indigestion Eat simple meals only

Headaches. Rest and ingest a lot of drinks, please

Nosebleeds

unwell throat

symptoms of a cold, like a runny or blocked nose or sneezing

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a client who is 14 weeks' pregnant mentions that she has been having difficulty moving her bowels since she became pregnant. which hormone is responsible for this common discomfort during pregnancy?

Answers

2. This typical discomfort during pregnancy is caused by grapelike clusters hormone

Which hormone initiates menstruation?

Every month an embryo is ready for implantation thanks to the endometrium, the uterus' lining. Estrogen and progesterone from the ovary affect this preparation throughout its action. A menstrual cycle, which typically lasts fourteen days after ovulation, is how the endometrium is shed if a pregnancy does not occur.

what is The purpose of hormones?

The chemical messengers of the body, hormones transmit information to the tissues and blood. Hormones regulate a variety of bodily functions, including mood, sexual function, reproduction, and growth and development. They also affect metabolism, which is how your body converts food into energy.

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while examining a client's leg, a nurse notes an open ulceration with visible granulation tissue in the wound. until a wound specialist can be contacted, which type of dressing should the nurse apply?

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while examining a client's leg, a nurse notes an open ulceration with visible granulation tissue in the wound. until a wound specialist can be contacted, Moist sterile saline gauze type of dressing should the nurse apply.

A group of cells that have a similar structure and carry out a particular function is referred to as a tissue in biology. The French term tissue, which meaning "to weave," is the root of the word.One of the most important components of intravenous solutions frequently used in therapeutic settings is normal saline. It is a crystalloid solution that is injected into the patient. Both adult and juvenile populations are mentioned as potential sources of electrolyte and hydration problems. The Colon Cleansing and Constipation Resource Centre suggests drinking a saline solution to assist your digestive tract get clean. It also has a laxative effect. The majority of individuals take it as a cleanser, which is intended to aid in cleaning your digestive tract and colon by inducing an unplanned bowel movement.

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the nursing instructor is teaching a class on the physiologic prosperities involved with the birthing process. the instructor determines the session is successful when the students correctly match surfactant with which function?

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When the students properly connect surfactant to the substance that prevents alveoli from collapsing with breaths, the lesson is effective.

What kinds of work must nurses to perform?

In addition to providing patients' families with emotional support and educating the general public about various health issues, registered nurses (RNs) supervise and carry out medical treatments. In a variety of settings, the majority of registered nurses collaborate alongside doctors and other medical professionals.

Would a nurse be qualified to perform the role?

They are in charge of a variety of post-operative surgical therapeutic duties. The job of many surgical nursing practitioners is focused on cardiac, pediatric, or obstetric surgery.

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an aprn works in a critical care environment. he or she identifies a patient he or she believes to be at risk for decompensation and intervenes quickly. which characteristic of advanced direct care practice is the aprn utilizing?

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The acquisition of specialized knowledge, experience, and difficult scenarios the APRN may meet while providing patient care is what is meant by "expert clinical performance".

Nurses with advanced educational and clinical practice requirements are known as APRNs, and they Expert clinical performance offer services in community-based settings. Primary and preventative care, mental health, childbirth, and anesthesia are among services provided by APRNs. The clinician's cumulative experience, education, and Expert clinical performance are referred to as clinical expertise. The patient brings his or her own special concerns, expectations, and values to the interaction. Expert clinical performance includes interpreting data and having a thorough comprehension of clinical knowledge.

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the nurse is discussing pain relief methods for a pregnant first-time mother. the discussion should include which labor support methods? select all that apply.

Answers

The preferred pain reliever for usage during pregnancy is paracetamol, which can be taken without a doctor's supervision.Before learning they were pregnant, it's not really uncommon for women for using different forms of painkillers early on.

What techniques are used to aid with labor?

Two varieties of assisted vaginal delivery exist,Births aided by forceps, and , births aided by vacuum.The sort of birth that is performed is determined by a number of variables, including your unique circumstances and the expertise of your obstetrician-gynecologist .

What are the four typical delivery methods?

Examples of delivery methods include vaginal childbirth, C-section, VBAC, and assisted vaginal delivery.vaginal birth.assistance during vaginal birth (vacuum or forceps).C-section (Cesarean birth) (Cesarean birth).VBAC (vaginal birth after cesarean) (vaginal birth after cesarean).

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the nurse is reviewing the record of a newborn infant in the nursery and notes that the primary health care provider (phcp) has documented the presence of a cephalohematoma. based on this documentation, what should the nurse expect to note on assessment of the infant?

Answers

The nurse expect to note on assessment of the infant Edema caused from bleeding below the brain's periosteum

What is cephalohematoma ?

A blood clot under the scalp is referred to as a cephalohematoma. Small blood vessels on the fetus's head are broken during birth as a result of minor trauma.

A soft bulge or bump, usually on the back of the head, develops as a result of blood accumulating under the scalp. This swelling develops shortly after birth and may continue to grow for a few days. It might resemble a bruise. The soft mass gradually begins to harden or calcify with time.

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a pregnant patient took levothyroxine priorto becoming pregnant. what should be doneabout the levothyroxine now that she ispregnant?

Answers

According to the given information, the patient is under medication of L-thyroxine, hence she should continue it even after being pregnant and have monthly TSH levels checked.

The thyroid supplement L-thyroxin is used to treat hypothyroidism in patients. It should be kept up as it is safe to use while pregnant. She will need regular monitoring, though, as her need for thyroid hormone rises during pregnancy. If her levels fall to a hypothyroid state, the fetus's growth could be seriously hampered.

What is L thyroxine used for?

An underactive thyroid gland is treated with the medication levothyroxine (hypothyroidism). The thyroid gland produces thyroid hormones that aid in regulating growth and energy levels. To make up for the lack of the thyroid hormone thyroxine, people take levothyroxine. Only with a prescription is levothyroxine accessible.

Why is this medication prescribed to patients with hypothyroidism?

Levothyroxine belongs to the hormone class of medications. It functions by replacing thyroid hormone, which the body normally produces. Without thyroid hormone, your body can't function properly, which can lead to issues like slow speech, poor growth, low energy, constipation, gain in weight, hair loss, dry and thick skin, increased sensitivity to cold, joint as well as muscle pain, heavy or irregular periods, and depression. Levothyroxine treats these symptoms when taken properly.

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the nurse suspects that the patient receiving parenteral nutrition (pn) through a central venous catheter (cvc) has an air embolus. what action does the nurse need to take first?

Answers

The nurse will move this patient towards the left lateral decubitus position at first.

What is an embolus?

The embolus is really a blood clot that forms that begins in a blood vessel in one area of the body, splits, and travels inside blood to another area of the body. An embolus may reside in a blood vessel. This can stop the organ's blood flow.

What is a thrombus and embolus?

Any blood clot that develops in a vein is called a thrombus. Anything that travels through the vascular system until it reaches an vessel that is just small to allow it to pass is called an embolus. When blood flow is interrupted as a result .

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the nurse is caring for a client with alcoholism who now presents with gastrointestinal bleeding. what alteration does the nurse anticipate related to the bleeding?

Answers

The change the nurse expects to see related to bleeding is an increase in ammonia level.

The nurse is caring for a client with alcoholism.Why?

The gradual, constant GI bleeding causes the patient to not even be aware that they are ill until their haemoglobin level is so low that they are unable to breathe normally or get up without assistance.

What is GI bleeding?

Gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding is a symptom of some disorder in the digestive tract that causes mild to severe bleeding.

What is haemoglobin?

Haemoglobin is a protein inside red blood cells that carries oxygen from the lungs to tissues and organs in the body and carries carbon dioxide back to the lungs.

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several clients report unrelieved pain, and the charge nurse observes that their assigned nurse appears uncoordinated and drowsy and has slurred speech. which action would the charge nurse take?

Answers

The action would the charge nurse take ask the manager to be present before confronting the staff nurse.

What does slurred speech signify?

Alcohol or drug abuse, traumatic brain injury, stroke, and neuromuscular disorders are among the most common causes of speech disorders. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS), cerebral palsy, muscular dystrophy, and Parkinson's disease are among the neuromuscular conditions that frequently result in slurred speech.

Medical issues brought on by chronic pain can cause inactivity, malnutrition, and a higher risk of falling. Thankfully, research suggests that the effects of chronic pain on the brain may be reversible with the right treatment.

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While interviewing Jonathan, what assessment information would be most useful in determining the extent of his alcohol abuse?A. PHQ-9 questionnaireB. CAGE questionnaireC. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levelD. Complete blood cell count (CBC)

Answers

The most useful assessment information in determining the extent of alcohol abuse is by taking a test b. CAGE questionnaire

What is Cage Questionnaire?

The Cage Questionnaire is a series of four questions that doctors can use to check for signs of possible alcohol dependence. The questions are designed to be less intrusive than asking them directly if they have an alcohol problem.

Each question requires a simple yes or no answer. Any answer that increases a person's likelihood of developing alcohol addiction. In general, two to three responses indicate severe alcohol use or an alcohol use disorder. There are several similar tests that doctors use to check for alcohol or substance use disorders.

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the primary healthcare provider has prescribed medication for a patient. while caring for the patient, the nurse finds that the patient is allergic to this medication. the nurse informs the primary healthcare provider, and the provider prescribes a new medication. which principle of the code of ethics has the nurse followed?

Answers

After the doctor and provider prescribe a new drug, the nurse complies with the code on care ethics.

What is medication in plain English?

Medicines are substances or chemicals that treat, halt, or prevent illness, lessen symptoms, or aid in the disease diagnosis. Cardiology is the practice and study of caring for a patient, regulating the diagnosis, prognosis, avoidance, treatment, therapeutic interventions of their injury or sickness, and improving their health. Advances in medicine have made it possible for surgeons to cure countless diseases and save lives.

What role does medicine play in society?

Reduced blood pressure, the treatment of infections, and pain relief are a few examples of how drugs are beneficial. Medication hazards are the likelihood that When you utilize them, something undesired or unexpected can occur to you.

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the nurse is evaluating a client who is at risk for skin breakdown. which characteristics would the nurse observe to determine there is a stage i pressure ulcer? select all that apply.

Answers

A 2 cm by 2 cm by 0.5 cm wound that has a brown leathery appearance,  What traits would the nurse look for to identify a phase I pressure ulcer.

Stage 3 sees the sore deteriorate and spread into the tissue under the skin, creating a little crater. Muscle, tendon, as well as bone will not be visible in a sore, but fat may. Skin breakdown can be brought on by trauma, friction, shear, dampness, pressure, and friction. These elements can harm and hurt skin either together or separately. Other factors that contribute to skin disintegration include immobilization, poor nutrition, incontinence, medicines, dehydration, pressure,altered mental status, and loss of feeling. To stop skin deterioration and to encourage healing, frequently reposition the patient by nurse. At least once every two hours, the immobile patient should be turned, according a set timetable. the nurse to avoid shear, keep the patient's posture at 30 ° or lower, if necessary.

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when educating a client recently diagnosed with the metabolic syndrome, the nurse begins by explaining how adipose tissue secretes which substance that regulates sensitivity to insulin?

Answers

Your adipose (fat) tissue secretes a hormone called adiponectin that reduces inflammation and improves insulin sensitivity. Causes, Type 2 diabetes, and atherosclerosis.

What hormone does adipose tissue secrete?

Leptin, Nowadays, it is generally acknowledged that white adipose tissue (WAT) secretes a variety of peptide hormones, such as leptin, several cytokines, adipsin and acylation-stimulating protein (ASP), angiotensinogen, plasminogen activator inhibitor-1 (PAI-1), adiponectin, resistin, etc., and also creates steroids hormones.

What functions do ghrelin and leptin have?

Leptin and ghrelin are just two of the several hormones that regulate hunger and satiety. They participate in the extensive web of metabolic pathways that control your body weight. Your appetite is decreased by leptin and increased by ghrelin. Ghrelin is produced by your stomach and signals your brain when you're hungry.

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a client has a history of drinking one pint of bourbon per day for the last months. he is brought to the emergency department by family members who report that his last drink was 1hour ago. it is now 12am. when should a nurse expect this client to begin experiencing withdrawal symptoms

Answers

There is evidence that a client regularly drinks one pint of bourbon between three and eleven in the morning.

What distinguishes whiskey from bourbon?

American whiskey known as bourbon must be aged in fresh, charred oak barrels and contain at least 51% maize. Whiskey can be made everywhere in the world, however there are further variances dependent on the production and aging processes.

Is Jack Daniels whiskey or bourbon?

Jack Daniel's is definitely whiskey because it is a Tennessee whiskey. Even the name suggests as much. Whiskey is simply the name used to describe distilled grain that has been aged in oak barrels, regardless of the types of grains employed (such as maize, rye, wheat, or barley).

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how many cases of influenza does who estimate occur worldwide in a non-epidemic year? group of answer choices 12.5 million 500,000 50 million 1 billion

Answers

12.5 million cases of influenza who estimate occur worldwide in a non-epidemic year.

How much time does the seasonal flu last?

Although cough and ill feeling might last longer than two weeks, especially in senior people and those with chronic lung disease, uncomplicated influenza signs and symptoms usually go away in 3 to 7 days for the majority of people.

What is the treatment for seasonal influenza?

Typically, all you'll need to recover from the flu is rest and lots of fluids. However, your doctor may recommend an antiviral drug to treat the flu if you have a severe infection or are more likely to develop complications.

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the nurse is caring for a client who is recovering from a moderate sedation procedure for closed reduction of a forearm fracture. the nurse includes what discharge instructions for this client? your client is concerned about the high costs of ongoing mortality and expense involved in some variable annuity contracts, to help minimize the mortality and expense charges, you recommend a -shares, b-shares, c-shares, l-shares true or false: when a company enters a market on a large scale, it would be common for potential competitors to decide against entering that market. sandy and jim are trying to decide on whether to buy cash-value life insurance. one factor that makes them weary of cash-value life insurance is the nurse is evaluating the urinalysis results of a client presenting with polyuria and lower abdominal pain due to a suspected urinary tract infection (uti). which finding should the nurse report as evidence of a uti? From the RFLP data below, fill in the appropriate letters to complete the following statement: ______ is the child of _____ and _____a. C is the child of B and A b. A is the child of B and C c. B is the child of D and C d. D is the child of A and C continue adding salt to the solution until undissolved salt remains on the bottom of the container. this is now a (a) solution because no more sodium chloride can dissolve. the simplest ratio of ions in the solution is (b) sodium ion to (c) chloride ion and the simplest ratio of ions bound in the solid is (d) sodium ion to (e) chloride ion. to what temperature will 8800 jj of heat raise 2.5 kg of water that is initially at 20.0 cc ? the specific heat of water is 4186 j/kgcj/kgc which food is the most likely source of the infection? which food is the most likely source of the infection? turkey sprouts tomato avocado consider the correlation between heights of fathers and mothers and the heights of their sons. refer to the accompanying technology output. should the multiple regression equation be used for predicting the height of a son based on the height of his father and mother? why or why not? Stock in Cheezy-Poofs Manufacturing is currently priced at $65 per share. A call option with a $65 strike and 90 days to maturity is quoted at $3.25. Compare the percentage gains and losses from a $21,125 investment in the stock versus the option in 90 days for stock prices of $55, $65, and $75. (Do not round intermediate calculations. Enter your answer as a percent rounded to 2 decimal places. Leave no cells blank - be certain to enter "0" and select "None" wherever required. Input all amounts as positive values. Omit the "%" sign in your response.)Options % Gain/LossStock % Gain/Loss$55$65$75 he ability to decode a new, previously unknown printed word, in or out of context, depends on (select all that apply): a. knowledge of phoneme-grapheme correspondences. b. knowing its part of speech. c. the ability to blend phonemes and graphemes quickly. d. previous knowledge of sight words. three pendulums all have the same arm length, and they all start their downward swings from the same height. the first pendulum has a mass of 67 g. the second pendulum has a mass of 1.5 kg. the final pendulum has a mass of 3.3 kg. assuming that the effects of air drag are negligible, which pendulum attains the highest speed? which of the following is not a part of inspiration? group of answer choices the pressure in the lungs increases. the rib cage moves up and out. the diaphragm contracts and moves down. the intercostal muscles pull the ribs outward. air rushes into the lungs. Identify the likely applications of the broken windows theory of social deviance. self-blaming attributions are most likely to be associated with a obsessive-compulsive disorder. b phobias. c depression. d schizophrenia. e personality disorders. If the cyclist wanted to travel at a speed of v2 = 3. 5 m/s, how much time, in seconds, should elapse as the pedal makes one complete revolution?. Assume Durango Co. has sales of $100,000 for the month of November. The company expects sales to grow 10% each month. Durango Co. collects 60% of sales in the month of sale and 40% in the month after sale. What should Durango Co. project for cash collections in December? The admission fee to play virtual reality is $12. It cost an additional x dollar to rent virtual reality equipment to play in the games. The total cost for 8 people to play virtual reality with equipment is $400. How much will it cost for one person to rent virtual reality equipment? A Congressperson who acts according to their own beliefs and conscience and whatthey see as the broad interests of society is known as?A TrusteeB LegislatorC DelegateD Partisan