8-33. Bar abc has a rectangular cross section of 300 mm by 100 mm. Attached rod db has a diameter of 20 mm. Determine the slope at a due to the loading. Consider only the effect of bending in abc, and axial force in db. E-200 gpa. D. O300 mm 20 kn 100 mm.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer: the answer is in the photo

Explanation:

8-33. Bar Abc Has A Rectangular Cross Section Of 300 Mm By 100 Mm. Attached Rod Db Has A Diameter Of
8-33. Bar Abc Has A Rectangular Cross Section Of 300 Mm By 100 Mm. Attached Rod Db Has A Diameter Of

Related Questions

the farmer wants to install a well to supply water for crop irrigation. where should the well be installed to ensure that the contaminant plume never reverses direction and intersects the home water supply well?

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The distance between the well and the home's water supply well should be at least 500 to 1000 feet.

Irrigation – what is it?

The technique of artificially supplying water to crops to meet their needs is known as irrigation. Irrigation is another method of supplying nutrients to the crops. Wells, ponds, lakes, canals, tube-wells, and even dams are some of the several water sources used for irrigation. For germination, growth, and other related processes, irrigation provides the moisture needed. For different crops as well as varying based on the types of soils and seasons, irrigation frequency, pace, amount, and timing must be considered.

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we want to replace a 119 mw coal-fired power plant with a geothermal power plant. the geothermal recovery rate at the location is 5.6 w/m2 and we can assume that the geothermal plant runs at 100% capacity with a 17% total conversion efficiency. how much area (at a minimum) does the geothermal plant need to extend pipes to achieve 119 mw production?

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Area the geothermal plant need to extend pipes to achieve 119 mw production is 99.1926 km²

What is a geothermal plant?

Electrical energy derived from geothermal energy is known as geothermal power. Dry steam, flash steam, and binary cycle power plants are among the technologies currently in use. Currently, 26 countries use geothermal energy for the production of electricity, and 70 countries use it for heating.

In 2019, there were 15.4 gigawatts (GW) of geothermal power installed in the world, with 3.68 GW, or 23.9 percent, installed in the United States. Global geothermal power capacity is anticipated to reach 14.5–17.6 GW by 2020, with international markets expanding at an average annual rate of 5% over the three years leading up to 2015.

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g determine the transfer function of the system (b) determine the modal form of the system (c) find the transfer function of the system from its modal form. is it the same as the one you found in (a)?

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If you rotate a sample with two strain gauges attached to it by 90 degrees and apply a point load, you should expect to see a change in the readings on the strain gauges. When a load is applied to a material, it will cause the material to deform, which can be measured using strain gauges. In this case, the rotation of the sample would change the orientation of the strain gauges relative to the applied load, which would affect the readings.

A strain gauge is a device that is used to measure the strain or deformation of a material. It consists of a thin strip of conductive material, such as a metallic foil, which is attached to the surface of the material. When the material is subjected to a load, the strain gauge will experience a change in electrical resistance, which can be measured using a meter or other device. This change in resistance is proportional to the strain on the material, and can be used to calculate the amount of deformation that has occurred. Strain gauges are commonly used in engineering and materials science to measure the response of materials to different loads and conditions.

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An air-conditioning system is used to maintain a house at a constant temperature of 20 °C. The house is gaining heat from outdoors at a rate of 20000 kJ/h, and the heat generated in the house from the people, lights, and appliances amounts to 8000 kJ/h. For a COP of 2.5, determine the required power input to this air-conditioning system.

Answers

The required power input to this air-conditioning system is 3.11kW

How to solve for the  required power input

We would have to calculate the cooling load of the airconditioner first

This is given as

Q outdoors + Q house

In the question

Q outdoors = 20000

Q house = 8000 kJ/h

Cooling load = 20000 kJ/h + 8000 kJ/h

= 28000 kJ/h

Next we have to solve for the power input into the house

28000 / 2.5

= 11200 kJ/h

11200 kJ/h ÷ 1 / 3600

= 3.11kW

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Entrapment and transfer of hear from the sun to a building without use of machinery
passive solar system

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Solar system that is active. a device that stores solar energy as heat energy and transports it somewhere else through mechanical means.

What is a system that stores solar energy as heat energy and uses machinery to transport it?Solar system that is active. a device that stores solar energy as heat energy and transports it somewhere else through mechanical means.Renewable energy is created by natural processes that are constantly renewed.This includes the sun, geothermal heat, wind, tides, water, and other biomasses. This energy is endlessly replenished.The term "renewable" is typically used to describe energy sources and technological advancements that share the trait of being naturally replenishable or non-depletable.  

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what is the driving force for flow in an open channel? how is the flow rate in an open channel established?

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Gravity acts as the primary factor causing flow in an open channel. An open channel's flow rate is determined. Open-channel flow is implied by flow in a channel that is open to the atmosphere.

What controls the flow in an open channel?

On the other hand, in an open channel flow, the flowing liquid has a free surface at atmospheric pressure and is propelled by gravity.

What determines the flow rate in an open channel?

The standard technique is to construct a weir or flume across the flow, monitor the flow velocity, and using a radar or ultrasonic level sensor, measure the height of the liquid just before the weir or flume. This measured height can subsequently be used to compute the volume flow rate.

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Hole filling fasteners (for example, MS20470 rivets) should not be used in composite structures primarily because of the
A. Possibility of causing delamination
B. Difficulty in forming a proper shop head.
C. Increased possibility of fretting corrosion in the fastener

Answers

Option c is correct. Hole filling fasteners (for example, MS20470 rivets) should not be used in composite structures primarily because of the  increased possibility of fretting corrosion in the fastener.

Fretting corrosion is the outcome of simultaneous physicochemical and mechanical surface interaction in a tribological contact, and it is the irreversible change of a material. A specific load and cyclic displacement with a limited amplitude must be applied to the contact between the surfaces of two materials for fretting corrosion to take place.

Small gaps develop between the surfaces in contact as a result of cyclic tension. Either material is lost or cracks start to appear as a result. Fretting corrosion's side effect of contact corrosion almost always causes a blockage because the lack of functional movement makes it impossible to remove debris. When debris is still trapped, there is blockage because the oxide takes up more space than the original material.

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which type of furnace can operate to produce either full heat output or produce at a fixed level that is less than full heat?

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A two-stage furnace can run at a predetermined output level that is either less than full heat or at maximum heat output.

What kinds of furnaces have AFUE ratings over 90% and are considered high efficiency?

Condensing furnaces are those that run with an AFUE of greater than 90%. This indicates that the furnace turns escaping water vapour back into energy and heat by condensing them. The furnace is therefore more effective than a noncondensing furnace.

What two factors affect the efficiency of a furnace and a boiler?

The ability of a burner to burn fuel is indicated by the boiler's combustion efficiency. The amount of unburned fuel in the exhaust and the amount of extra oxygen in the exhaust are the two factors that influence the burner efficiency.

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the engine in problem 9-7 operating at 2500 rpm has an indicated thermal efficiency of 61%, combustion efficiency of 98%, and mechanical efficiency of 71%. calculate: (a) brake specific fuel consumption. [gm/kw-hr] (b) specific emissions of soot particulates. [gm/kw-hr] (c) emissions index of soot particulates. [gm/kg]

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The engine operating at 2500 rpm has an indicated thermal efficiency of 61%, combustion efficiency of 98%, and mechanical efficiency of 71%, then its:

a) Brake specific fuel consumption is 0.0445 kg/hr

b) Specific emissions of soot particulates is 0.42 kW

c) Emissions index of soot particulates is 3.79 × 10¹⁵

What is mechanical efficiency?

Mechanical efficiency is a dimensionless number in mechanical engineering that quantifies how well a machine or mechanism converts the power input into the device's output. A machine is a mechanical linkage that uses applied force to move a load from one point to another.

A machine's power input is always equal to its input force times the velocity of its input point, and its power output is always equal to the force applied to its load times the velocity of the load.

The mechanical efficiency of a machine is a dimensionless number between 0 and 1 that measures the relationship between the machine's power output and power input. It is frequently represented by the Greek letter 'η'.

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a neural network using a perceptron to distinguish between apples and oranges, based on three sensor measurements (shape, texture and weight). now you are to design a perceptron to distinguish between bananas and pineapples:

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Neural networks are a set of algorithms that simulate how an animal brain works in order to find connections among enormous amounts of data.

A neural network is a collection of algorithms that aims to identify underlying links in a set of data using a method that imitates how the human brain functions. In this context, neural networks are systems of neurons that can be either organic or synthetic in origin.

Since neural networks are capable of adapting to changing input, they can produce the best results without having to change the output criteria. The artificial intelligence-based concept of neural networks is quickly gaining popularity in the design of trading systems.

Neural networks are a set of algorithms that simulate how an animal brain works in order to find connections among enormous amounts of data.

As a result, they frequently resemble the synapses and connections between neurons in the brain.

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question at position 6 a three-phase transformer connection has a delta-connected primary and a wye-connected secondary. the center tap of the wye is used as a neutral conductor. if the line-to-line voltage is 480 v, what is the voltage between any one phase conductor and the neutral conductor?

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207.84 V is the voltage between any one phase conductor and the neutral conductor.

What is phase conductor?

Line conductor that is used in an AC electric circuit as a phase conductor. It transmits electrical energy and is, therefore, a live conductor under normal circumstances. The more accurate term "phase conductor" is not always used, especially in the United States and some other nations. Instead, the phrase "line conductor in AC system" is frequently used.

Phase conductors and neutral conductors are used in electrical installations of buildings to supply power for the AC electrical equipment used in them.

A phase conductor is a current-carrying conductor that is included when calculating the total number of electrical conductors used in a circuit, network, or system of electrical devices.

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identify the number returned by the dequeue operation on the following priority queue. array containing 7 elements: 21, 36, 45, 54, 60, 73, 90. group of answer choices 54 36 21 90

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90 is the number returned by the dequeue operation on the priority queue.

What is meant by priority queue with example?The highest number in a queue with priorities arranged in descending order is given the highest priority. The priority queue, for instance, has six numbers in it:21, 36, 45, 54, 60, 73, 90. . Ascending order is the first order in which you should organize these numbers. According to the updated list:90,73,60,54,45,36.In contrast to a standard queue or stack data structure, a priority queue is an abstract data type in which each element also has a priority assigned to it. In a priority queue, a high-priority element receives service before a low-priority element.90 is the number returned by the dequeue operation on the priority queue.

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Many corporations are now utilizing point of sale to collect customer data. This use of technology to realize efficiencies supports which one of Porter's value chain activities? Human resources Outbound Logistics Operations Marketing & Sales Service

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promoting and selling Which one of Porter's value chain activities is supported by this use of technology to achieve efficiencies.

Describe technology.

Technology is also the specific, repeatable use of knowledge to accomplish meaningful objectives. Technology is another name for the result of such an attempt. The use of technology is pervasive in many aspects of modern life, including science, business, communication, and transportation. Both material tools like machinery or utensils and immaterial ones like software are considered technologies. As a result of countless technological advancements, society has evolved. The stone tool, which was employed during the prehistoric age, is in fact the oldest technology that is currently known. The use of fire came next, which fueled the emergence of the Ice Age.

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two samples are generally sufficient to compare questioned photocopier, printer or fax machine documents to obtain a sufficient representation of a machine's characteristicsTrue or False

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Two samples are generally sufficient to compare questioned photocopier, printer or fax machine documents to obtain a sufficient representation of a machine's characteristics is False.

What are the machine's characteristics?

A machine is made up of an engine, which provides the power, and a transmission, which regulates how this power is used. Power, the result of combining force and motion, is a crucial aspect of a machine.

A machine is a physical system that use power to exert forces, regulate movement, and carry out an action. The phrase is frequently used to describe both natural biological macromolecules, such as molecular machines, and manmade devices, such as those using engines or motors.

Digitizing is the process of scanning an image and turning it into a collection of digital intensity values, or "picture elements," that are then stored in memory.

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water flows past a flat plate that is oriented parallel to the flow with an upstream velocity of 0.5 m/s. determine the approxi- mate location downstream from the leading edge where the bound- ary layer becomes turbulent. what is the boundary layer thickness at this location?

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Along with a flat, smooth plate, the following variables have an impact on the thickness of the boundary layer formation: The fluid's kinematic viscosity affects the thickness of the boundary layer.

As the distance from the leading edge gets less, the boundary layer thickness gets thinner. The narrow region of flow next to a surface known as a boundary layer is the layer in which friction between the fluid and solid surface affects the flow [2]. The theory was founded on certain significant System. In some areas, the viscosity of the fluid in motion cannot be ignored. The thickness of the boundary layer at a distance from the leading edge is discovered to be 5 mm for laminar flow over a flat plate.

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technician a says that crankshaft end play is controlled by the fillet radius of the crankshaft journals. technician b says that the main bearings limit crankshaft end play. who is correct?

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The camshaft moves in the engine block from back to front is referred to as end play. It is also known as how far the camera will "walk."

Only Roller Camshafts are subject to end play. Tapered lobes on flat tappet cams push the camshaft toward the rear of the engine block. Mechanism of the Valve and Gear Train The movement of the crankshaft is synchronized with the movement of the camshaft and the valves using a gear train or valve timing device. A thin calibrated plastic strip serves as a plastic gauge. It can be used to measure gaps and check bearing clearance. It is utilized at locations on crank or connecting rod bearings where a micrometer measurement cannot be made quickly.

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The following tabulated data were gathered from a series of Charpy impact tests on a tempered 4340 steel alloy. Temperature (°C) 0 25 50 75 100 113 125 150 175 200 Impact Energy (J) 105 104 103 97 63 40 34 28 25 24 (a) Plot the data as impact energy versus temperature. (Hint: use engineering paper for the graph) (b) Determine a ductile-to-brittle transition temperature as the temperature corresponding to the average of the maximum and minimum impact energies. (c) Determine a ductile-to-brittle transition temperature as the temperature at which the impact energy is 50J

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To establish the temperature at which the transition from ductile to brittle occurs as being 80J. Another answer is 65 J.

To calculate the transition temperature from deductile to brittle that corresponds to the average of the maximum and least impact energy.

Standard = 124J + 6J / 2 = 65J

According to this criterion, the ductile-to-brittle transition temperature is approximately -105°C, as seen on the plot by the single set of dashed lines.

to establish the temperature at which the transition from ductile to brittle occurs as being 80J.

Additionally, the ductile-to-brittle transition temperature for an impact energy of 80 J is approximately -95°C, as shown on the plot by the other set of dashed lines.

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ote: this is a multi-part question. once an answer is submitted, you will be unable to return to this part.consider the given figure. knowing that the radius of each pulley is 200 mm, p

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The calculated torque is 91.55 KN-mm. Yes, the radius of the pulley has an effect on the belt tensions.

For a given frictional torque at the axle, the tension difference between the pull side and the load side is smaller because a larger radius produces a greater moment.

Each pulley's radius is 50 mm;

R1 = R2 = 50 mm.

R1 = 50 mm for the driver's radius

50mm for the radius of the driven,

1800 for the angle of contact (in radians), and

0.3 for the coefficient of friction. T1 = 3KN of permissible stresses Always, T1 is bigger than T2.

Utilizing the formula T1/T2 = e After adding together all the values,

T2 = 1.169KN and 3/T2 = e(0.3)().

Because both pulleys' radiuses are the same, they both experience the same amount of torque (T1–T2). R1

= (T1–T2) (T1–T2). R2

When we add up everything,

(3 - 1.169) X 50

= 91.55 KN-mm.

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what electronic component is generally used to change the ac voltage into dc voltage in large dc motor controllers?

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SCR because it can be controlled with reference to the point in the cycle at which it will turn on.

several project managers at area 51 are impressed with your recent efforts that successfully characterized the static stability and trim characteristics of the blackstar configuration. your understanding of the fundamentals related to static concepts are clearly quite strong. as such, you are being now tasked on a new project to assist with dynamic concepts of another next-generation aircraft.

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If a first order system's characteristic value, 8, is smaller than zero, we may say that it is dynamically stable. Rolling convergence is the term used to describe the motion, which is a damped roll rate.

Explain the aircraft dynamic modes ?Two parameters can be used to define oscillating motions: the duration of one full oscillation and the duration needed to damp to half-amplitude, or the duration needed to double the amplitude for a dynamically unstable motion. A long-period oscillation known as a phugoid mode and a short-period oscillation known as the short-period mode make up the two different oscillations that make up the longitudinal motion.The "phugoid mode," which has a longer period, is characterised by large amplitude variations in air speed, pitch angle, and altitude but almost no variations in angle of attack.As the aircraft tries to return to the equilibrium level-flight condition from which it had been disturbed, the phugoid oscillation is a slow exchange of kinetic energy (velocity) and potential energy (height) around some equilibrium energy level.

Find the attachment answer

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prob 3 knief 6-6) based on the 0.025-ev cross sections and the decay constants in fig. 2-16 and a thermal-neutron flux of 5 x 1013 /cm2s: (4 points total) a. estimate the fractional depletion of 235u during 1 year of operation. b. estimate the fraction of 238u that would be converted to 239u in 1 year. c. calculate the instantaneous decay and neutron absorption rates for 239u nuclei and determine their fraction of the combined loss rate. d. repeat (c) for 239np. e. estimate the fraction of 238u absorptions that result in the production of 239pu.

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A radioactive nuclide's decay constant (symbol: and units: s1 or a1) is its probability of decay per unit time. As a result, the number of parent nuclides P decreases with time t, as dP/P dt = −λ.

What is Radioactivity?

Radioactivity, as the name implies, is the act of emitting radiation spontaneously. This is accomplished by an atomic nucleus that is unstable for some reason; it "wants" to give up some energy in order to shift to a more stable configuration.

Much of modern physics was devoted to understanding why this happens during the first half of the twentieth century, with the result that nuclear decay was fairly well understood by 1960. When a nucleus has too many neutrons, it emits a negative beta particle, which converts one of the neutrons into a proton.

When there are too many protons in a nucleus, it emits a positron (positively charged electron), converting a proton into a neutron. When a nucleus has too much energy, it emits a gamma ray, which discards a large amount of energy without changing any of the particles in the nucleus. When a nucleus has too much mass, it emits an alpha particle, discarding four heavy particles (two protons and two neutrons).

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qam (quadrature amplitude modulation) uses phase and amplitude to indicate different signals so that multiple bits can be sent in a clock cycle. more generally, there is a relationship between the number of bits per second (bps) and the number of different signal combinations (states) and the baud rate (signal changes per second). if i want a data rate of 30,000 bps and the baud rate is 10,000 how many states do i need.

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8 states are required to achieve a data rate of 30,000 bps and a baud rate of 10,000.

How do clock cycles work?

Your CPU's clock speed, expressed in GHz, tracks how many cycles it completes each second (gigahertz). Technically speaking, a "cycle" is a pulse timed by an internal oscillator, however for our purposes, they serve as a foundational measure of a CPU's speed. The CPU contains billions of transistors that open and close during each cycle. In certain circumstances, one instruction may be processed over several clock cycles, whereas in other cases, numerous instructions may be finished in a single cycle.

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isotropic point sources each emitting s neutrons/sec are placed in an infinite moderator at the four comers of a square of side a. compute the flux and current at the midpoint of any side of the square and at its center.

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Add the two numbers together and divide by two to determine the middle of any range. In this case, 0 + 5 equals 5, 5 / 2 equals 2.5.

A line segment's exact midpoint is the point that lies halfway between its two endpoints. It is therefore the average of the two endpoints, which is the average of the two x- and y-coordinates. Discover the endpoints' coordinates. As a result, the electric field along OB at midpoint O is 5.4 106 N C1. (b) At mid-point O, a test charge in the amount of 1.5 109 C is positioned. Line OA is the direction of the force. This is due to the fact that the charge applied at point B repels the negative test charge whereas point A attracts it.

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the shear strength of each of ten test spot welds is determined, yielding the following data (psi): 392 376 401 367 389 362 409 415 358 375 a. assuming that shear strength is normally distributed, estimate the true average shear strength and standard deviation of shear strength using the method of maximum likelihood. b. again assuming a normal distribution, estimate the strength value below which 95% of all welds will have their strengths. [hint: what is the 95th percentile in terms of m and s? now use the invariance principle.] c. suppose we decide to examine another test spot weld. let x 5 shear strength of the weld. use the given data to obtain the mle of p(x

Answers

(a) The sample mean is calculated as 382.3 psi and sample standard deviation is calculated as 19.76 psi.

(b) The 95th percentile is calculated as 414.80 psi that is below 414.80 psi, the 95% of all the welds have their strengths.

(c) There are 81.5% chances that the shear strength of the welds is less than or equal to 400 psi.

What is standard deviation?

A statistic known as the standard deviation, which is calculated as the square root of variance, gauges a dataset's dispersion from its mean. By figuring out how far off from the mean each data point is, the standard deviation can be calculated as the square root of variance.

A higher deviation exists within a data set if the data points are further from the mean; consequently, the higher the standard deviation, the more dispersed the data.

By comparing the annual rate of return of an investment to the standard deviation, a statistical measurement used in finance, one can learn more about the historical volatility of that investment.

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the principle that the rate of corrosion is controlled by one of two reduction mechanisms is referred to as

Answers

Answer:

1) Metal type

2) Protective coatings

3) Environmental measures

4) Sacrificial coating

5) Corrosion inhibitor

6) Design modification

what type of truss is constructed of wood or metal and is generally used to support flat roofs and floor assemblies?

Answers

The parallel chord truss is constructed of wood or metal and is generally used to support flat roofs and floor assemblies.

What is The parallel chord truss?In contrast to the majority of other timber frame trusses, a parallel chord truss is not triangular in shape. They are rectangular in shape, with intermediate components known as webs strengthening and separating the top and bottom chords (the long, straight truss parts).Although they are commonly employed as floor joists, parallel chord trusses with diagonal bracing can also be used as rafters in sloped roofs.Most frequently waterproof, felt or underlayment is also sometimes referred to as tar paper. It is sprayed on top of the decking to provide an additional layer of protection from the outdoors and water underneath the shingles.

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p5.7 during a test, the four-cycle, 15.649 l (955 in3) engine in a large tractor consumes 73 l/h (19.3 gal/h) of diesel fuel while running at 2100 r/min (rpm) and producing 1160 nm (856 lb-ft) of torque. the imep during the test is 1110 kpa (161 psi). the fuel density is 0.835 kg/l (7.0 lb/gal), and its heating value is 45,434 kj/kg (19,533 btu/lb). calculate:

Answers

During a test, the four-cycle FEP=1051.44 hp, IP=407.43 HP and brake power BP= 342.26 hr

Given : Displacemen Volume Vs = 955 in³

density S: 7 lbigat

ΔV = volumetric fuel consumption = 19.3 gal/h

N = 2100 pm

Ti ( Torque ) = 856 lb-it

Calorific value ( C . V ) = 19 ,533 BTU /lb

( After cut off ) 7F = 163 lb- ft .

Fuel consumption ( mf ) = δx ΔV

= 7 x 19 .3

mf = 135 . 1 lb/ br

Now Brake power :

BP = TixN/5252(hp )

B. P =

85 6X 2100/5252

= 342 . 26 hp

B . P = 342 . 26 hp

Now Fuel equivalent power

fEr :my x C . V

135. 1 ( eb / hr ) x 19, 533 ( BTU/ RD )

135. 1 X19533/60 x 41.83

FEP

= 1051.44 hp

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he gas storage tank has a longitudinal welded seam on its cylindrical section. the tank has an inner diameter of 1.40 m and a wall thickness of 5.0 mm. determine the magnitude of normal stress on the horizontal weld if the internal tank pressure is 1.2 mpa.

Answers

The magnitude of Normal stress on the weld  = 168 MPa, if the internal tank pressure is 1.2 mpa.

What is stress?

Stress is defined as a force per unit area within a material that results from externally applied forces, uneven heating, or permanent deformation and that enables an accurate description and prediction of elastic, plastic, and fluid behavior in physical sciences and engineering. By dividing a force by an area, a stress is expressed.

Shear stress is caused by forces that are parallel to and lie in the plane of a cross-sectional area of the material, as opposed to normal stress, which is caused by forces that are perpendicular to the area. Tensile stress is the name given to the specific type of normal stress that arises from tension.

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water emerges from under a gate into a trapezoidal, concrete channel. the gate opening is 0.55m, and the flow rate is 12.6 m3/s. the entry channel has a 1.5m bottom width, side slopes of 1:1 (h:v), and a bottom slope of 0.015. determine the channel and flow classification (e.g., m-1, s-2) and explain your supporting logic.

Answers

The channels and flow classification is M-1, S-2.

M-1 stands for "Minor Stream", which is a small stream with a low amount of flow. S-2 stands for "Secondary Stream", which is a medium-sized stream with moderate flow.

Channel Classification: M-1

Flow Classification: S-2

Supporting Logic:

The channel is trapezoidal with a bottom width of 1.5m, side slopes of 1:1 (h:v), and a bottom slope of 0.015, which is considered to be a wide, shallow channel. This would classify the channel as an M-1 channel.

The flow rate of 12.6 m3/s is considered to be an S-2 flow, which is a moderate flow.

Therefore, the channel and flow classification is M-1, S-2.

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sediment transported on top of a glacier is being transported , whereas sediment being transported within the glacier is being transported

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Supraglacially - Sediment is transported on top of the glacier. Subglacially - Sediment is transported at the base of the glacier.

How do glaciers move sediments?Deformed glacier beds can also move a lot of sediment, especially in marginal areas. By regelation into subglacial materials and by freeze-on from rising supercooled waters, rapid sediment entrainment that results in thick debris-rich basal zones is possible.Similar to a river, water running down the glacier's base carries and deposits detritus. The movement of a meltwater stream beneath the ice creates an esker, which is a sinuous ridge comprised of sediment.Through the process of erosion, sediment is transferred from one location to another. The removal and transportation of rock or soil is erosion. Sediment can be transported by erosion through water, ice, or wind. Water can carry debris from a creek, like gravel or stones, into a body of water.

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