6th grade math help me please :))

Answer:

As per the properties of parallel lines and interior alternate angles postulate, we can prove that:

[tex]m\angle 5+m\angle 2+m\angle 6=180^\circ[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Line y || z

i.e. y is parallel to z.

To Prove:

[tex]m\angle 5+m\angle 2+m\angle 6=180^\circ[/tex]

Solution:

It is given that the lines y and z are parallel to each other.

[tex]m\angle 5, m\angle 1[/tex] are interior alternate angles because lines y and z are parallel and one line AC cuts them.

So, [tex]m\angle 5= m\angle 1[/tex] ..... (1)

Similarly,

[tex]m\angle 6, m\angle 3[/tex] are interior alternate angles because lines y and z are parallel and one line AB cuts them.

So, [tex]m\angle 6= m\angle 3[/tex] ...... (2)

Now, we know that the line y is a straight line and A is one point on it.

Sum of all the angles on one side of a line on a point is always equal to [tex]180^\circ[/tex].

i.e.

[tex]m\angle 1+m\angle 2+m\angle 3=180^\circ[/tex]

Using equations (1) and (2):

We can see that:

[tex]m\angle 5+m\angle 2+m\angle 6=180^\circ[/tex]

Hence proved.

Answer: yes

Step-by-step explanation: yes

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

  281,000 homes sold through Jan 2011 was 66.3% of homes completed

  378,000 homes was a 28.5% decrease from starts in 2010

Find:

  (i) Homes completed in 12 months through Jan 2011

  (ii) Comparison to homes started in 2010

Solution:

(i) Using the given relation, we can find homes completed through Jan 2011.

  281,000 = 0.663×completed

  completed = 281,000/0.663 = 423,831

__

(ii) Similarly, we can find the number of 2010 starts:

  starts(1 -28.5%) = 378,000

  starts = 378,000/0.715 = 528,671

The relation of completions in 2011 to starts in 2010 is ...

  423,831 -528,671 = -104,840

__

Through Jan 2011, there were 423,831 homes completed, which was 104,840 fewer than the number of starts in 2010.

_____

Comment on your question

Your problem statement supplies the answer to the first question in 2(c). Part 1(b) tells you the relation between starts in 2011 and in 2010, so you can easily figure starts in 2010 from your answer to that question.

Answer:

The answer is below

Step-by-step explanation:

They would be written like this:

Arithmetic Progression:

Explicit formula

Tn = a + (n-1) * d

Recursive formula

Tn = Tn-1 + d

Where a is the first term, d is the common differance and n is the number of terms.

Geometric Progression:

Explicit formula

Tn = a * r ^ (n-1)

Recursive formula

Tn = Tn-1 * r

Where r is common ratio

Answer:

Millennium Dairy Product

a) Share of the company that SBI Caps should require today to get a required rate of return of 50%.

= 50%

b) If the company had 1,000,000 (100,000 x10) shares outstanding before the private placement, SBI Caps should purchase

1,000,000 shares = 50% of (1,000,000 + 1,000,000) shares

Assuming the founding promoters are not giving up their shares, instead, new equity shares are being issued.

c) The price per share SBI Caps should agree to pay, if her required return was 50% is

Rs.50 per share, which will provide the required additional equity financing of (Rs.50 million) since Rs.50 x 1,000,000 equals Rs.50 million.

d) Pre money and post money valuations:

These are based on the calculated Market Price of Rs.1,000 per share from the Price/Earnings Ratio.

Pre money valuation will be Rs.1,000 x 1,000,000 shares = Rs.1 billion

Post money valuation will be Rs.1,000 x 2,000,000 shares = Rs.2 billion

e) Carried interests of the VC and the promoters

VC's carried interest = share of profits = 50% xRs.50 million = Rs.25 million

Promoters' carried interest = Rs.25 million

Step-by-step explanation:

a) Calculation of share in the company:

SBI Cap's required rate of return is 50%

If she invests Rs.50 million today, her expected return will be equal to Rs.50 million x 50% = Rs.25 million

Since rate of return = Net Income/Initial Investment or (Current value of investment - Initial Investment)/Initial Investment.

This return will be equal to 50% of the total net income of Rs.50 million

b) Price/Earnings P/E ratio = Market price per share/Earnings per share (EPS)

Since P/E ratio of similar companies = 20 times,

The company's P/E = 20 times x EPS

With calculated EPS = Rs.50 million /1,000,000 = Rs.50

Therefore, price per share = 20 x Rs.50 = Rs.1,000

Pre money valuation = Rs.1,000 x 1 million shares = Rs.1 billion

Post money valuation = Rs.1,000 x 2 million shares = Rs.2 billion

c) The carried interest is the share of profits to which the promoters and the Venture Capitalists are entitled.  Their respective shares are 50% of the net income = Rs.25 million each.

d) The pre money and post money valuations:  The pre money valuation is the valuation of the company before the additional equity financing.  The post money valuation is the valuation of the company after the additional equity financing.  There are many ways to value a company.  In this case, we have used the P/E ratio as a basis for the valuation.  However, we did not dilute the earnings per share post money, for simplicity.

Answer:

f = -14

Step-by-step explanation:

given:

4 − (–5f) = –66

4 + 5f = -66   ( subtract 4 from both sides)

5f = -66 - 4

5f = -70  (divide both sides by 5)

f = (-70) / 5

f = -14

Answer:

The lines will intersect infinitely many times, because they are identical.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's change the equations of the lines into (y=mx+b) form.

6x-4y=2 Divide by 2.

3x-2y=1 Move x and divide by -2.

-2y=1-3x ---> y= -1/2+3/2x

The equation of the first line is y=3/2x- 1/2

-2y+3x=1

-2y=1-3x

y = 3/2x -1/2

The equation of the second line is y = 3/2x- 1/2.

The lines are identical- infinitely many intersections.

Step-by-step explanation:

I think the answer is third because it doesn't has a solution.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is 56.

Answer:

The tree house is 8 feet off the ground, or 96 inches up because (8)(12) = 96. Each knot needs 2 extra inches, so the expression for the length of rope needed is 96 + 2n. If n = 8, then Peter will need 96 + 2(8) = 112 inches of rope.

Step-by-step explanation:

edge

Answer:

GOOGLE :)

equation:

y=mx+b

m= slope (how steep the line is(negative is \ positive is /))

b= y intercept (where it is on the vertical line(up and down line))

step by step

1. locate y intercept and plotthe point

2.from that point use slop to find second point and plot

Answer:

  B)  112°

Step-by-step explanation:

After the double reflection the point is effectively rotated by an amount that is double the angle between the lines of reflection:

  2·56° = 112°

_____

In the attached, lines l and m are separated by 56°, as required by the problem statement.

Answer:

a) -8x^3 + x^2 + 6x

b)16x^2 -9

c) 24x^4 + 37x^3 +13x^2 -18x

Step-by-step explanation:

a) distribute -2x to x and 4x^2 then do the same for the other part and then add the ones w the same exponent.

b) do foil ( multiply first outside inside last) which will be 4x times 4x then 4x times 3 then -3 times 4x and 3 times -3. add like exponents

c) do the same as above

Answer:

1.4 hours

Step-by-step explanation:

you can write a system of equations to find the answer.

80t + 100t = 252

plug it into desmos to find the true value.

it is 1.4

the trains will be 252 miles apart after 1.4 hours.

if this helped, be sure to mark as brainliest :)

Answer:

17+m=34

Step-by-step explanation:

Nina had 17 marbles in a bag + the x amount of marbles that her mom gives her.

so 17+x=34

(x is the variable that I chose however it could be any variable, so it would also mean the same thing as 17+m=34)

Hope this helped!

Answer:

17 + m = 34.

Step-by-step explanation:

Nina had 17 marbles;

Mother put a handful of marbles, let's say m.

Now Nina has 34 marbles.

34 marbles is [=] 17 marbles Nina had before + m from her mother.

17 + m = 34 will be the right equation.

Answer:

monthly income=$900

the monthly income was multipled by 2

so, real income was, $900/2

=$ 450

so, $450×2=$900...

The real income is $400.

The term multiplication refers to the product of two or more than two numbers.

Let us assume that the real income is x.

We have to multiply the real income by 2 to get the monthly income of $900.

This implies that [tex]x\times 2=\$900[/tex],

Solving the above expression, we will get

[tex]x\times 2=\$900\\x=\dfrac{900}{2} \\x=400[/tex]

So, the real income is $400.

Learn more about expression here-https://brainly.com/question/14083225

#SPJ2

The probability of the pumping system failing on any given day is 0.015, or 1.5 percent.

Given data:

To find the probability that the pumping system will fail on any given day,  consider the probabilities of different failure scenarios for the two pumps.

Let's denote the events as follows:

A = Only the older pump fails

B = Only the newer pump fails

P(A) = 0.15 (probability that only the older pump fails)

P(B) = 0.10 (probability that only the newer pump fails)

To find the probability that both pumps fail, which can be denoted as the event A ∩ B.

Since the two pumps fail independently of each other, use the multiplication rule for independent events to calculate the probability of both events occurring:

P(A ∩ B) = P(A) * P(B)

Substituting the given probabilities:

P(A ∩ B) = 0.15 * 0.10

= 0.015

Hence, the probability that the pumping system will fail on any given day (when both pumps fail) is 0.015 or 1.5%.

To learn more about probability, refer:

https://brainly.com/question/17089724

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Answer:

-9

Step-by-step explanation:

1 - 5 (3 + 2 - 3)

1  −  5  ( 5  −  3 )

1 - 5 x 3

1 - 10

-9

Answer:

A= 20x

B= 15n

C= 15x+ 9

D= a + 15

E= 9x + 3y

F= 10w + 10z

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

50

Step-by-step explanation:

42/n³∑k²+12/n²∑k+30/n∑1

=42/n³[n(n+1)(2n+1)/6]+12/n²[n(n+1)/2]+30/n [n]

=7n(n+1)(2n+1)/n³+6n(n+1)/n²+30

=7(n+1)(2n+1)/n²+6(n+1)/n+30

=[7(2n²+3n+1)+6(n²+n)+30n²]/n²

=[14n²+21n+7+6n²+6n+30n²]/n²

=[50n²+27n+7]/n²

=[50+27/n+7/n²]

→50 as n→∞

because 1/n,1/n²→0 as n→∞

Answer:

  B.  50

Step-by-step explanation:

  [tex]\displaystyle S_n=\sum_{k=1}^n{\left(k^2\dfrac{42}{n^3}+k\dfrac{12}{n^2}+\dfrac{30}{n}\right)}\\\\=\dfrac{42}{n^3}\sum_{k=1}^n{k^2}+\dfrac{12}{n^2}\sum_{k=1}^n{k}+\dfrac{30}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n{1}\\\\=\dfrac{42n(n+1)(2n+1)}{6n^3}+\dfrac{12n(n+1)}{2n^2}+\dfrac{30n}{n}\\\\=14+\dfrac{21}{n}+\dfrac{7}{n^2}+6+\dfrac{6}{n}+30=50+\dfrac{27n+7}{n^2}[/tex]

As n gets large, the fraction disappears, so the limit is 50.

Answer:

33.0693394

Step-by-step explanation:

1 klio is 2.20462262,just mulipily by 15.

Answer:

Not reject null hypothesis since the p value is greater than 0.05

Step-by-step explanation:

We have the following:

z = (x ^ -m) / (sd / n ^ (1/2))

Let m be the mean that is 8, sd the standard deviation that is 0.6, n the sample size that is 32 and x the value to evaluate that is 8.2, replacing:

z = (8.2-8) / (0.6 / 32 ^ (1/2)) = 1.89

P (x> 8.2) = P (z> 1.89)  

P (x> 8.2) = 1 - P (z <1.89)

We look for this value in the attached table of z and we have to:

P (x> 215) = 1 - 0.9713 (attached table)

P (x> 215) = 0.0287

since this is a two tailed test, the area of 0.0287 must be doubled the p value

the p value = 0.05794

Therefore, the decision is to not reject null hypothesis since the p value is greater than 0.05

Answer:

A = 1547.52

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of Circle Formula: A = πr²

Simply find r and plug it in:

d = 44.4

r = d/2 = 44.4/2 = 22.2

A = π(22.2)²

A = 1547.52

Answer:

A = 3.13841

Step-by-step explanation:

Circumference: C = 2πr

Area of a Circle: A = πr²

Step 1: Find r using circumference formula

6.28 = 2πr

r = 6.28/2π

r = 0.999493

Step 2: Plug in r in area formula

A = π(0.999493)²

A = 3.13841

Answer:

3.52

Step-by-step explanation:

6.68 = c

6.68/2 = 3.34

3.34/3.14 = 1.06

1.06^2 * 3.14 = 3.52

Answer:

(2, 6)

Step-by-step explanation:

The solution will be where the two lines intersect. From the graph, that point is (2, 6).

Answer:

6.10%

Step-by-step explanation:

For every round since we are choosing with equal probability, then the probability of choosing from either of the bags is 1/2

Here, this scenario is only possible when a particular bag has been chosen 10 times and the other bag has been chosen 6 times ( meaning a particular bag has been emptied and for a particular bag to be emptied, all of its content would have been picked)

Now on the 17th trial, an empty bag is chosen

Therefore the required probability will be;

16C0 * (1/2)^10 * (1/2)^6 * 1/2 = 0.0610 = 6.1%

Answer:

1.5 g/cm³

Step-by-step explanation:

Density is g/cm³.  This means that you have divide the mass by the volume.

(150 g)/(100 cm³) = 1.5 g/cm³

The density of the apple is 1.5 g/cm³.

Answer:

[tex] \boxed{\sf Density = 1.5 g/cm^3} [/tex]

Given:

Mass (m) = 150 g

Volume (V) = 100 cm³

To Find:

Density in g/cm³

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\sf Density = \frac{Mass (m)}{Volume (V)} \\ \\ \sf \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: = \frac{15 \cancel{0}}{10 \cancel{0}} \\ \\ \sf \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: = \frac{15}{10} \\ \\ \sf \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: = 1.5 \: g/cm^3 [/tex]

Answer:

r = 14

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to divide the equation by 13 so that we get just n one one side without any coefficients. Doing so we get r = 182 / 13 = 14.

Answer:

r = 14

Step-by-step explanation:

Well to find r we need to get it by itself and to do that we get rid of 13.

And to get rid of 14 we do 13r/13 and 182/13.

So 13r / 13 is r and 182/13 is 14.

So r = 14.

Answer:

[tex]-x+| \: y\: |[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]-x+|-y|[/tex]

[tex]\mathrm{Apply\:absolute\:rule}: \left|-y\right|\:=| \: y\: |[/tex]

[tex]-x+| \: y\: |[/tex]

Answer:

The answer is 150

Step-by-step explanation:

I think what you mean with the numbers between the "I's" is absolute value. Any number is just that number, so the absolute value of -6, is 6. The absolute value of 24 is 24. That means it's simply 137+13, which is 150.

Answers from top to bottom:

(0,-6)

(-1,0)

(-1,-6)

(0,0)

Explanation:

The rule you use is [tex](x,y) \to (-x,-y)[/tex] when it comes to 180 degree rotations (either clockwise or anticlockwise/counterclockwise). So we flip the signs of the x and y coordinates. Any point on an axis will stay on the same axis. The origin is the intersection of the two axes, so this point does not move at all. We call this point fixed or stationary. The fixed point is one where every point rotates around it.