Answer:
remember the acronym P MAT to remember the phases of mitosis!
Explanation:
1.) Cell prepares for mitosis
2.) Prophase
3.) metaphase
4.) anaphase
5.) DNA replicates
6.) telophase
7.) Cytokinesis
The cell differentiation in G1 phase start with the cell prepares for mitosis.
What is mitosis?Mitosis is defined as when replicated chromosomes are split into two new nuclei during the cell cycle. A cell duplicates all of its parts, including its chromosomes, and then divides into two identical daughter cells. Due to the importance of this procedure, specific genes carefully regulate each phase of mitosis.
A cell in the G1 phase of the cell cycle, the order of the event take place after G1 phase are Cell prepares for mitosis, Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, DNA replicates, telophase and Cytokinesis. The cell cycle should proceed in the following order: G1, S, G2, M, and maybe an escape into G0. The first gap, or G1, is when the cell grows and performs its function in the body.
Thus, the cell differentiation in G1 phase start with the cell prepares for mitosis.
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Which one of the following aquatic plants grows completely submerged in water?a. water lily
b. lotus
c. water hyacinth
d. hydrilla
The aquatic plants that grows completely submerged in water is d. Hydrilla.
Hydrilla is a genus of aquatic plants that includes only one species, Hydrilla verticillata, though some botanists divide it into several. Hydrilla is an aquatic weed that forms large mats that can completely cover a pond. Diquat Herbicide has proven to be the most effective against Hydrilla, killing growths quickly.
Hydrilla outcompetes native submerged aquatic vegetation and can quickly fill a pond or lake, preventing boating, fishing, swimming, and other recreational activities from taking place. Despite being non-native and invasive, it provides high-quality habitat for fish and shellfish, as well as benefits to water quality.
It can tolerate lower light levels than most aquatic plant species, allowing it to start photosynthesizing earlier in the morning, giving it a competitive advantage. It spreads quickly through tubers and turions. Because there are no native predators that eat hydrilla, its growth is unabated.
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what is the function of myoglobin in muscle cells? group of answer choices stores atp breaks down glucose stores oxygen stores glucose
Myoglobin is a protein that stores oxygen in muscle cells. Thus the correct answer is option (C).
Your striated muscles, which include your cardiac muscles and skeletal muscles (the muscles linked to your bones and tendons), contain the protein known as myoglobin. Its primary job is to give your muscles' cells oxygen (myocytes).
Your body's cells require oxygen to function. They transform the stored energy using oxygen. Due to their regular use, your cardiac muscles and skeletal muscles need a lot of oxygen and energy.
Myoglobin is mostly located in your striated muscles (the kinds of muscles you consciously move, such as your arm and leg muscles). Myoglobin only moves into your blood when your muscles are damaged.
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With the Bohr effect, more oxygen is released because a(n) ________.
a. decrease in pH (acidosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond
b. decrease in pH (acidosis) strengthens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond
c. increase in pH (alkalosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond
d. increase in pH (alkalosis) strengthens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond
The correct option is Option a.
With the Bohr effect, more oxygen is released because: a decrease in pH (acidosis) weakens the hemoglobin-oxygen bond.
What is the Bohr Effect?The Bohr effect causes the muscles and tissues to release more oxygen when CO2 levels rise. This helps deliver oxygen to metabolizing tissue such as skeletal muscle, where it is needed most.
The Bohr effect is a result of the effect carbon dioxide has on hemoglobins affinity for oxygen.
As carbon dioxide increases, it combines with water to form carbonic acid. This increase in acid lowers the pH. The lowered pH then decreases hemoglobins affinity for oxygen, meaning hemoglobin lets go of oxygen more easily. As a result, more oxygen is released to the muscles and tissues that need it most.
Conversely, decreases in carbon dioxide will increase hemoglobins affinity for oxygen, meaning hemoglobin is less likely to release oxygen. Thus, the relationship between CO2 and hemoglobins affinity for oxygen can be described as an inverse relationship meaning when one goes one way, the other goes the other way.
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the kidneys excrete metabolic wastes, including urea, a by-product of glucose metabolism. group of answer choices true false
The kidneys eliminate metabolic wastes such as urea, which is a byproduct of glucose metabolism false: Urea is a waste product of amino acid metabolism.
Metabolic wastes are the byproducts of metabolic activities that the organism cannot utilize. Amino acid is not a metabolic waste because it is a nutrition that the organism uses.
With the exception of CO2, which is expelled together with water vapor through the lungs, all metabolic wastes are eliminated as water solutes through the excretory organs (nephridia, Malpighian tubules, kidneys).
The human urinary system consists of the kidneys, ureter, urinary bladder, and urethra, which work together to excrete pee. The kidney is an important organ that aids in the transport of nitrogenous wastes to the urinary tract.
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production of offspring by parthenogenesis or cloning bypasses the typical meiotic process. describe either parthenogenesis or cloning and compare the genomes of the offspring with those of the parents.
Cloning is the technique of creating a cell or creature that is genetically identical to the original.
It is a hotly debated subject that affects both researchers and the general public. The regular meiotic process is avoided throughout the cloning process. The polymerase chain reaction is a method for replicating sections of parental DNA (PCR). The embryo created from this DNA can subsequently be implanted into a uterus to develop and flourish. Since the purpose of cloning is to create an identical replica rather than one with genetic variation, meiosis does not take place in this situation.
A female gamete (rarely a male) develops without fertilization as part of the parthenogenic reproductive strategy. It can occur in plants, mammals, and higher vertebrates but not in invertebrates.
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which of the following are radiographic evidence of beriberi? group of answer choices enlarged heart. thin bone cortices. hyperlucent lungs. sclerotic bands near metaphysis.
When air becomes trapped in the lungs, it overinflates them, resulting in hyperinflated lungs.
Can hyperinflated lungs be dangerous?The fact that patient symptoms improved after lung volume reduction surgery is evidence that hyperinflated lungs can have considerable negative consequences on breathing. When compared to airflow measurements, measurements of lung volume show a stronger correlation with the patient's functional limitations.
How can inflated lungs be diminished?Increasing airflow during expiration or slowing down breathing to extend the time for expiration can both help to prevent dynamic hyperinflation. For faster airflow during expiration, bronchodilators and heliox reduce airflow resistance.
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helpppppppppp meeeeeeeeee
helpppppppppppop meeeeeeeeee
pleaseeeeeeeeeeeee
helpppppppp meeee
asappppppp asapppppp
Answer:
1. C
2. D
3. C
Explanation:
some tumors of the adrenal cortex secrete excess aldosterone. paralysis may occur because aldosterone stimulates renal secretion of potassium ions, which may result in a potassium deficiency called
Some adrenal cortex tumors secrete too much aldosterone. Aldosterone promotes renal potassium ion secretion, which may produce paralysis and a potassium deficit known as hypokalemia.
Hypokalemia describes low potassium levels in the blood. Potassium is necessary for your body to function properly. The foods you eat provide potassium for your body. When you vomit, have diarrhea, or use laxatives frequently, your digestive system loses a lot of potassium, which can lead to hypokalemia.
Hypokalemia, often known as potassium deficiency, is a condition when a person's body does not get enough potassium. Poor diet or loss from vomiting or diarrhea may be to blame. Medical issues like high blood pressure, constipation, muscle weakness, and exhaustion can be brought on by a potassium deficit.
Electrolyte imbalances are frequently caused by hypokalemia, especially in hospitalized patients. There are numerous potential causes, including endocrine ones. Hypokalemia occasionally necessitates immediate medical care.
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the results of the subject's blood tests showed elevated levels of lactate, pyruvate, and lactate dehydrogenase. describe the most likely explanation of these test results by completing the passage. decreased activity of one or more subunits of directly causes to accumulate. the accumulation of this metabolite leads to increased production of which then converts
Decreased activity of one or more subunits of PDH complex (the alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, the PDH complex, lactate dehydrogenase) directly causes Pyruvate (pyruvate, lactate, CO2) to accumulate. The accumulation of this metabolite leads to increased production of lactate dehydrogenase_ (the alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex, the PDH complex, lactate dehydrogenase) which then converts pyruvate to lactate (pyruvate to lactate, lactate to pyruvate, pyruvate to acetyl CoA, alpha-ketoglutarate to succinyl CoA).
What is pyruvate?
The simplest alpha-keto acid is pyruvic acid, which has a carboxylic acid and a ketone functional group. The conjugate base pyruvate, CH3COCOO, is a metabolic intermediary found in many different cell-wide metabolic pathways.
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traditional ecological knowledge and western science the case of the bowhead whale what is science? science is both a set of practices (way of knowing) and the historical accumulation of knowledge (body of knowledge). nearly chegg
Science is both a method for comprehending the natural world and the corpus of information created by several scientists.
The natural environment or natural world includes all living and non-living things that arise spontaneously, or in this case, without the use of science artificial means. The phrase is most often used to refer to Earth or certain areas within it. This environment includes all aspects of how all living things interact, as well as the climate, weather, and natural resources that have an impact on human survival and economic It is possible to divide the natural world into the following parts:complete ecological systems with all the plants, bacteria, soil, rocks, atmosphere, and natural occurrences that occur within their boundaries, as well as a nature that functions naturally.
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a population of individuals about whom an epidemiologist wants to make inferences best describes a: question 1 options:
A population of individuals about whom an epidemiologist wants to make inferences best describes option B: Source population.
In an epidemiological setting, the group about which you would like to draw inferences from what you observe in your sample should be considered the source population. People who can interbreed, have children, and have similar personalities are referred to as the population. An ecosystem contains many different types of species, and each collection of organisms creates a population there.
Epidemiology is the study of the frequency and causes of disease occurrence in various populations. Planning and assessing illness prevention strategies as well as serving as a manual for the treatment of patients in whom disease has already manifested use epidemiological data.
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Comlete question is:
A population of individuals about whom an epidemiologist wants to make inferences best describes:
Target population
Source population
Study population
Affected population
Mutant forms of RAF have also been found to play an important role in cancer. A dominant mutant called RAF-V600E (change of a valine to a glutamate at amino acid position 600) causes RAF to become hyperactive independent of signals from Ras. Drugs that inhibit RAF-V600E cause rapid shrinkage of tumors that express RAF-V600E. Interestingly, treatment of cancer cells with these drugs leads to an increase in Ras activity in the cancer cells.
Which of the following statements best explains this observation?
a. ERK normally phosphorylates the RTK and inhibits its signaling. Inhibition of RAF-V600E decreases ERK activity, which leads to increased RTK signaling.
b. ERK normally phosphorylates and inhibits RAF to restrict the duration of RTK signaling. Therefore, inhibition of ERK leads to increased Ras activity.
c.ERK normally phosphorylates the RTK and stimulates its signaling. Inhibition of RAF-V600E increases RTK signaling, which leads to increased Ras activity.
d. RAF normally phosphorylates the RTK and stimulates its signaling. Inhibition of RAF-V600E therefore increases RTK signaling and increases Ras activity.
a) ERK normally phosphorylates the RTK and inhibits its signaling. Inhibition of RAF-V600E decreases ERK activity, which leads to increased RTK signaling play an important role in cancer.
The traditional RAS-RAF-MEK-ERK signaling pathway is preserved in mammals, and the mitogen-activated protein kinase (MAPK) signaling pathway is crucial for cellular biological processes. ARAF, BRAF, and CRAF are three members of the RAF family that bind to RAS, which acts as the upstream activator, and mediate the MAPK signaling transduction to MEK. With the aid of extracellular signals, RAS.GDP (inactive) is converted to RAS.GTP (active), which then initiates a number of downstream cascades, including the RAF/MEK/ERK pathway, to transmit the signal. Thirty percent of human cancers, such as melanoma, breast cancer, ovarian cancer, colon cancer, thyroid cancer, prostate cancer, and others, are linked to the hyperactivation of ERK signaling brought on by mutations in the genes encoding receptor tyrosine kinases, RAS, BRAF, CRAF, MEK1, or MEK2. Furthermore, BRAF and its RAS activator mutations are thought to be the primary cause of this pathway's dysregulation, and RAS mutations are linked to 27% of all human malignancies. It goes without saying that the MAPK pathway is frequently dysregulated in many cancers that harbor RAS mutations, leading to the pathway's constitutive activation, unchecked proliferation, and decreased cellular sensitivity to substances that could initially induce apoptosis.
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Holding all other factors constant, should a 1+, 2+, or 3+ transition metal ion have the largest attraction for ligand electrons?.
The repulsive forces would boost the energy of all the electrons on the metal equally if it were surrounded by a spherical field of electrons (physicists like to imagine things are spherical since it makes the calculation easier).
The magnetic characteristics of metals and metal salts were of interest to both scientists. They were aware that these attributes were connected to unpaired electrons. While compounds with just paired electrons are not attracted by magnetic fields, those with unpaired electrons are. Since the quantity of unpaired electrons depended on how the d electrons were filled, they were interested in the variables that affected the d electron configuration of transition metal salts. These variations affected the strength of the compounds' magnetic field interactions.
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A scientist studying a tissue sample from a sheep under a microscope finds some cells in metaphase II.
Which of the following organ did the tissue sample come from?
The organ the tissue sample was collected from is a reproductive organ such as testes or ovary.
What is metaphase II?Metaphase is a stage of mitosis and meiosis, that follows prophase and comes before anaphase, during which condensed chromosomes become aligned before being separated.
Metaphase occurs once in mitosis but occurs twice in meiosis, which gives it the suffix metaphase I and II.
Meiosis is a kind of cell division of a diploid cell into four haploid cells, which develop to produce gametes. In essence, meiosis is for reproductive purposes solely.
According to this question, a scientist studying a tissue sample from a sheep under a microscope finds some cells in metaphase II. This means that the tissue sample emanated from a reproductive organ.
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a new era of neoadjuvant treatment with pertuzumab: should the 10-lymph node guideline for axillary lymph node dissection in breast cancer be revised?
Neoadjuvant chemotherapy was associated with a significantly lower rate of "adequate" ALNDs as defined by current guidelines. The patient subset that received neoadjuvant pertuzumab was more likely to have fewer than 10 axillary lymph nodes retrieved.
How long is neoadjuvant chemotherapy for breast cancer?
Adjuvant and neoadjuvant chemo is often given for a total of 3 to 6 months, depending on the drugs used. The length of treatment for metastatic (Stage 4) breast cancer depends on how well it is working and what side effects you have.
How effective is neoadjuvant chemotherapy in breast cancer?
A meta-analysis that combined the results of 12 studies found no difference in rates of breast cancer recurrence or overall survival in women who had neoadjuvant chemotherapy versus those who had adjuvant chemotherapy [157].
What is the benefit of neoadjuvant therapy?
Doctors use neoadjuvant chemotherapy before a person's primary cancer treatment. It can shrink tumors, making surgery possible in otherwise inoperable areas. It can also allow doctors to test a chemotherapy drug to gauge how the body responds to it.
Therefore, the 10-lymph node guideline for axillary lymph node dissection in breast cancer has to be revised.
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The results of mitosis allow growth and ______ of worn out or damaged cells.
A. fixing
B. destruction
C. development
D. replacement
A blood platelet drifts along with the flow of blood through an artery that is partially blocked. As the platelet moves from the wide region into the narrow region, the blood pressure:.
A blood platelet drifts along with the flow of blood through an artery that is partially blocked. As the platelet moves from the wide region into the narrow region, the blood pressure: reduces
A blood platelet floats with the blood as it passes through a partially clogged artery. The pressure on platelet reduces as the platelet advances from the large zone to the narrow partially obstructed region.Thermal pressure is the term used in thermodynamics to describe the change in relative pressure that a fluid or solid experiences in response to a change in temperature at a constant volume. It has to deal with the Pressure-Temperature Law, often known as Gay Lusac's Law or Amontons' Law. When heated to a steady pressure, a gas expands, which causes it to cool through expansion. The requirement to add more thermal energy leads to the formula for specific heat at constant pressure: CP = CV + R per mole.
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degeneration of the distal portion of the neural process and the myelin sheath is called this type of degeneration quizlet
Degeneration of the distal portion of the neural process and the myelin sheath is called this type of degeneration quizlet The deterioration of myelin sheath patches, which slows or prevents neuronal message transmission.
A condition known as multiple sclerosis causes degeneration the myelin sheath that surrounds the brain, spinal cord, and optic nerves to deteriorate, impairing nerve impulses and making it difficult to see, hear, speak, feel, or move different parts of the body.As the distal part of the axon and myelin sheath degrades, the proximal section shuts off and enlarges. Internal organelles are transported to the proximal neuron. The term "degeneration " refers to this process.Following Augustus Waller's original nerve transection research, Wallerian degeneration is traditionally described as the degeneration of axons distant to an injury (Waller 1850).When a nerve fibre is severed or crushed, a process called distal axonal degeneration (DAD) occurs when the portion of the axon that was detached from the neuron's cell body degenerates.
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Prehensile tails are:
Question 4 options:
present in catarrhine primates.
present in most primates.
present only in some platyrrhines.
made strictly of muscle.
Howler monkeys (Alouatta), spider monkeys (Ateles), woolly monkeys (Lagorix), capuchin monkeys, and woolly spider monkeys (Brachyteles) are the only primate genera (Figure 1) that have prehensile tails (Cebus).
Are the tails of spider monkeys prehensile?Spider monkeys can swing through the trees thanks to their long, slender arms and hook-like hands. Their thumbs are not opposable. The brown-headed spider monkey may use its prehensile tail as a fifth limb to grasp trees because it can grasp objects.
What number of brown-headed spider monkeys are still present?One of the rarest primates in the world is the brown-headed spider monkey from Ecuador, which is in grave risk of extinction. 250 people are thought to be the species' total global population.
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The right answer is C. Only certain platyrrhines have prehensile tails.
What exactly is really a prehensile tail used for?A special kind of animal tail called a razor sharp claws tail is designed to catch or hold things; it practically functions as an extra "leg." Anteaters, monkeys, and even opossums have prehensile tails. However, freshwater shrimp are the only remaining marine species with a prehensile tail, making them highly special among fishes!
Why are monkeys' tails prehensile?Numerous monkeys running through the rainforests of South America and Central America have an additional hand on their buttocks. Actually, not quite. When searching for fruits and leaves, animals use their prehensile tails to assist them get around the lofty, precarious canopy.
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if adenine makes up 40% of the bases in dna, then what percentage of the bases in dna does cytosine make up?
If adenine makes up 40% of the bases in DNA, then 10% of the bases in DNA does cytosine make up.
If 40% of Adenine (A) is present, it would be reasonable to assume that 40% of Thymine (T) will be present, as the ratio between the two complementary nitrogenous bases will be roughly equal.
Therefore, that leaves us with 20% between Cytosine (C) and Guanine (G). Since the ratio between them would be equal, it gives us 10% of Cytosine (C) and 10% of Guanine (G).
Therefore:
40% of A + 40% of T + 10% of C + 10% of G = 100% DNA
So, Cytosine makes up 10% of the bases in DNA.
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explain the relationship between monomers and polymers: a. using polysaccharides as an example: b. using proteins as an example: c. using nucleic acids as an example:
Building block of polymers is called Monomer. A polymer is serial repitition of monomer.
a) Carbohydrates are classified as polysaccharides and monosaccharides. Polysaccharides are polymers of monosaccharides(monomer). Example - Starch is a polymer of glucose(monomer). b) Protein is a polymer of amino acid (monomer). Example - polymers is polypeptide, monomers are amino acids. c) In case of nucleic acid for example- Nucleotides are monomers (adenine, guanine, thymine, cytosine, uracil) and polymers are DNA & RNA (Nucleic acid).
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Which of the following is a derived trait of Sahelanthropus tchandensis which identifies it as a hominin? big toe opposability larger body size shape of the hand bones perihoning chewing complex
Nonhoning chewing complex is a derived trait of Sahelanthropus tchandensis which identifies it as a hominin.
What is a Nonhoning complex?
This edge is kept sharp because the upper canine rubs against, or hones, the sharp edge of the lower third premolar every time the jaws close. This is due to the diastema present on the jaws, which allows the jaws to close completely.
Do humans have non-honing chewing?
All hominins have a non-honing chewing complex for smashing food. Where the chewing muscles connect to the top of the skull.
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Full Question :Which of the following is a derived hominin trait first seen in Sahelanthropus tchandensis?
A. Length of the calcaneus
B. Nonhoning chewing complex
C. Larger body size
D. Big toe opposability
chromosomal rearrangement mechanisms which mechanism of generating chromosomal rearrangements involves nonhomologous end-joining (nhej)? multiple choice legitimate crossing-over transposition dna breakage illegitimate crossing-over
Answer:Induction of chromosomal translocations with CRISPR-Cas9 and other nucleases: Understanding the repair mechanisms that give rise to translocations
Explanation: vote brainiest
For what type of variable does it make sense to construct a confidence interval about a population proportion?.
Only for qualitative variables does a confidence interval about a population proportion make sense.
What prerequisites must exist before a confidence interval may be created for a proportion?Before creating a one-sample z-interval to estimate a population proportion, we must first meet three requirements. For these confidence intervals to be accurate, we must meet the random, normal, and independence requirements.
The purpose of creating a confidence interval is what?The purpose of confidence intervals Adopting confidence intervals, one may gauge how "excellent" an estimate is; the wider the 90% confidence interval is for a given estimate, the more care must be used when using that estimate. The existence of confidence intervals serves as a crucial reminder of the estimates' limits.
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in cremation, the supplies heat to raise the temperature of the cremation chamber to the point where combustion of the human remains and container is possible.
In cremation, the burner supplies heat to raise the temperature of the cremation chamber.
Cremation is a thermal process that reduces human remains to bone fragments. In this process the only remains of the human body is skeleton. soft parts, skin and hair etc. everything will be burned. The temperature required is between 1400 to 1600 degrees F. There are four main elements of cremation;
TransportationStorage cremation process ReturnTransportation means transfer of dead person to cremator
Cold storage of dead person before cremation.
The cremation or burning of dead person.
Return of cremated to authorized person.
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______ experience four distinct seasons, and exhibit a well-developed understory that supports mosses, shrubs, and wildflowers.
Mid-latitude deciduous forests experience four distinct seasons, and exhibit a well-developed understory that supports mosses, shrubs, and wildflowers.
Mid-latitude regions, or the areas between the polar regions and the tropics, are where temperate deciduous woods are found. Due to the exposure of the deciduous forest parts to both warm and cold air masses, this region experiences four distinct seasons. These woodlands can withstand cold weather season. In Europe, Asia, and North America, temperate deciduous woods may be found between 30°N and 60°N of the equator. "Temperate deciduous forest" is a term used to describe the Eastern Deciduous Forest. In western Europe, eastern Asia, southwestern South America, and eastern the United States, these woods may be found in the mid-latitudes between the tropics and the polar regions. They may be identified by the warm and cold season air masses that they result in.
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in dogs, alleles c and c determine whether a dog has curly (cc), wavy (cc), or straight hair (cc). in a cross of a curly-haired dog with a straight-haired dog, what will be the phenotypic ratio of the offspring?
Answer: (cC)
Explanation: Curl (C) is governed by a change in one of the genes responsible for a structural protein in hair (keratin). The mutation again involves the substitution of a single nucleotide—this time, a T (thymine) is substituted for a C (cytosine). The substitution is believed to affect folding of the completed protein, leading to curled or wavy hair. Dogs with straight hair have two copies of the straight form of the gene (cc); dogs with wavy hair have one copy of the straight form of the gene and one copy of the curly form (Cc); dogs with curly hair are homozygous for the curly mutation (CC).
part 1: reproduction 1. give an example of asexual reproduction. 2. what is a clone? 3. what is the difference between haploid and diploid?
1. Asexual reproduction occurs in a variety of ways, including fission, fragmentation, budding, vegetative reproduction, spore formation, and agamogenesis.
2. Cloning is the natural or artificial process of producing individual organisms with identical or nearly identical DNA. Asexual reproduction is used by some organisms in nature to produce clones.
3. Haploid Cells have only one set of Chromosomes, whereas Diploid Cells are formed when Haploid Cells from both male and female gametes fuse together during fertilization.
Asexual reproduction is a type of reproduction in which a single parent produces a new offspring. The newly produced individuals are genetically and physically identical to one another, i.e., they are clones of their parents. Both multicellular and unicellular organisms exhibit asexual reproduction.
Haploid cells only have one set of chromosomes (n). Diploids, as the name implies, have two sets of chromosomes (2n). Meiosis is the process by which haploid cells are formed. Mitosis occurs in diploid cells. Mitochondria are also found in diploid cells. Mitochondria house the DNA, which contains the instructions required for cells to produce proteins that affect the body's functioning in a variety of ways.
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the experiment of selective breeding of fruit flies for distinct differences in negative or positive geotaxis is an example of
The experiment for selective breeding of all fruit flies for their differences in negative or any positive geotaxis type is an example of QTL analysis.
QTL evaluation permits researchers in fields as numerous as agriculture, evolution, and medicinal drug to hyperlink positive complicated phenotypes to unique areas of chromosomes. The purpose of this system is to discover the action, interaction, number, and particular region of those areas. QTL mapping involves evaluating alcohol-associated behaviors in those traces and figuring out styles of acknowledged genetic markers shared via way of means of traces with the identical behaviors.
The markers permit the identity of possibly places of genes that impact alcohol-associated behaviors. Interval mapping. Lander and Botstein (1989) advanced at the pre- vious unmarried marker procedures via way of means of thinking about flanking markers. Their approach has been called "c language mapping," and is presently one of the maximum generally used techniques for figuring out QTLs in experimental crosses.
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degeneration of the distal portion of the neural process and the myelin sheath is called this type of degeneration
Degeneration of the distal portion of the neural process and the myelin sheath is called the Wallerian type of degeneration.
In the field of biology, Wallerian degeneration is a type of degeneration of axons that occurs due to an immune response caused by an injury.
As a result of Wallerian degeneration, the myelin sheath that wraps and protects an axon is destroyed. When the myelin sheath is destroyed, the axons are no longer able to transmit signals from one neuron to another. As a result, the whole of the neural communication process is disturbed.
However, this type of degeneration is recognized by the body within a short time and as a response, the growth of more axons is promoted with a protective myelin sheath.
The question will correctly be written as:
Fill In The Blank
Degeneration of the distal portion of the neural process and the myelin sheath is called .............. type of degeneration.
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