1. What is a variant and why do many viruses develop them over time? 2. How do we stop the variants? 3. Make a prediction: When do you think this pandemic will be over? Explain your reasoning.

Answers

Answer 1

A variant is a strain of the virus that has genetic differences from the original or previously identified strains.

1.

A variant, in the context of viruses, refers to a strain of the virus that has genetic differences from the original or previously identified strains.

These genetic differences can arise due to mutations in the viral genome.

Many viruses, including the SARS-CoV-2 virus responsible for the COVID-19 pandemic, develop variants over time due to their high replication rate and genetic variability.

Mutations occur as the virus replicates, and occasionally, these mutations can result in changes to the virus's characteristics, such as increased transmissibility or resistance to certain treatments.

2.

Stopping variants involves a multi-pronged approach.

First and foremost, widespread vaccination plays a crucial role in reducing the emergence and spread of variants.

Vaccines help to limit the virus's ability to replicate and mutate within vaccinated individuals, thereby reducing the chances of new variants emerging.

Additionally, robust genomic surveillance is necessary to identify and track variants in real-time.

Prompt identification of variants allows for targeted public health measures, such as enhanced testing, contact tracing, and quarantine measures.

Continued adherence to preventive measures like mask-wearing, physical distancing, and good hygiene practices also helps mitigate the spread of variants.

3.

Predicting an exact end date for a pandemic is challenging, as it depends on various factors, including vaccine coverage, public health measures, global cooperation, and the virus's behavior.

However, with increasing vaccination rates and improved understanding of the virus, it is reasonable to expect a gradual transition from a pandemic to an endemic state.

This means that while the virus may continue to circulate, it would likely cause fewer severe cases and become more manageable over time.

Achieving high vaccination rates and maintaining effective surveillance and public health measures can expedite this transition.

Based on historical pandemics, it is possible that the COVID-19 pandemic could gradually come under control within the next couple of years, but ongoing monitoring and adaptability will be necessary to address any new challenges that may arise.

Learn more about the COVID-19 pandemic:

brainly.com/question/28303965

#SPJ11


Related Questions

1. Semen travels through the male reproductive tract in this order: a. ejaculatory duct, vas deferens, epididymis, urethra b. epididymis, vas deferens, ejaculatory duct, urethra c. urethra, ejaculator

Answers

Semen is produced in the testicles and travels through the male reproductive system in the following order:

The testes produce sperm, which are stored and matured in the epididymis.

When sperm are needed, they travel through the vas deferens and into the ejaculatory duct.

Seminal fluid is added to the sperm in the seminal vesicles and prostate gland, which is then mixed and expelled through the urethra during ejaculation.

The correct order in which semen travels through the male reproductive tract is:

The epididymis is a long, coiled tube that sits on top of each testicle and serves as a site of sperm maturation and storage.

The vas deferens is a muscular tube that connects the epididymis to the urethra.

The ejaculatory duct is formed by the union of the vas deferens and seminal vesicles, and it passes through the prostate gland to empty into the urethra.

Understanding the anatomy and function of the male reproductive system is important for overall health and wellness.

Semen is composed of fluid and sperm.

It is ejaculated from the male reproductive system during orgasm.

To know more about testicles visit:

https://brainly.com/question/32399669

#SPJ11

2. Most of the calcium sensors fall into main families
characterized by having either ____ or ______ Ca 2+ binding
domains.

Answers

The presence of these domains allows proteins to regulate a wide range of cellular processes in response to changes in intracellular Ca2+ levels.

Most of the calcium sensors fall into main families characterized by having either EF-hand or C2 Ca2+ binding domains. EF-hand domains are the most abundant and widespread Ca2+ binding motif found in proteins.

These motifs consist of two helices separated by a short turn that contains four acidic residues arranged in a characteristic loop structure that coordinates the Ca2+ ion. The C2 domain is a structurally diverse Ca2+ binding domain found in numerous proteins with different functions, including signal transduction and membrane trafficking. In conclusion, EF-hand and C2 Ca2+ binding domains are the two main families of Ca2+ sensors.

The most abundant and widespread motif is the EF-hand domain, while the C2 domain is structurally diverse and found in many different proteins.

The presence of these domains allows proteins to regulate a wide range of cellular processes in response to changes in intracellular Ca2+ levels.

To know more about Ca2+ ion visit:

brainly.com/question/1511779

#SPJ11

2. Which of the following is does not considered to be design principles in ergonomic(2 Points) None Make it adjustable Custom fit each individual Have several fixed sizes ▷

Answers

Having several fixed sizes is not considered to be a design principle in ergonomics. The other options, including making it adjustable and custom fitting each individual, align with the principles of ergonomics and are aimed at creating products that promote comfort, efficiency, and safety for users.

Ergonomics is the science of designing and arranging products, systems, and environments to fit the needs and capabilities of users. It focuses on creating designs that optimize human well-being and performance by considering factors such as comfort, usability, efficiency, and safety.

In ergonomic design, it is essential to provide adjustable features that allow users to customize the product to their specific requirements. Adjustable elements, such as seat height, armrests, and lumbar support, enable users to adapt the product to their body dimensions and preferred sitting posture, promoting comfort and reducing the risk of musculoskeletal strain.

Similarly, custom fitting each individual takes personalization to the next level by tailoring the design to the unique characteristics of each user. This can involve gathering user data, such as body measurements or anthropometric data, and creating products that perfectly match the user's physical attributes and ergonomic needs.

On the other hand, having several fixed sizes limits the flexibility and adaptability of the product to different users. It may result in discomfort, inefficiency, and compromised ergonomics for individuals who do not fit into the available sizes.

Therefore, providing adjustable features and custom fitting options are preferred design principles in ergonomics to enhance user experience and overall well-being.

Learn more about ergonomics  here:

brainly.com/question/29753374

#SPJ11

What is speciation? New species forming Catastrophism Species dying Cell division What is extinction? Death of a species Formation of a species Death of an individual Process of reproductive isolation
Scientists use ___ to estimate the age of rocks and fossils: lons Temperature pH Radioactivity

Answers

Speciation refers to the process of new species formation, involving reproductive isolation and the accumulation of genetic differences. Extinction, on the other hand, refers to the death of a species, resulting in the complete disappearance of that species from the Earth.

Speciation: Speciation is the process by which new species arise from existing ones. It occurs when populations of a single species become reproductively isolated from each other, leading to the accumulation of genetic differences over time.

Reproductive isolation can occur through various mechanisms such as geographic isolation, where populations are physically separated, or through mechanisms like behavioral, temporal, or genetic isolation. Over generations, these isolated populations undergo genetic changes due to factors like mutation, genetic drift, and natural selection.

These genetic differences gradually accumulate, resulting in the development of distinct traits and characteristics in the populations. Eventually, if the genetic differences are significant enough, the populations may no longer be able to produce viable offspring when brought back into contact, leading to the formation of separate species.

Extinction: Extinction refers to the complete disappearance of a species from the Earth. It occurs when the last individual of a species dies, leading to the loss of that species forever. Extinction can be caused by various factors, including natural events such as climate change, geological events, or the emergence of new predators or competitors.

Human activities, such as habitat destruction, pollution, overhunting, and the introduction of invasive species, have also significantly contributed to recent extinctions. When a species becomes unable to adapt to its changing environment or faces severe disruptions to its ecological niche, its population declines to a point where it can no longer recover or survive, ultimately resulting in extinction.

Scientists use various methods to estimate the age of rocks and fossils, including:

Radiometric Dating: Radiometric dating relies on the measurement of radioactive isotopes and their decay products. By comparing the ratio of parent isotopes to daughter isotopes in a sample, scientists can calculate the age of the rock or fossil. Different isotopes have different half-lives, which allows for dating over different time ranges.

Other Methods: Scientists also use other methods like relative dating, which involves determining the age of rocks and fossils relative to one another based on their positions in the rock layers or the presence of index fossils. Additionally, methods like dendrochronology (tree-ring dating) and varve counting (analysis of sediment layers) can provide age estimates for specific types of samples.

Each dating method has its limitations and uncertainties, but by using multiple techniques and cross-referencing data, scientists can gain a more accurate understanding of the age of rocks and fossils and the timing of past events in Earth's history.

To know more about Speciation refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/30054037#

#SPJ11

You are now a biologist and one of your jobs is to conduct experiments. The success of your experiment will rely on your use of the scientific method. You will need an observation, a hypothesis, and a plan to prove or disprove your hypothesis. This will involve experimental and control groups. With the knowledge you now have, state a hypothesis, and describe the experiment you might conduct to test that hypothesis. What would your control/experimental groups look like?

Answers

One of the possible hypotheses for testing in the field of biology is to check the effect of fertilizer on the growth of plants. The experiment can be conducted by dividing the plants into two groups; experimental and control. One group will be treated with fertilizer, while the other group will not receive any treatment.

Following are the steps for conducting the experiment

Observation: The observation is that the plants grow at different rates with and without the application of fertilizers. Hypothesis: The hypothesis for this experiment can be that the use of fertilizers will increase the growth rate of plants.

Plan: The plan for the experiment will be to divide the plants into two groups; one will receive fertilizer treatment, while the other will not. This will create experimental and control groups.

Experimental/Control Groups: The experimental group will receive the fertilizer treatment, while the control group will not receive any treatment.

In order to test the hypothesis, the plants need to be grown under controlled conditions. The environmental conditions, such as temperature, humidity, and lighting, need to be kept the same for both the experimental and control groups. The plants need to be of the same species and age.

The experimental group should be given the recommended dose of fertilizer for the type of plant being grown, while the control group should not receive any fertilizer.The plants in both groups need to be monitored for their growth rate over a period of time.

The growth rate can be measured by the height of the plant and the number of leaves that have developed.The results from the experimental group can then be compared to those of the control group.

If the plants in the experimental group grow at a faster rate than those in the control group, then the hypothesis will be supported. If the growth rate of the plants in the experimental group is the same as those in the control group, then the hypothesis will be rejected.

To learn more about fertilizer

https://brainly.com/question/24196345

#SPJ11

Which of the following 3 letter codon sequences serve as stop codon(s)?
a. UAG
b. UAA
c. UAU
d. UGA
Based on your answer above, of the remaining codons, which amino acids are encoded?
Group of answer choices
a. Tyr
b. Thr
c. Asn
d. Trp
Given the following DNA coding sequence: 3’ TGACCGATA 5’. Which of the answers below represents the mRNA sequence in the correct direction for this sequence?
a. DNA; 5’ GACTTACGT 3’
b. DNA; 3’ ACTGGCTAT 5’
c. RNA; 5’ UGACCGAUA 3’
d. RNA; 5’ AUAGCCAGU 3’
Consider the DNA non-template strand: 5’ – CAC GAA TAT – 3’. What is the correct amino acid sequence?
a. His – Glu – Tyr
b. Pro – Cys – Gly
c. Arg – Thr – Pro
d. Arg – Cys – Ser
Correct order of transcription and translation steps
a. Initiation, elongation, termination
b. Hot start, amplification, ligation
c. Indication, extension, completion
d. denaturation, annealing, extension
Which protein is involved in eukaryotic transcription termination.
a. Ligase
b. Transcription terminase
c. mfd
d. Rho protein
e. None of the above
If the coding DNA triplet TGG for tryptophan in the middle of the gene sequence mutates to TGT what would you expect during translation?
a. Tryptophan would be substituted with Cysteine
b. This codon will be skipped
c. Translation won’t be initiated
d. Translation would stop prematurely

Answers

If the coding DNA triplet TGG for tryptophan in the middle of the gene sequence mutates to TGT, during translation, you would expect Tryptophan to be substituted with Cysteine.

The correct answer is: Stop codon(s): a. UAG and b. UAA. The remaining codons encode the following amino acids: a. Tyr (Tyrosine)

b. Thr (Threonine)

c. Asn (Asparagine)

The correct mRNA sequence for the given DNA coding sequence (3’ TGACCGATA 5’) in the correct direction is:

c. RNA; 5’ UGACCGAUA 3’

The correct amino acid sequence for the DNA non-template strand (5’ – CAC GAA TAT – 3’) is:

a. His – Glu – Tyr

The correct order of transcription and translation steps is:

a. Initiation, elongation, termination

The protein involved in eukaryotic transcription termination is:

d. Rho protein

If the coding DNA triplet TGG for tryptophan in the middle of the gene sequence mutates to TGT, you would expect the following during translation:

a. Tryptophan would be substituted with Cysteine

Translation would continue with the substitution of the amino acid Cysteine instead of Tryptophan due to the change in the codon.

To know more about tryptophan

https://brainly.com/question/776786

#SPJ11

20. Define COPD. Distinguish between emphysema and bronchitis - 5pts

Answers

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD) is a chronic respiratory condition with airflow limitation caused by irritant exposure. Emphysema affects lung air sacs, while chronic bronchitis involves bronchial inflammation and excessive mucus production.

COPD, or Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease, is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by airflow limitation and persistent breathing difficulties.

It is primarily caused by long-term exposure to irritants, such as cigarette smoke, air pollution, or occupational hazards. COPD encompasses two main conditions: emphysema and chronic bronchitis.

Emphysema is a progressive lung disease where the air sacs in the lungs (alveoli) become damaged, leading to their enlargement and eventual destruction.

This results in the loss of lung elasticity and decreased ability to exhale effectively.

Emphysema is primarily associated with damage to the lung's air sacs and is characterized by symptoms such as shortness of breath, wheezing, and a chronic cough.

On the other hand, chronic bronchitis involves inflammation and irritation of the bronchial tubes, which carry air to and from the lungs.

This inflammation leads to increased mucus production and narrowing of the airways.

The main symptom of chronic bronchitis is a persistent cough that produces excessive mucus for at least three months in two consecutive years.

While emphysema primarily affects the lung's air sacs, chronic bronchitis primarily affects the bronchial tubes.

However, it's important to note that in many cases, individuals with COPD may have a combination of emphysema and chronic bronchitis, and the conditions often coexist and worsen over time.

Both emphysema and chronic bronchitis contribute to the airflow limitation and breathing difficulties experienced by individuals with COPD.

To know more about Pulmonary Disease refer here:

https://brainly.com/question/31836625#

#SPJ11

Question 12 2 pts Why should stains be used when preparing wet mounts of cheek cells and onion skin epidermis? Edit View Insert Format Tools Table 12pt Paragraph | BIU A' εν των : I **** P 0 word

Answers

Stains are used when preparing wet mounts of cheek cells and onion skin epidermis for several reasons:

Contrast enhancement: Staining the cells helps to improve the visibility of cellular structures and details that may be otherwise difficult to observe.

Unstained cells may appear translucent and lack sufficient contrast, making it challenging to differentiate different cellular components.

Cell identification: Stains can help distinguish different types of cells and cellular structures within the sample. For example, in cheek cells, staining can help identify epithelial cells and differentiate them from other contaminants or debris present in the sample.

Highlighting specific structures: Different stains selectively bind to specific cellular components or structures, allowing researchers to target and visualize specific features of interest.

Learn more about Stains here:

https://brainly.com/question/10245084

#JSP11

This is a 5 part question.
In humans, not having albinism (A) is dominant to having albinism (a). Consider a
cross between two carriers: ax Aa. What is the probability that the first child will
not have albinism (A_)?

Answers

In humans, the presence of albinism (a) is a recessive trait while the absence of albinism (A) is dominant. Therefore, we can write Aa for individuals who are carriers of the albinism trait. Let us consider a cross between two carriers; ax Aa.

A Punnett square can be used to determine the probability of offspring phenotypes.

Ax  A  aAa  aa Phenotypic Ratio:3:1

The above Punnett square represents the cross between two carriers. The possible gametes that can be produced by the mother and father are represented along the top and left of the table, respectively.

The phenotypes are listed along the left and top of the table as well. The inside of the table contains the possible genotype combinations of the offspring.

The probability of the first child not having albinism (A_) can be determined by adding the probability of the child having the genotype Aa or AA. Since the absence of albinism (A) is dominant, an individual with the genotype AA will not have albinism.

The probability of a child having an Aa genotype is 2/4, which can be calculated by adding the probabilities of the first two squares in the Punnett square. The probability of a child having an AA genotype is 1/4, which can be calculated by looking at the bottom left square of the Punnett square.

Therefore, the probability of the first child not having albinism is (2/4 + 1/4) = 3/4.

To know more about humans visit;

brainly.com/question/11655619

#SPJ11

The mTORC1 complex:
A. is inhibited by AMPK
B. is inhibited by leucine
C. is stimulated by concurrent training
D. is stimulated by rapamycin
D.

Answers

The mTORC1 complex is inhibited by rapamycin. The correct answer is (D)

The mTORC1 complex, which stands for mammalian target of rapamycin complex 1, is a key regulator of cell growth and metabolism. It plays a crucial role in integrating various signals, such as nutrient availability and energy levels, to control protein synthesis and cell proliferation. Rapamycin, a drug used in immunosuppressive therapy and cancer treatment, specifically inhibits the mTORC1 complex.

By binding to its target protein, rapamycin prevents mTORC1 from activating downstream signaling pathways involved in protein synthesis. This inhibition can have significant effects on cellular processes and is utilized in medical applications to modulate immune response and inhibit tumor growth.

Therefore, option D stating that the mTORC1 complex is stimulated by rapamycin is correct.

Learn more about protein synthesis here:

https://brainly.com/question/29763759

#SPJ11

How do glucocorticoids increase the body's supply of energy in time of stress? (Select all that apply) anabolism of stored triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol anabolism of muscle proteins into

Answers

Glucocorticoids increase the body's supply of energy in times of stress by promoting the anabolism of stored triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol, as well as the catabolism of muscle proteins into amino acids.

Glucocorticoids, such as cortisol, play a crucial role in mobilizing energy during times of stress. They stimulate the breakdown of stored triglycerides (fat molecules) in adipose tissue through a process called lipolysis.

This results in the release of fatty acids and glycerol into the bloodstream, which can be used as an energy source by various tissues, including the liver and muscles.

The breakdown of triglycerides provides an immediate supply of energy to meet the increased demands during stress.Furthermore, glucocorticoids promote the catabolism of muscle proteins, a process known as proteolysis.

This occurs primarily in skeletal muscles, where muscle proteins are broken down into individual amino acids. The released amino acids can then be utilized by the liver to synthesize glucose through a process called gluconeogenesis.

Glucose serves as a vital energy source for the brain and other tissues. By promoting proteolysis, glucocorticoids ensure a steady supply of amino acids for glucose production, thus maintaining energy availability during stressful situations.

In summary, glucocorticoids increase the body's supply of energy during times of stress by promoting the breakdown of stored triglycerides into fatty acids and glycerol, which can be used as an energy source.

Additionally, they stimulate the catabolism of muscle proteins into amino acids, enabling the liver to produce glucose through gluconeogenesis, providing a critical energy source for various tissues.

Learn more about Glucocorticoids  here ;

https://brainly.com/question/28257062

#SPJ11

help!!
6. What is cell memory? Describe any one process by which differentiated cells maintain their cell identity?

Answers

Cell memory refers to the ability of differentiated cells to maintain their specialized identity over multiple cell divisions and throughout the life of an organism. Despite all cells within an organism sharing the same genetic information, they differentiate into various cell types during development and perform specific functions.

One process by which differentiated cells maintain their cell identity is through epigenetic modifications. Epigenetics refers to changes in gene expression that do not involve alterations in the DNA sequence itself. Epigenetic modifications can occur through DNA methylation, histone modifications, and non-coding RNA molecules. These modifications influence the accessibility of genes and regulate their expression patterns in different cell types.

Methylation of certain gene regions can lead to the repression of gene expression, effectively silencing those genes in a particular cell type. By maintaining specific DNA methylation patterns, differentiated cells can ensure the stable repression or activation of genes associated with their specialized functions. Histone modifications are another mechanism involved in maintaining cell identity. Histones are proteins around which DNA is wrapped, forming a complex called chromatin. Different histone modifications, such as acetylation, methylation, and phosphorylation, can affect the compaction of chromatin and gene accessibility.

To know more about  cell divisions refer here

brainly.com/question/29773280

#SPJ11

When a protocol calls for bacterial growth at 24-48 hours, why
is it okay to
have in the incubator for that time frame and then also have it in
the
refrigerator for an additional 120 hours (5 days)?

Answers

It is generally okay to incubate bacterial growth for 24-48 hours and then refrigerate it for an additional 120 hours (5 days) because bacteria can enter a stationary phase during prolonged incubation.

The initial incubation period allows the bacteria to grow and reach a desired cell density. Afterward, refrigerating the culture slows down bacterial metabolism, reducing the risk of further growth or changes in the culture.

During the initial incubation, the bacteria utilize available nutrients and replicate rapidly, reaching the desired growth phase. However, beyond a certain point, the nutrient supply becomes limited, waste products accumulate, and bacterial growth slows down. This stationary phase is characterized by a stable cell density.

Refrigerating the culture after the recommended growth time slows down metabolic activities, including nutrient consumption, waste production, and growth. The cold temperature inhibits bacterial growth, preserving the culture without significant changes for an extended period. This allows for flexibility in experimental setups, storage, or transportation while minimizing bacterial deterioration or loss of viability.

To learn more about prolonged incubation, click here:

https://brainly.com/question/31713995

#SPJ11

Which protein activates the lac operon when lactose is present, but glucose is absent? O A. Lacz O B. Lacy O c. Lacl O D.CRP/CAP O E. LacA

Answers

The protein that activates the lac operon when lactose is present but glucose is absent is D. CRP/CAP, which stands for cAMP receptor protein or catabolite activator protein.

CRP/CAP is a regulatory protein that binds to a specific site on the lac operon promoter region in the presence of cAMP (cyclic adenosine monophosphate). This binding enhances the recruitment of RNA polymerase, leading to increased transcription of the lac operon genes, including the genes involved in lactose metabolism. In the absence of glucose, the levels of cAMP increase in the cell, which promotes the binding of CRP/CAP to the lac operon promoter. This activation allows the lac operon to be expressed, enabling the utilization of lactose as an alternative energy source.

learn more about:- RNA polymerase  here

https://brainly.com/question/29664942

#SPJ11

Which of the following is true concerning the scapula?
O the end of the spine projects as the expanded process called the coracoid
the coracold articulates with the clavicle
O the glenoid cavity is where the scapula and humerus articulate
O the lateral border of the scapula is near the vertebral column
the scapular notch is a prominent indentation along the inferior border

Answers

The true statement about scapula is "The glenoid cavity is where the scapula and humerus articulate".

The glenoid cavity is a shallow, concave socket located on the lateral side of the scapula. It is the site where the scapula articulates with the head of the humerus, forming the glenohumeral joint, commonly known as the shoulder joint. This joint allows for a wide range of movement of the arm.

The other options provided are not true concerning the scapula:

The end of the spine of the scapula projects as the expanded process called the acromion, not the coracoid.The coracoid process is a separate bony projection on the anterior side of the scapula and does not articulate with the clavicle.The lateral border of the scapula is farther away from the vertebral column, while the medial border is closer to it.The scapular notch refers to a small indentation on the superior border of the scapula, not the inferior border.

To learn more about scapula, here

https://brainly.com/question/30516789

#SPJ4

which of the following processes passes heritable traits aiding in survival and reproduction to the next generation? multiple choice question. epigenetic regulation natural selection genetic drift gene expression

Answers

The process that passes heritable traits aiding in survival and reproduction to the next generation is natural selection.

Natural selection is a mechanism of evolution that describes the differential survival and reproduction of individuals in a population based on their inherited traits. Individuals with traits that are better adapted to their environment are more likely to survive and reproduce, passing on these advantageous traits to their offspring. Over time, this can lead to changes in the frequency of traits within a population, ultimately resulting in the evolution of new species.

Epigenetic regulation, genetic drift, and gene expression are also important processes that contribute to the diversity and adaptation of living organisms, but they do not directly pass heritable traits from one generation to the next in the same way that natural selection does.

Epigenetic regulation refers to the process by which chemical modifications to DNA or histone proteins can alter gene expression without changing the underlying DNA sequence. While epigenetic changes can be passed down through generations, they do not necessarily confer specific adaptive advantages to the next generation.

Genetic drift is a random process that can lead to changes in allele frequencies within a population over time. However, unlike natural selection, genetic drift does not favor particular traits that aid in survival and reproduction.

Gene expression refers to the process by which genes are transcribed into RNA and then translated into proteins. Although gene expression plays a crucial role in determining an individual's phenotype and adaptation to environmental conditions, it does not directly pass heritable traits from one generation to the next in the same way as natural selection.

learn more about reproduction here

https://brainly.com/question/7464705

#SPJ11

Explain the distinction between M. tuberculosis latency and
latency with specific viruses.

Answers

Latency in viruses is referred to as the state when the virus is not actively replicating while the bacteria like M. tuberculosis may also exist in a latent state. The latency state of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is different from the latency state in viruses.

When M. tuberculosis is in latency, it enters a quiescent state, which means that the bacteria are not actively dividing and replicating. However, they remain alive, which means that they have the potential to become active again at any time.Latency in viruses is referred to as the state when the virus is not actively replicating. In this state, the virus is not actively harming the host and may be undetectable.

The virus may remain in this latent state for an extended period. In some cases, it may become active again, and this is when it can cause an infection. Thus, in simple words, latency in viruses and bacteria is different because, in viruses, the virus is not replicating, while in bacteria, they enter a quiescent state where they are not actively dividing and replicating.

To know more about viruses visit:

https://brainly.com/question/13588519

#SPJ11

. There are many abiotic factors that affect the rate of photosynthesis in terrestrial plants. Wheat is an important cereal crop in many parts of the world. Wheat seedlings were grown at three different concentrations of carbon dioxide (in parts per million) and the rate of photosynthesis was measured at various light intensities. 50- 40- 30- Rate of photosynthesis /ul CO, min! key: A 1300 ppm CO2 500 ppm CO2 280 ppm CO2 20- O 10- 0 0 T 15 5 10 20 Light intensity / x 10 lumen m3-2 (Source: Adapted from JP Kimmins, 1997 Forest Ecology, (2nd edition) page 161) (a) Describe the relationship between the rate of photosynthesis and light intensity for wheat seedlings grown at a CO2 concentration of 500 ppm

Answers

The graph shows the relationship between the rate of photosynthesis and the light intensity for wheat seedlings grown at CO2 concentrations of 500 ppm. The rate of photosynthesis increased as the light intensity increased.

At a light intensity of 0 lumen m-2, the rate of photosynthesis was around 0 ul CO2 min-1. At a light intensity of 10 lumen m-2, the rate of photosynthesis was around 20 ul CO2 min-1. At a light intensity of 20 lumen m-2, the rate of photosynthesis was around 40 ul CO2 min-1.

As the light intensity continued to increase, the rate of photosynthesis did not increase at a proportional rate but rather started to level off. This is because there was a limit to the rate of photosynthesis that could be achieved by the wheat seedlings.

To know more about photosynthesis visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29764662

#SPJ11

Provide the staphylococci species that is coagulase (+).
aureus is a spore-forming bacteria and can survive in high salt environment and tolerate a wide range of temperatures. T/F
Provide two specific drug resistant S. aureus strain that are highly problematic in clinical settings.
Provide the staphylococci species that is capable producing a superantigen.
Provide the names of five enzymes that are important for the pathogenesis of staphylococci.
Describe the mechanism of toxicity of enterotoxins from S. aureus.
What is the function of Fibrinolysin?
What are the major clinical diseases caused by S. aureus?
What is the mechanism of resistance due to PBP 2a expression?
What is the mechanism of resistance in VRSA?
Describe the hemolytic pattern of (a) alpha-, beta- and gamma-hemolysin.
Which specific streptolysin is immunogenic?
Which Streptococci species has hyaluronic acid containing capsule?
Which Streptococci species has sialic acid containing capsule?
Provide the names of three different bacteria that cause pneumonia.
Provide three different ways pneumolysin increases the virulence of S. pneumoniae.
Provide the names of four spore forming bacterial pathogens.
Provide the names of two different bacterial pathogens that produce lactic acid.
What type of virulence factor is diphtheria toxin and what is the mechanism of this exotoxin?
What are the two cell wall components that are specific to mycobacterium and not found in other Gram-positive pathogens?

Answers

Staphylococci species that is coagulase (+): Staphylococcus aureus is the staphylococci species that is coagulase (+). It is a gram-positive bacteria that is present in the human skin and nares. aureus can also survive on surfaces and equipment that have not been disinfected and people carrying this bacteria can act as carriers and spread it to others.

Specific drug-resistant S. aureus strains: MRSA and VISA (Vancomycin-Intermediate Staphylococcus Aureus) are two specific drug-resistant S. aureus strains that are highly problematic in clinical settings. S. aureus species capable of producing a super antigen: S. aureus is the species capable of producing a super antigen.

Enzymes that are important for the pathogenesis of staphylococci: The enzymes that are important for the pathogenesis of staphylococci are catalase, coagulase, hyaluronidase, lipase, and nuclease. Mechanism of toxicity of enterotoxins from S. aureus: Enterotoxins from S. aureus cause food poisoning, with symptoms such as vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal cramps.

The enterotoxins have super antigenic properties which allow them to activate large numbers of T-cells. The activation of the T-cells leads to the release of cytokines that cause the symptoms of food poisoning.

Fibrinolysin: Fibrinolysin is an enzyme produced by S. aureus that breaks down fibrin clots. It can aid in the spread of the bacteria in the body by allowing them to move through clots and reach new areas.

Major clinical diseases caused by S. aureus: Some of the major clinical diseases caused by S. aureus are skin infections (such as boils and impetigo), pneumonia, bloodstream infections, and endocarditis. Mechanism of resistance due to PBP 2a expression: PBP 2a is a penicillin-binding protein that is not affected by beta-lactam antibiotics. The expression of PBP 2a leads to resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics such as penicillin and cephalosporins.

Mechanism of resistance in VRSA: Vancomycin-resistant S. aureus (VRSA) is resistant to vancomycin, which is usually the drug of last resort for treating S. aureus infections. The resistance is due to the acquisition of a plasmid that carries genes for resistance to both vancomycin and methicillin.

Hemolytic pattern of alpha-, beta-, and gamma-hemolysin: Alpha-hemolysin causes complete lysis of red blood cells, producing a clear zone around the colony. Beta-hemolysin causes partial lysis of red blood cells, producing a green zone around the colony. Gamma-hemolysin does not cause any lysis of red blood cells, producing no zone around the colony.

Specific streptolysin that is immunogenic: Streptolysin O is the specific streptolysin that is immunogenic. Streptococci species with hyaluronic acid-containing capsule: Streptococcus pyogenes is the species with hyaluronic acid-containing capsule.

Streptococci species with sialic acid-containing capsule: Streptococcus pneumoniae is the species with sialic acid-containing capsule.

Bacteria that cause pneumonia: Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Legionella pneumophila are three different bacteria that cause pneumonia. Ways pneumolysin increases the virulence of S. pneumoniae: Pneumolysin increases the virulence of S. pneumoniae by promoting the lysis of host cells, activating complement, inducing inflammation, and inhibiting the immune response. Spore-forming bacterial pathogens: Bacillus anthracis, Clostridium botulinum, and Clostridium tetani are four spore-forming bacterial pathogens.

Bacterial pathogens that produce lactic acid: Lactobacillus and Streptococcus are two different bacterial pathogens that produce lactic acid. Virulence factor of diphtheria toxin and mechanism: Diphtheria toxin is an exotoxin that inhibits protein synthesis in eukaryotic cells. It is an A-B toxin, where the A subunit inhibits protein synthesis and the B subunit binds to the cell surface receptors.

Cell wall components specific to mycobacterium: Mycolic acid and arabinogalactan are the two cell wall components that are specific to Mycobacterium and not found in other Gram-positive pathogens.

To know more about Staphylococci visit:

https://brainly.com/question/31580481

#SPJ11

Factor X can be activated O Only if the is Factor VII O Only if both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways are activated. O Only if the intrinsic pathway is acticated. O Only if the extrinsic pathway is ac

Answers

Factor X can be activated B. only if both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways are activated.

Blood clotting or coagulation is a complex process that requires the participation of several factors. Factor X is one of the clotting factors that participate in the coagulation cascade, a series of steps that culminate in the formation of a blood clot. When the lining of a blood vessel is injured, two pathways, the intrinsic and the extrinsic, initiate the clotting process. The extrinsic pathway is triggered by the release of tissue factor from damaged cells outside the blood vessels.

On the other hand, the intrinsic pathway is activated by the exposure of subendothelial collagen to blood after vessel damage. Once activated, the two pathways converge to activate factor X, which is then converted to factor Xa by a series of proteolytic cleavages. Factor Xa, in turn, activates prothrombin to thrombin, which converts fibrinogen to fibrin, the main protein that forms a blood clot. So therefore the correct answer  is B. only if both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways are activated, Factor X can be activated.

Learn more about blood clotting  at:

https://brainly.com/question/29841695

#SPJ11

Describe the principle behind cell separation by fluorescent antibody cell sorting (FACS analysis).

Answers

Fluorescence-activated cell sorting (FACS) is a flow cytometric technique used for cell separation based on the expression of cell surface molecules or intracellular antigens.

FACS analysis is useful in many fields of biology, including immunology, stem cell research, cancer research, and microbiology. The principle behind FACS analysis is that cells are labeled with fluorescent antibodies and then sorted based on their fluorescent properties using a flow cytometer. A flow cytometer uses lasers to excite fluorescently labeled cells as they pass through a narrow channel.

As cells pass through the laser beam, they emit light that is detected by the flow cytometer, and the data is collected and analyzed by a computer. The FACS analysis process begins with sample preparation, where the cells of interest are isolated and labeled with fluorescent antibodies specific to the cell surface or intracellular molecules of interest. After labeling, the cells are loaded into the flow cytometer, where they are sorted based on their fluorescent properties.

To know more about sorting visit:

https://brainly.com/question/30673483

#SPJ11

Humans can have type A blood, type B blood, type AB blood, or type o. Which of the following is a possible genotype for an individual with type B blood Answers A-D А ТА Br DAT

Answers

Among the given options, the possible genotype for an individual with type B blood is option B: B. This individual would have the genotype "BB" for the ABO blood group.

The ABO blood group system is determined by the presence or absence of specific antigens on the surface of red blood cells. In the case of type B blood, individuals have the B antigen present on their red blood cells.

The genotype for type B blood can be either homozygous (BB) or heterozygous (BO), as the B allele is responsible for producing the B antigen.

In this case, the genotype "BB" indicates that both alleles inherited by the individual are B alleles, resulting in the production of the B antigen on their red blood cells. This genotype is associated with type B blood.

To summarize, the possible genotype for an individual with type B blood is "BB."

To learn more about genotype click here: brainly.com/question/30784786

#SPJ11

which of the following microorganism inhibit adherence with
phagocytes because of the presence of m proteins
1. mycobacterium tuberculosis steptococcus pyogenes leishmania
klesiella pneumoniae

Answers

The microorganism that inhibits adherence with phagocytes because of the presence of m proteins is Steptococcus pyogenes.

What are m proteins?

M proteins are the fibrous surface proteins found on Streptococcus pyogenes bacteria.

M proteins are important virulence factors of the bacteria, and they play a role in the development of rheumatic fever and acute glomerulonephritis.

They can also be used to classify Streptococcus pyogenes bacteria into different strains.

They are capable of masking the bacteria's surface antigens, rendering them immune to phagocytosis.

The Streptococcus pyogenes bacterium has m proteins on its surface.

These proteins help the bacterium avoid being detected by immune cells and phagocytes.

As a result, the bacterium is able to evade the immune system and spread throughout the body, causing a variety of infections.

To know more about proteins visit:

https://brainly.com/question/2193769

#SPJ11

What
have been the impact of widespread destruction of California's
Tidal Marshes/Estuaries?

Answers

The widespread destruction of California's tidal marshes/estuaries has had significant ecological and socio-economic impacts.

The destruction of California's tidal marshes and estuaries has resulted in profound ecological consequences. These habitats serve as vital breeding, nesting, and feeding grounds for numerous species, including fish, birds, and mammals. With their destruction, the loss of critical habitat has led to declines in biodiversity, negatively impacting the overall health of ecosystems. Additionally, tidal marshes and estuaries play a crucial role in water filtration and nutrient cycling, helping to maintain water quality and support healthy fisheries. The destruction of these habitats disrupts these processes, leading to imbalances in the ecosystem.

The destruction of California's tidal marshes and estuaries also has socio-economic implications. These habitats provide essential services such as coastal protection by acting as natural buffers against storms and reducing the risk of coastal erosion. Without them, coastal communities are more vulnerable to the impacts of storms, leading to increased property damage and potential loss of life. Tidal marshes and estuaries also contribute to the economy through recreational activities like birdwatching, fishing, and boating, attracting tourists and supporting local businesses. Their destruction not only impacts the livelihoods of those directly dependent on these activities but also affects the broader coastal economy.

In conclusion, the widespread destruction of California's tidal marshes and estuaries has had far-reaching impacts on both ecological systems and human communities. Conservation and restoration efforts are crucial to mitigate these effects, protect biodiversity, and ensure the resilience and sustainability of California's coastal ecosystems.

Learn more about tidal marshes:

https://brainly.com/question/12416779

#SPJ11

Which of the following is true of a mature mRNA in eukaryotes?
it contains a poly A tail it is translated in the nucleus all of the answer choices are correct it is comprised of introns spliced together

Answers

A mature mRNA in eukaryotes contains a poly A tail. The poly A tail is a sequence of adenine nucleotides that are added to the 3' end of the mRNA molecule, after transcription has been completed.

The poly A tail is important for the stability and export of the mRNA molecule from the nucleus to the cytoplasm, where it will be translated into protein.The other answer choices are incorrect:It is not translated in the nucleus. Translation, which is the process of protein synthesis, occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell after the mRNA molecule has been transported out of the nucleus.

It is not necessarily comprised of introns spliced together. Introns are non-coding regions of the DNA sequence that are removed from the pre-mRNA molecule during RNA splicing. The mature mRNA molecule that is transported to the cytoplasm does not contain introns.

option d is incorrect.All of the answer choices are not correct as option b and d are incorrect. option a is correct.

To know more about mRNA visit:

https://brainly.com/question/29316969

#SPJ11

Which type of secretion occurs destroying the entire cell as it releases its product? a. endocrine secretion b. merocrine secretion c. apocrine secretion d. holocrine secretion

Answers

The correct answer is d. holocrine secretion, where the entire cell is destroyed during the release of its product.

Holocrine secretion is a type of secretion in which the entire cell is destroyed during the process of releasing its product. This occurs when the secretory cells accumulate and store their product within their cytoplasm until it reaches a certain level of maturity. Once the product reaches the desired level, the entire cell disintegrates, releasing the accumulated secretion along with the cell debris.

Examples of holocrine secretion can be found in certain glands of the body, such as the sebaceous glands in the skin. Sebaceous glands produce sebum, an oily substance that helps lubricate and protect the skin and hair. In the case of sebaceous glands, the secretory cells accumulate sebum within their cytoplasm until they burst, releasing the sebum and cell fragments onto the skin's surface.

In contrast, other types of secretion, such as endocrine secretion, merocrine secretion, and apocrine secretion, do not involve the destruction of the entire cell. Endocrine secretion refers to the release of hormones directly into the bloodstream, while merocrine secretion involves the release of secretory products through exocytosis without any cell damage. Apocrine secretion is characterized by the release of secretory products along with a portion of the cell membrane.

Learn more about sebaceous glands here:

https://brainly.com/question/30421221

#SPJ11

which of the following is/are likely to be fertile
a. allodiploids
b. allotetraploids
c. triplioids
d. all
e. none

Answers

Allotetraploids are likely to be fertile. Allotetraploids are organisms that have two complete sets of chromosomes derived from different species.

These organisms usually result from hybridization events between two different species followed by genome doubling. Due to having complete sets of chromosomes, allotetraploids often have balanced chromosomal composition, allowing for normal meiosis and fertility. On the other hand, allodiploids (a) and triploids (c) are less likely to be fertile. Allodiploids have two complete sets of chromosomes derived from different species, but they lack a complete set of chromosomes from either parent species. Triploids, on the other hand, have three complete sets of chromosomes, which can lead to problems during meiosis and reduced fertility.

learn more about:- chromosomes  here

https://brainly.com/question/30077641

#SPJ11

Briefly describe how the 3 different types of neurotransmitters are synthesized and stored. Question 2 Briefly describe how neurotransmitters are released in response to an action potential.

Answers

Neurotransmitters are chemical messengers that transmit signals across synapses from one neuron to another, as well as from neurons to muscles or glands.

They are classified into three categories, each of which is synthesized and stored differently. These categories are:Acetylcholine, monoamines, and amino acidsAcetylcholine is synthesized by combining choline and acetyl CoA in nerve terminals using the enzyme choline acetyltransferase (ChAT). Once synthesized, acetylcholine is stored in vesicles in nerve terminals.Monoamines are synthesized from dietary amino acids, such as phenylalanine, tyrosine, and tryptophan. Monoamines are synthesized using enzymes present in neurons, such as tyrosine hydroxylase and dopamine β-hydroxylase. Once synthesized, monoamines are stored in vesicles in nerve terminals.Amino acids are synthesized by neurons themselves. GABA, for example, is synthesized from glutamate, while glutamate is synthesized from α-ketoglutarate.

Once synthesized, amino acids are stored in vesicles in nerve terminals. The release of neurotransmitters occurs when an action potential reaches the terminal of a presynaptic neuron. This causes the depolarization of the nerve terminal, which in turn triggers the influx of calcium ions into the terminal. The increase in calcium ion concentration causes synaptic vesicles containing neurotransmitters to fuse with the membrane, releasing their contents into the synaptic cleft. Neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the postsynaptic neuron and trigger a response that allows for the propagation of the signal.

To know more about Neurotransmitters  visit

https://brainly.com/question/30336628

#SPJ11

An individuals plasma [Na+] is measured and found to be 130
mEq/L (normal = 145 mEq/L). What is the patient’s estimated plasma
osmolality? (Normal osmolality of the plasma is 290 mOsm/Kg
H2O)

Answers

The patient’s estimated plasma osmolality is 255 mOsm/kg H2O. When plasma [Na+] is measured and found to be 130 mEq/L (normal = 145 mEq/L),

the patient's estimated plasma osmolality can be calculated. We can use the following equation to calculate plasma osmolality. $$Plasma\;Osmolality = 2(Na^+)+\frac{Glucose}{18}+\frac{BUN}{2.8}$$$$Plasma\;Osmolality= 2(130)+\frac{0}{18}+\frac{0}{2.8}$$$$Plasma\;Osmolality= 260$$$$Plasma\;Osmolality= 260\;mOsm/kg\;H_2O$$(Since no values are provided for glucose and BUN)Thus, the patient’s estimated plasma osmolality is 255 mOsm/kg H2O.

To know more about plasma visit the link

https://brainly.com/question/31510915

#SPJ11

Describe physiology changes that occur with pulse rate and
respiratory rate during exercise (2.5 marks)

Answers

Pulse rate and respiratory rate are vital physiological parameters that reflect the functioning of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems, respectively.

Pulse rate refers to the number of times the heart beats per minute and is an indicator of cardiac activity. During physical activity or situations that require increased oxygen delivery, the pulse rate typically increases. This is due to an increase in sympathetic nervous system activity, leading to higher heart rate and cardiac output. The body's demand for oxygen and nutrients rises, and the heart responds by pumping blood at a faster rate to meet these demands. Conversely, at rest or during periods of relaxation, the pulse rate tends to decrease.

Respiratory rate is the number of breaths taken per minute and reflects the efficiency of the respiratory system in delivering oxygen and removing carbon dioxide. An increase in respiratory rate is often observed during physical exertion or when the body needs more oxygen. This is driven by an increased metabolic rate and the need to remove excess carbon dioxide produced during exercise. Similarly, during stressful or anxious situations, the respiratory rate may rise due to heightened sympathetic activity. Conversely, during periods of relaxation or sleep, the respiratory rate tends to decrease.

Both pulse rate and respiratory rate are regulated by the autonomic nervous system, and various factors such as exercise, emotional state, temperature, and medical conditions can influence these parameters. Monitoring changes in pulse rate and respiratory rate can provide valuable insights into an individual's overall health and physiological state.

To know more about Pulse rate click here:

https://brainly.com/question/31594308

#SPJ11

Other Questions
Suppose the economy begins in long run equilibrium. Then, suppose the U.S. dollar appreciates. a. Which curve will shift and in which direction? A. AD will shift Left B. SAS will shift Left OC. SAS will shift Right OD. AD will shift Right b. What will happen to Y, P, and the unemployment rate? A. Y will decrease, P will increase, and the unemployment rate will increase. B. Y will increase, P will increase, and the unemployment rate will decrease. OC. Y will increase, P will decrease, and the unemployment rate will decrease. O D. Y will decrease, P will decrease, and the unemployment rate will increase . c. Is the new equilibrium above, below, or equal to full employment? O A. Above full employment OB. Equal to full employment OC. Below full employment d. Is the unemployment rate above, below, or equal to the Natural Rate of Unemployment? O A. Below NRU O B. Equal to NRU O C. Above NRU e. Is the economy experiencing any added inflation; and if so, is it cost-push or demand-pull inflation? A. Yes, demand-pull inflation. B. Yes, cost-push inflation. O C. N/A the economy is not experiencing any added inflation. f. If the Fed uses monetary policy to correct the economy (assume that they neutralize the shock), which curve will shift and in which direction? A. AD shifts Right B. SAS shifts Left O C. AD shifts Left O D. SAS shifts Right g. What are 3 monetary policies the Fed could use to correct the economy? A. Decrease taxes, increase government spending, and increase transfer payments B. Decrease the discount rate, decrease the IOR rate, and decrease the ON RRP rate. OC. Increase taxes, decrease government spending, and decrease transfer payments D. Increase the discount rate, increase the IOR rate, and increase the ON RRP rate. Prompts Submitted Answers Choose a match A encodes a mutant RNA that is able to respond to a termination codon and insert an amino acid at that site Gr Choose a match encodes a tRNA that has been mutated to recognize a different codon. By inserting a different amino acid at a mutant codon the tRNA suppresses the effect of the original mutation Choose a match ERNA synthetases use to correct insertion of an incorrect amino acid after the addition reaction has been completed Chemical proofreading A mechanism that depends on incorrect events proceeding more slowly than correct events so that incorrect events are reversed before a subunit is added to a polymeric chain The reduced specificity at the wobble position of a codon A decreases the effects of a mutation at this position. B increases the effects of a mutation at this position. has no impact on a mutation's effect at this position. >M12-LCMT-F_D02.ab1AGGGGTCCCTTGACCAC-------- >M13-LCMT-F_E02.ab1AGGGGTCCCTTGACCAC. >M14-LCMT-F_Fe2.ab1AGGAGTCCCTTGACCAC >M15-LCMT-F_Ge2.ab1AGGGGTCCCTTGACCAC- >M12-LCMT-F De2.ab1---- >M16-LCMT F_H02.ab1AGGGGTCCCTTGACCACNNCCNTTC >M13-LCMT-F_E02.ab1-. >M14-LCMT-F_F02.ab1--- >M15-LCMT-F_G02.ab1>M16-LCMT-F_H02.ab1CTCA T T 1 EE -400 425 >M12-LCMT-F_D02.ab1AGGGGTCCCTTGACCAC-------- >M13-LCMT-F_E02.ab1AGGGGTCCCTTGACCAC. >M14-LCMT-F_Fe2.ab1AGGAGTCCCTTGACCAC >M15-LCMT-F_Ge2.ab1AGGGGTCCCTTGACCAC- >M12-LCMT-F De2.ab1---- >M16-LCMT F_H02.ab1AGGGGTCCCTTGACCACNNCCNTTC >M13-LCMT-F_E02.ab1-.>M14-LCMT-F_F02.ab1--- >M15-LCMT-F_G02.ab1 >M16-LCMT-F_H02.ab1CTCA T T 1 EE -400 425 >M12-LCMT-F_D02.ab1AGGGGTCCCTTGACCAC-------- >M13-LCMT-F_E02.ab1AGGGGTCCCTTGACCAC. >M14-LCMT-F_Fe2.ab1AGGAGTCCCTTGACCAC >M15-LCMT-F_Ge2.ab1AGGGGTCCCTTGACCAC- >M12-LCMT-F De2.ab1---- >M16-LCMT-F_H02.ab1AGGGGTCCCTTGACCACNNCCNTTC >M13-LCMT-F_E02.ab1-.>M14-LCMT-F_F02.ab1--- >M15-LCMT-F_G02.ab1 >M16-LCMT-F_H02.ab1CTCA T T 1 EE -400 425 >M12-LCMT-F_D02.ab1AGGGGTCCCTTGACCAC-------- >M13-LCMT-F_E02.ab1AGGGGTCCCTTGACCAC. >M14-LCMT-F_Fe2.ab1AGGAGTCCCTTGACCAC >M15-LCMT-F_Ge2.ab1AGGGGTCCCTTGACCAC- >M12-LCMT-F De2.ab1---->M16-LCMT-F_H02.ab1AGGGGTCCCTTGACCACNNCCNTTC >M13-LCMT-F_E02.ab1-.>M14-LCMT-F_F02.ab1--->M15-LCMT-F_G02.ab1 >M16-LCMT-F_H02.ab1CTCA T T 1 EE -400 425>M12-LCMT-F_D02.ab1AGGGGTCCCTTGACCAC-------- >M13-LCMT-F_E02.ab1AGGGGTCCCTTGACCAC. >M14-LCMT-F_Fe2.ab1AGGAGTCCCTTGACCAC >M15-LCMT-F_Ge2.ab1AGGGGTCCCTTGACCAC- >M12-LCMT-F De2.ab1---- >M16-LCMT-F_H02.ab1AGGGGTCCCTTGACCACNNCCNTTC >M13-LCMT-F_E02.ab1-. >M14-LCMT-F_F02.ab1--->M15-LCMT-F_G02.ab1 >M16-LCMT-F_H02.ab1CTCA T T 1 EE -400 425please write down the differences between the five DNA sequences in each of these images. Explain, compare and contrast. Explain polymorphism, insertion, deletion, addition between these sequences and also explain the yellow parts in the images. Write about each image in a separate paragraph Let us examine a relativistic electron gas, in which the single particle energy reads as a function of its momentum e(p) = (mc2)2 + (cp), where m is the mass of the particle and c is the speed of ligh A person sitting on a Ferris wheel rises and falls as the wheel turns. Suppose that the person's height above ground is described by the following function. h(t)=18.3+16.6cos1.6r In this equation, h(t) is the height above ground in meters, and f is the time in minutes. Find the following. If necessary, round to the nearest hundredth. An object moves in simple harmonic motion with amplitude 8 m and period 4 minutes. At time t = 0 minutes, its displacement d from rest is 0 m, and initially it moves in a positive direction. Give the equation modeling the displacement d as a function of time f. 7. = Sketch the root-locus diagram for the closed-loop poles of the system s (s+7)1 + K ________________________ = 0(s+1)(s+4)(s+20s+125) with given characteristic equations as K varies from 0 to infinity. (16 marks) 1. Here is how to start. You have to show the derived characteristic for each phylum (red) on top of the branch. Next trait is cephalization and the next animal phylum is Platyhelmintes. Next complete Design a wind turbine system for dc load and grid-connected.Design should be in schematic diagram. Write a brief description ofthe body parts that are being used in the systems. Match the best term for the following descriptions: Two versions of the same gene [A] One chromosome contributed by each parent in a diploid organism [B] A human gamete is [C] An inactivated X chromosome appears as a [D] The degree to which a phenotype is manifested [E] Blood types are an example of [F] Correct! [A] Alleles You Answered [B] Sister chromatids v Correct Answer Homolog (a) A solid conical wooden cone (s=0.92), can just float upright with apex down. Denote the dimensions of the cone as R for its radius and H for its height. Determine the apex angle in degrees so that it can just float upright in water. (b) A solid right circular cylinder (s=0.82) is placed in oil(s=0.90). Can it float upright? Show calculations. The radius is R and the height is H. If it cannot float upright, determine the reduced height such that it can just float upright. Initial condition: P = 4 MPa mass = 2 kg saturated Process: Isometric Final condition: Final internal energy, U2 = 2550 = Kj/kg Required: Non-flow work pleas define three fundamental rules of replication. 31. what is the defference between Fischer mechanism and kosland mechanism ? A safety valve of 80 mm diameter is to blow off at a pressure of 1.5 N/mm. it is held on is close coiled helical spring. The maximum lift of the valve is 12 mm. Design a suitable congression spring of spring index 6 and provide an initial compression of 35 mm. The spring is made of patented and cold-drawn steel wire with an ultimate tensile strength of 1500 N/mm mnd a modahs of ripidity of 80 kN/mm. The permissible shear stress for the spring wire should be taken as 30% of the ultimate tensile strength. Calculate:1). Diameter of the spring wire, 2). Mean coil diameter, 3). The number of active turns, and 4). The total number of turns. What are some ethical, medical, economic, and societal issueswith in vitro transcription/ translation (NOT IVF (in vitrofertilization))? Include your references please! Help to determine the specifications (unstretched length and spring constant k) for the elastic cord to be used at a bungee-jumping facility. Participants are to jump from a platform 45m above the ground. When they rebound, they must avoid an obstacle that extends 5m below the point at which they jump.Establish reasonable safety limits for the minimum distance by which participants must avoid the ground and obstacle whilst accounting for different weights for each participant(you may specify the maximum allowable weight for participant). A. 0.25 cm B. 0.5 cm C. 2 cm D. 4 cm Questions 9 and 10 are related to the context below. A. A particle is moving in a two dimensional plane and the position is given by F= (4t-10)i + (8t - 5t)j 9. Indicate those periods since 1973 that we have observed many Bear and Bull Markets. and draw the bar charts explaining the reasons behind each of them. (Hints: Get the data of DOW and S&P 500 percentage changes during these periods and plot in bar charts). During this period, how many times the economy was in recession and recovery? What economic factor(s) triggered these. Explain them in charts and diagrams. A vertical, irregularly shaped plate is submerged in water. The table shows measurements of its width, taken at the indicated depths. Depth, x 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0 4.5 5.0 Plate width, w(x) 0 0.8 1.7 2.4 2.9 3.3 3.6 (a) 2 Approximate the force of water against the plate, F = pg|xw(x) dx area of cross section using Simpson's 1/3rd Rule. Given p=1000kg/m and g = 9.8 m/s. (5 marks) (b) Approximate the force of water against the plate, F = pg] xw(x) dx area of cross = P8|3 2 section using Simpson's 3/8th Rule correct to 2 decimal places. Given p=1000kg/m and g = 9.8m/s. What functional assays did Kazutoshi Takahasi and Shinya Yamanaka use to show that induced pluripotent stem (IPS) cells function similarly to embryonic stem (ES) cells? Name 2. Question 6. Cancer is a genetic disease in that it can be traced to alterations within specific genes, but, in most cases, it is not an inherited disease. Why is that the case? Question 7. Under the same cell culture conditions that lead cultured normal cells to reduce their growth rates, what happens to malignant cells? Question 8. What current method for cancer treatment attempts to involve the body's immune system to fight cancer? What is the type number of the following system: G(s) = (s +2) /s^2(s +8) (A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3