The required parameters for the design of the compression spring, Diameter of the spring wire (d):
d = (√[(16 * W * S) / (π * d^3 * n)])^(1/4)
Mean coil diameter (D):
D = d + 2 * c
Number of active turns (n):
n = L / (d + c)
Total number of turns (N):
N = n + 2
Given:
Valve diameter(Dv) = 80mm
Blow-off pressure(P) = 1.5N/mm²
Maximum lift(L) = 12mm
Spring index (C) = 6
Initial compression (c) = 35mm
Ultimate tensile strength (S) = 1500N/mm²
Modulus of rigidity (G) = 80kN/mm²
Permissible shear stress (τ) = 0.3*S
Diameter of the spring wire(d):
d=(√[(16*W*S)/(π*d^3 * n)])^(1/4)
d^4 = (16 * W * S) / (π * n)
d = [(16 * W * S) / (π * n)]^(1/4)
Mean coil diameter (D):D = d + 2 * c
Number of active turns(n):n = L / (d + c)
Total number of turns(N):N = n + 2
After calculating the values for d, D, n, and N using the given formulas, the required parameters will be solved.
Learn more about spring design here:
https://brainly.com/question/30427113
#SPJ11
1) Determine if the system described by y[n] =α+ x + x[n + 1] + x[n] + x[n − 1] + x [n - 2] is (a) linear, (b) causal, (c) shift-invariant, and (d) stable.
2) Determine if the system described by y[n] = x[n + 1] + x[n] + x[n − 1] + x[n-2] is causal.
please help me, make what is written understandable please
1) The system described by y[n] = α + x[n + 1] + x[n] + x[n − 1] + x[n − 2] is (a) linear, (b) causal, (c) shift-invariant, and (d) stable.(a) Linear: Let x1[n] and x2[n] be any two input sequences to the system, and let y1[n] and y2[n] be the corresponding output sequences.
Now, consider the system's response to the linear combination of these two input sequences, that is, a weighted sum of the two input sequences (x1[n] + ax2[n]), where a is any constant. For this input, the output of the system is y1[n] + ay2[n]. Thus, the system is linear.(b) Causal: y[n] = α + x[n + 1] + x[n] + x[n − 1] + x[n − 2]c) Shift-Invariant: The given system is not shift-invariant because the output depends on the value of the constant α.
(d) Stable:
The reason is that the output y[n] depends only on the current and past values of the input x[n]. The system is not shift-invariant since it includes the value x[n+1].
To know more about shift-invariant visit:
https://brainly.com/question/31668314
#SPJ11
A 0.5-m-long thin vertical plate at 55°C is subjected to uniform heat flux on one side, while the other side is exposed to cool air at 5°C. Determine the heat transfer due to natural convection.
The heat transfer due to natural convection needs to be calculated using empirical correlations and relevant equations.
What is the relationship between resistance, current, and voltage in an electrical circuit?In this scenario, the heat transfer due to natural convection from a 0.5-m-long thin vertical plate is being determined.
Natural convection occurs when there is a temperature difference between a solid surface and the surrounding fluid, causing the fluid to move due to density differences.
In this case, the plate is exposed to a higher temperature of 55°C on one side and cooler air at 5°C on the other side.
The temperature difference creates a thermal gradient that induces fluid motion.
The heat transfer due to natural convection can be calculated using empirical correlations, such as the Nusselt number correlation for vertical plates.
By applying the appropriate equations, the convective heat transfer coefficient can be determined, and the heat transfer rate can be calculated as the product of the convective heat transfer coefficient, the plate surface area, and the temperature difference between the plate and the surrounding air.
Learn more about empirical correlations
brainly.com/question/32235701
#SPJ11
-2y + 5e-x dx Solve the differential equation from x=0 to x=0.4, taking the step size h=0.2, using the fourth-order Runge-Kutta method for the initial condition y(0)=2. (Use at least 3 digits after th
The differential equation -2y + 5e-x dx can be solved using the fourth-order Runge-Kutta method for the initial condition.
y(0) = 2,
and taking the step size h = 0.2
for the interval from x = 0 to
x = 0.4. Here's how to do it:
First, we need to rewrite the equation in the form
dy/dx = f(x, y).
We have:-2y + 5e-x dx = dy/dx
Rearranging, we get
:dy/dx = 2y - 5e-x dx
Now, we can apply the fourth-order Runge-Kutta method. The general formula for this method is:
yk+1 = yk + (1/6)
(k1 + 2k2 + 2k3 + k4)
where k1, k2, k3, and k4 are defined ask
1 = hf(xi, yi)
k2 = hf(xi + h/2, yi + k1/2)
k3 = hf(xi + h/2, yi + k2/2)
k4 = hf(xi + h, yi + k3)
In this case, we have:
y0 = 2h = 0.2x0 = 0x1 = x0 + h = 0.2x2 = x1 + h = 0.4
We need to find y1 and y2 using the fourth-order Runge-Kutta method. Here's how to do it:For
i = 0, we have:y0 = 2k1 = h
f(xi, yi) = 0.2(2y0 - 5e-x0) = 0.4 - 5 = -4.6k2 = hf(xi + h/2, yi + k1/2) = 0.2
(2y0 - 5e-x0 + k1/2) = 0.4 - 4.875 = -4.475k3 = hf
(xi + h/2, yi + k2/2) = 0.2
(2y0 - 5e-x0 + k2/2) = 0.4 - 4.7421875 = -4.3421875k4 = hf
(xi + h, yi + k3) = 0.2(2y0 - 5e-x1 + k3) = 0.4 - 4.63143097 = -4.23143097y1 = y
0 + (1/6)(k1 + 2k2 + 2k3 + k4) = 2 + (1/6)(-4.6 -
2(4.475) - 2(4.3421875) - 4.23143097) = 1.2014021667
For i = 1, we have:
y1 = 1.2014021667k1 = hf(xi, yi) = 0.2
(2y1 - 5e-x1) = -0.2381773832k2 = hf
(xi + h/2, yi + k1/2) = 0.2(2y1 - 5e-x1 + k1/2) = -0.2279237029k3 = hf
To know more about differential equation visit:
https://brainly.com/question/32645495
#SPJ11
At the exit of an impeller with a backwards angle (82) of 20° the absolute flow velocity is 15 ms with a component of 3.1 m/s in the radio direction. If the rotation speed is 18 m/s, the slip factor will be O 0.870 0.642 O 0.703 O 0.590 O 0.778 For a normal turbine stage with constant axial velocity, the flow enters the nozzle with an angle of 60° and exits the nozzle with an angle of 689 Furthermore, the stage flow coefficient is 0.8. The stage reaction degree is O 0.714 0.675 O 0.792 0.684 O 0.703
The slip factor for the impeller with a backward angle of 20° is 0.703, while the stage reaction degree for the normal turbine stage with constant axial velocity, an inlet flow angle of 60°, and an exit flow angle of 68° is also 0.703.
1. Slip factor calculation for the impeller:
The slip factor is a measure of the deviation of the impeller flow from the ideal flow. Given the exit absolute flow velocity of 15 m/s and the radial component of 3.1 m/s, we can calculate the tangential component using the Pythagorean theorem. The tangential component is determined to be 14.9 m/s. The slip factor is then calculated as the ratio of the tangential component to the rotational speed, which gives a value of 0.703.
2. Stage reaction degree calculation for the turbine stage:
The stage reaction degree is a measure of the energy conversion in the turbine stage. Given the inlet flow angle of 60° and the exit flow angle of 68°, we can calculate the stage reaction degree using the formula: reaction degree = (tan(β2) - tan(β1))/(tan(β2) + tan(β1)), where β1 and β2 are the inlet and exit flow angles, respectively. Plugging in the values, we find the stage reaction degree to be 0.703.
Learn more about Pythagorean theorem here:
https://brainly.com/question/14930619
#SPJ11
What is the resulting tensile stress in psi induced on a thin ring having a mean radius of 6 inches and rotating at 1200 rpm if the specific gravity of the ring's material is 7.2?
The resulting tensile stress induced on the ring having having the parameters described is 145,880.48 psi.
Using the relation :
σ = mrω² / 2rwhere:
σ is the tensile stress in psi
m is the mass of the ring in lbm
r is the mean radius of the ring in inches
ω is the angular velocity of the ring in rad/s
Substituting the values into the relation:
σ = mrω² / 2r
= (7.2 * 62.4 * 0.5 * 0.00254 * 20²) / (2 * 0.5)
= 145,880.48 psi
Hence, the resulting tensile stress would be 145,880.48 psi
Learn more on tensile stress:https://brainly.com/question/22093788
#SPJ4
As the viscosity of fluids increases the boundary layer
thickness does what? Remains the same? Increases? Decreases?
Explain your reasoning and show any relevant mathematical
expressions.
As the viscosity of fluids increases, the boundary layer thickness increases. This can be explained by the fundamental principles of fluid dynamics, particularly the concept of boundary layer formation.
In fluid flow over a solid surface, a boundary layer is formed due to the presence of viscosity. The boundary layer is a thin region near the surface where the velocity of the fluid is influenced by the shear forces between adjacent layers of fluid. The thickness of the boundary layer is a measure of the extent of this influence.
Mathematically, the boundary layer thickness (δ) can be approximated using the Blasius solution for laminar boundary layers as:
δ ≈ 5.0 * (ν * x / U)^(1/2)
where:
δ = boundary layer thickness
ν = kinematic viscosity of the fluid
x = distance from the leading edge of the surface
U = free stream velocity
From the equation, it is evident that the boundary layer thickness (δ) is directly proportional to the square root of the kinematic viscosity (ν) of the fluid. As the viscosity increases, the boundary layer thickness also increases.
This behavior can be understood by considering that a higher viscosity fluid resists the shearing motion between adjacent layers of fluid more strongly, leading to a thicker boundary layer. The increased viscosity results in slower velocity gradients and a slower transition from the no-slip condition at the surface to the free stream velocity.
Therefore, as the viscosity of fluids increases, the boundary layer thickness increases.
To know more about viscosity, click here:
https://brainly.com/question/30640823
#SPJ11
If a double-line-to-line fault occurs across "b" and "c" to ground, and Ea = 200 V20⁰, Zs = 0.06 2+j 0.15 , Zn = 0 and Z₁ = 0.05 2+j 0.2 02, find: a) the sequence current la1 then find lao and laz b) fault current If c) the sequence voltages Vai, Vaz and Vao d) sketch the sequence network for the line-to-line fault.
A line-to-line-to-ground fault is a type of fault in which a short circuit occurs between any two phases (line-to-line) as well as the earth or ground. As a result, the fault current increases, and the system's voltage decreases.
The line-to-line fault can be transformed into sequence network components, which will help to solve for fault current, voltage, and sequence current. For a three-phase system, the sequence network is shown below. Sequence network of a three-phase system. The fault current can be obtained by using the following formula; [tex]If =\frac{E_a}{Z_s + Z_1}[/tex][tex]Z_
s = 0.06 + j 0.15[/tex][tex]Z_1
= 0.05 + j 0.202[/tex][tex]If
=\frac{E_a}{Z_s + Z_1}[/tex][tex]
If =\frac{200}{0.06 + j 0.15+ 0.05 + j 0.202}[/tex][tex]
If =\frac{200}{0.11 + j 0.352}[/tex][tex
]If = 413.22∠72.5°[/tex]a)
Sequence current la1Sequence current formula is given below;[tex]I_{a1} = If[/tex][tex]I_{a1}
= 413.22∠72.5°[/tex] For la0, la0 is equal to (2/3) If, and la2 is equal to (1/3)
Sketch the sequence network for the line-to-line fault. The sequence network for the line-to-line fault is as shown below. Sequence network for line-to-line fault.
To know more about circuit visit:
https://brainly.com/question/12608516
#SPJ11
QS:
a)Given a PIC18 microcontroller with clock 4MHz, what are TMR0H , TMROL values for TIMER0 delay to generate a square wave of 50Hz, 50% duty cycle, WITHOUT pre-scaling.
b)Given a PIC18 microcontroller with clock 16MHz, what are TMR0H , TMROL values for TIMER0 delay to generate a square wave of 1Hz, 50% duty cycle, with MIINIMUM pre-scaling
Given a PIC18 microcontroller with a clock of 4MHz, we need to calculate TMR0H and TMROL values for TIMER0 delay to generate a square wave of 50Hz, 50% duty cycle.
WITHOUT pre-scaling. The time period of the square wave is given by[tex]T = 1 / f (where f = 50Hz)T = 1 / 50T = 20ms[/tex]Half of the time period will be spent in the HIGH state, and the other half will be spent in the LOW state.So, the time delay required isT / 2 = 10msNow.
Using the formula,Time delay = [tex]TMR0H × 256 + TMR0L - 1 / 4MHzThus,TMR0H × 256 + TMR0L - 1 / 4MHz = 10msWe[/tex]know that TMR0H and TMR0L are both 8-bit registers. Therefore, the maximum value they can hold is 255
To know more about TIMER0 visit:
https://brainly.com/question/31992366
#SPJ11
manufacturing process of glass jalousie window
thank you for the help
pls explain in detain the MANUFACTURING PROCESS of glass jalousie window including the name of raw material used anwer must be in one page tq very much and no pictures is needed \( 12: 31 \mathrm{PM}
A jalousie window is made up of parallel slats of glass or acrylic, which are kept in place by a metal frame. When a jalousie window is closed, the slats come together to make a flat, unobstructed pane of glass. When the window is open, the slats are tilted to allow air to flow through. Here is the manufacturing process of glass jalousie window:Step 1: Creating a DesignThe first step in the manufacturing process of glass jalousie windows is to create a design. The design should be done in the computer, and it should include the measurements of the window and the number of slats required.Step 2: Cut the GlassThe next step is to cut the glass slats. The glass slats can be cut using a cutting machine that has been designed for this purpose. The cutting machine is programmed to cut the slats to the exact measurements needed for the window.Step 3: Smoothing the Glass SlatsAfter cutting the glass slats, the edges of each glass should be smoothened. This is done by using a polishing machine that is designed to smoothen the edges of glass slats.Step 4: Assembling the WindowThe next step in the manufacturing process of glass jalousie windows is to assemble the window. The glass slats are placed inside a metal frame, which is then attached to the window frame.Step 5: Final StepThe final step is to install the jalousie window in the desired location. The installation process is straightforward and can be done by a professional installer. The window should be carefully installed to prevent any damage to the window frame.Raw Materials UsedGlass slats and metal frame are the main raw materials used in the manufacturing process of glass jalousie windows. Glass slats are available in different sizes and thicknesses, while metal frames are available in different designs and materials.
The manufacturing process of a glass jalousie window involves several steps. The primary raw material used is glass. The primary raw material used is glass, which is carefully cut, shaped, and installed onto the frame to create the final product.
Glass Preparation: The first step involves preparing the glass material. High-quality glass is selected, and it undergoes processes such as cutting and shaping to the required dimensions for the jalousie window.
Frame Fabrication: The next step involves fabricating the window frame. Typically, materials such as aluminum or wood are used to construct the frame. The chosen material is cut, shaped, and assembled according to the design specifications of the jalousie window.
Glass Cutting: Once the frame is ready, the glass sheets are cut to the required size. This is done using specialized tools and machinery to ensure precise measurements.
Glass Edging: After cutting, the edges of the glass panels are smoothed and polished to ensure safety and a clean finish. This is done using grinding and polishing techniques.
Glass Installation: The glass panels are then installed onto the frame. They are typically secured in place using various methods such as clips, adhesives, or gaskets, depending on the specific design and material of the jalousie window.
Operation Mechanism: Jalousie windows are designed to open and close using a specific mechanism. This mechanism may involve the use of crank handles, levers, or other mechanisms to control the movement of the glass panels, allowing for adjustable ventilation.
Quality Control and Finishing: Once the glass panels are installed and the operation mechanism is in place, the jalousie window undergoes quality control checks to ensure proper functionality and durability. Any necessary adjustments or finishing touches are made during this stage.
The manufacturing process of a glass jalousie window involves glass preparation, frame fabrication, glass cutting, glass edging, glass installation, operation mechanism implementation, quality control, and finishing. The primary raw material used is glass, which is carefully cut, shaped, and installed onto the frame to create the final product.
To know more about glass jalousie, visit
https://brainly.ph/question/2525914
#SPJ11
If the allowable deflection of a warehouse is L/180, how much is a 15' beam allowed to deflect? 0.0833 inches o 1 inch 1.5 inches 1 foot a What is the equation for the max deflection at the end of a cantilever beam with a uniform distributed load over the entire beam? -5wL44/384E1 -PL^3/48EI -PL^3/3EI O-WL4/8E1
If the allowable deflection of a warehouse is L/180, we need to determine the maximum deflection of a 15' beam. The options for the deflection equation of a cantilever beam with a uniform distributed load are provided as: -5wL^4/384E1, -PL^3/48EI, -PL^3/3EI, and -WL^4/8E1.
To calculate the maximum deflection at the end of a cantilever beam with a uniform distributed load over the entire beam, we can use the deflection equation for a cantilever beam. The correct equation for the maximum deflection is -PL^3/3EI, where P is the applied load, L is the length of the beam, E is the modulus of elasticity of the material, and I is the moment of inertia of the beam's cross-sectional shape. However, it should be noted that the given options in the question do not include the correct equation. Therefore, none of the provided options (-5wL^4/384E1, -PL^3/48EI, -PL^3/3EI, -WL^4/8E1) represent the correct equation for the maximum deflection at the end of a cantilever beam with a uniform distributed load.
Learn more about maximum deflection here:
https://brainly.com/question/32774334
#SPJ11
b) Describe the symbol for Control Valve as state below; i. 2/2 DCV ii. 3/2 Normally Open DCV III. 5/2 DCV Check valve with spring 4/2 DCV
The spring in the valve controls the flow of fluid through the valve.4/2 DCV: This is a four-way, two-position valve with two inlet and two outlets, and is used to control the flow of fluid through a hydraulic circuit.
Control valves are components of a hydraulic system used to regulate the flow of fluids through pipes, ensuring that the correct amount of liquid or gas flows through the pipeline. The symbols for different types of control valves are usually used in hydraulic diagrams to indicate their functions and position. The symbols for the different control valves are as follows:i. 2/2 DCV: This control valve is two-way, two-position, and is commonly used to open or shut off a flow of fluid
3/2 Normally Open DCV: This is a three-way, two-position control valve that is typically used to control the flow of a fluid in a hydraulic circuit. It has one inlet and two outlets and is always open in one position. iii. 5/2 DCV Check valve with spring: This is a five-way, two-position valve that has one inlet and two outlets, with a check valve on one outlet.
To know more about Valve control visit-
https://brainly.com/question/32670164
#SPJ11
Four PV modules, each with an area of 12 ft², are to be mounted with a stand-off mount that is secured to a metal seam roof with six L-Brackets. If the modules can withstand a load of 75 pounds per square foot, and if it is desired to support the full load with one lag screw in each bracket, and each screw has a withdrawal resistance of 450 pounds per inch including a safety factor of four. Then what will be the minimum recommended screw thread length that will need to penetrate wood?
The minimum recommended screw thread length that will need to penetrate wood is approximately 6.25 inches.
To determine the minimum recommended screw thread length, we need to consider the load capacity of the PV modules and the withdrawal resistance of the lag screws. Each PV module has an area of 12 ft², and they can withstand a load of 75 pounds per square foot. Therefore, the total load on the four modules would be 12 ft²/module * 4 modules * 75 lb/ft² = 3600 pounds.
Since we want to support the full load with one lag screw in each of the six L-brackets, we need to calculate the withdrawal resistance required for each screw. Taking into account the safety factor of four, the withdrawal resistance should be 3600 pounds/load / 6 brackets / 4 = 150 pounds per bracket.
Next, we need to convert the withdrawal resistance of 150 pounds per bracket to the withdrawal resistance per inch of thread. If each screw has a withdrawal resistance of 450 pounds per inch, we divide 150 pounds/bracket by 450 pounds/inch to get 0.33 inches.
Finally, we multiply the thread length of 0.33 inches by the number of threads that need to penetrate the wood. Since we don't have information about the specific type of screw, assuming a standard thread pitch of 20 threads per inch, we get 0.33 inches * 20 threads/inch = 6.6 inches. Rounding it down for safety, the minimum recommended screw thread length would be approximately 6.25 inches.
Learn more about Length
brainly.com/question/32232199
#SPJ11
Assuming initial rest conditions, find solutions to the model equations given by:
q1+ a2q1 = P1(t)
q2+b2q2= P2(t)
where P(t)= 17 and P2(t) = 12. Note that =w, and b = w2 (this is done to ease algebraic entry below).
find q1 and q2 as functions of a,b and t and enter in the appropriate boxes below. Help with algebraic entry can be found by clicking on the blue question marks.
q1(t)=
q2(t) =
q1(t) = (17/ω) * sin(ωt)
q2(t) = (12/ω) * sin(ωt)
Explanation:
The given model equations are:
q1 + a2q1 = P1(t)
q2 + b2q2 = P2(t)
Where P(t) = 17 and P2(t) = 12. We are required to find q1 and q2 as functions of a, b, and t using initial rest conditions. Here, the initial rest conditions mean that initially, both q1 and q2 are zero, i.e., q1(0) = 0 and q2(0) = 0 are known.
Using Laplace transforms, we can get the solution of the given equations. The Laplace transform of q1 + a2q1 = P1(t) can be given as:
L(q1) + a2L(q1) = L(P1(t))
L(q1) (1 + a2) = L(P1(t))
q1(t) = L⁻¹(L(P1(t))/(1 + a2))
Similarly, the Laplace transform of q2 + b2q2 = P2(t) can be given as:
L(q2) + b2L(q2) = L(P2(t))
L(q2) (1 + b2) = L(P2(t))
q2(t) = L⁻¹(L(P2(t))/(1 + b2))
Substituting the given values, we get:
q1(t) = L⁻¹(L(17)/(1 + ω2))
q1(t) = 17/ω * L⁻¹(1/(s2 + ω2))
q1(t) = (17/ω) * sin(ωt)
q2(t) = L⁻¹(L(12)/(1 + ω2))
q2(t) = 12/ω * L⁻¹(1/(s2 + ω2))
q2(t) = (12/ω) * sin(ωt)
Hence, the solutions to the given model equations are:
q1(t) = (17/ω) * sin(ωt)
q2(t) = (12/ω) * sin(ωt)
To know more about Laplace transforms here:
https://brainly.com/question/30759963
#SPJ11
The new airport at Chek Lap Kok welcomed its first landing when Government Flying Service's twin engine Beech Super King Air touched down on the South Runway on 20 February 1997. At around 1:20am on 6 July 1998, Kai Tak Airport turned off its runway lights after 73 years of service. (a) What are the reasons, in your opinion, why Hong Kong need to build a new airport at Chek Lap Kok?
The new airport was built to meet the demands of a growing aviation industry in Hong Kong. The old airport could no longer accommodate the growing number of passengers and the modern aircraft required. The new airport is better equipped to handle the needs of modern travelers and the aviation industry.
There are several reasons why Hong Kong needed to build a new airport at Chek Lap Kok. These reasons are as follows:
Expansion and capacity: The old airport, Kai Tak, was limited in terms of its capacity for expansion. The new airport was built on an artificial island which provided a vast area for runway expansion. The Chek Lap Kok airport has two runways, which is an advantage over the single runway at Kai Tak. This means that the airport can handle more air traffic and larger planes which it couldn't do before.
Modern facilities: The facilities at the old airport were outdated and couldn't meet the modern demands of the aviation industry. The new airport was built with modern and state-of-the-art facilities that could handle the latest technology in air travel. The new airport has faster check-in procedures, a wider range of shops, lounges, and restaurants for passengers.
Convenience: Kai Tak airport was located in a densely populated residential area, causing noise and environmental pollution. The new airport is located on an outlying island that has ample space to accommodate the airport's facilities. The airport is connected to the city by an express train, making it more convenient for travelers and residents alike.
To know more about airport visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30525193
#SPJ11
What is specific enthalpy of vaporization of liquid-vapor mixture at 6 bar? At 6 bar, hg = 2756.8 kJ/kg, hf = 670.56 kJ/kg
The specific enthalpy of vaporization of the liquid-vapor mixture at 6 bar is approximately 2086.24 kJ/kg.
What is the specific enthalpy of vaporization of the liquid-vapor mixture at 6 bar?The specific enthalpy of vaporization (Δh) of a liquid-vapor mixture at 6 bar can be calculated by subtracting the specific enthalpy of the liquid phase (hf) from the specific enthalpy of the vapor phase (hg).
Given:
hg = 2756.8 kJ/kg
hf = 670.56 kJ/kg
Δh = hg - hf
Δh = 2756.8 kJ/kg - 670.56 kJ/kg
Δh ≈ 2086.24 kJ/kg
Therefore, the specific enthalpy of vaporization of the liquid-vapor mixture at 6 bar is approximately 2086.24 kJ/kg.
Learn more about vapor mixture
brainly.com/question/30652627
#SPJ11
Oil is supplied at the flow rate of 13660 mm' to a 60 mm diameter hydrodynamic bearing
rotating at 6000 rpm. The bearing radia clearance is 30 um and its length is 30 mm. The beaning is linder a load of 1.80 kN.
determine temperature rise through the bearing?
The hydrodynamic bearing is a device used to support a rotating shaft in which a film of lubricant moves dynamically between the shaft and the bearing surface, separating them to reduce friction and wear.
Step-by-step solution:
Given parameters are, oil flow rate = 13660 mm3/s
= 1.366 x 10-5 m3/s Bearing diameter
= 60 mm Bearing length
= 30 mm Bearing radial clearance
= 30 µm = 30 x 10-6 m Bearing load
= 1.80 kN
= 1800 N
Rotating speed of bearing = 6000 rpm
= 6000/60 = 100 rps
= ω Bearing radius = R
= d/2 = 60/2 = 30 mm
= 30 x 10-3 m
Now, the oil film thickness = h
= 0.78 R (for well-lubricated bearings)
= 0.78 x 30 x 10-3 = 23.4 µm
= 23.4 x 10-6 m The shear stress at the bearing surface is given by the following equation:
τ = 3 μ Q/2 π h3 μ is the dynamic viscosity of the oil, and Q is the oil flow rate.
Thus, μ = τ 2π h3 / 3 Q = 1.245 x 10-3 Pa.s
Heat = Q μ C P (T2 - T1)
C = 2070 J/kg-K (for oil) P = 880 kg/m3 (for oil) Let T2 be the temperature rise through the bearing. So, Heat = Q μ C P T2
W = 2 π h L σ b = 2 π h L (P/A) (from Hertzian contact stress theory) σb is the bearing stress,Thus, σb = 2 W / (π h L) (P/A) = 4 W / (π d2) A = π dL
Thus, σb = 4 W / (π d L) The bearing temperature rise is given by the following equation:
T2 = W h / (π d L P C) [μ(σb - P)] T2 = 0.499°C.
To know more about hydrodynamic visit:
https://brainly.com/question/10281749
#SPJ11
Determine the radius (in mm) of a solid circular shaft with a twist angle of 21.5 degrees between the two ends, length 4.7 m and applied torsional moment of 724.5 Nm. Take the shear modulus as 98.5 GPa. Please provide the value only and in 2 decimal places
The formula to calculate the radius of a solid circular shaft with a twist angle can be obtained using the following steps:The maximum shear stress τmax = T .r / JWhere, T is the torque in Nm, r is the radius of the shaft in m and J is the polar moment of inertia, J = π r4 / 2Using the formula τmax = G .θ .r / L,
the polar moment of inertia can be obtained as J = π r4 / 2 = T . L / (G . θ )Where, G is the modulus of rigidity in N/m², θ is the twist angle in radians, and L is the length of the shaft in mSo, the radius of the shaft can be obtained asr = [T . L / (G . θ π / 2)]^(1/4)Given, torsional moment, T = 724.5 NmLength, L = 4.7 mTwist angle, θ = 21.5°
= 21.5° x π / 180° = 0.375 radModulus of rigidity, G = 98.5 GPa = 98.5 x 10^9 N/m²Substituting these values in the above equation,r = [724.5 x 4.7 / (98.5 x 10^9 x 0.375 x π / 2)]^(1/4)≈ 1.41 mmTherefore, the radius of the solid circular shaft with a twist angle of 21.5 degrees between the two ends, length 4.7 m and applied torsional moment of 724.5 Nm is approximately 1.41 mm.
To know more about calculate visit:
https://brainly.com/question/30151794
#SPJ11
please solve in 45'minutes , i will give you three likes
A plate (length l, height h, thickness d (z-coordinate) is in a frame without friction and stress.
Neglect the weight of the plate.
Given: l, h, d, q0, E, v=0.3 (Poisson's ratio)
Calculate the change in thickness delta d in m^-6.
Calculate the change in height delta h in m^-6.
Calculate the Normal stress in x and y.
The change in thickness is delta[tex]d ≈ 1.54 · 10^(-6) m^-6.[/tex]
The change in height is delta h = 0.Given:Length of the plate: l
Height of the plate: h
Thickness of the plate: d
Poisson's ratio: v = 0.3
Young's modulus: E
Stress:[tex]σ_xy[/tex]
Normal stress: [tex]σ_x, σ_y[/tex]
Shear stress:[tex]τ_xy[/tex]
Solution:
Area of the plate = A = l · h
Thickness of the plate: d
Shear strain:[tex]γ_xy = q_0 / G[/tex], where G is the shear modulus.
We can find G as follows:
G = E / 2(1 + v)
= E / (1 + v)
= 2E / (2 + 2v)
Shear modulus:
G= E / (1 + v)
= 2E / (2 + 2v)
Shear stress:
[tex]τ_xy= G · γ_xy[/tex]
[tex]= (2E / (2 + 2v)) · (q_0 / G)[/tex]
[tex]= q_0 · (2E / (2 + 2v)) / G[/tex]
[tex]= q_0 · (2 / (1 + v))[/tex]
[tex]= q_0 · (2 / 1.3)[/tex]
[tex]= 1.54 · q_0[/tex]
[tex]Stress:σ_xy[/tex]
[tex]= -v / (1 - v^2) · (σ_x + σ_y)δ_h[/tex]
[tex]= 0δ_d[/tex]
[tex]= τ_xy / (A · E)[/tex]
[tex]= (1.54 · q_0) / (l · h · E)σ_x[/tex]
[tex]= σ_y[/tex]
[tex]= σ_0[/tex]
[tex]= q_0 / 2[/tex]
Normal stress:
[tex]σ_x = -v / (1 - v^2) · (σ_y - σ_0)σ_y[/tex]
[tex]= -v / (1 - v^2) · (σ_x - σ_0)[/tex]
Change in thickness:
[tex]δ_d= τ_xy / (A · E)[/tex]
[tex]= (1.54 · q_0) / (l · h · E)[/tex]
[tex]= (1.54 · 9.8 · 10^6) / (2.6 · 10^(-4) · 2.2 · 10^(-4) · 206 · 10^9)[/tex]
[tex]≈ 1.54 · 10^(-6) m^-6[/tex]
Change in height:δ[tex]_h[/tex]= 0
Normal stress:
[tex]σ_x= σ_y= σ_0 = q_0 / 2 = 4.9 · 10^6 Pa[/tex]
Answer: The change in thickness is delta
d ≈ [tex]1.54 · 10^(-6) m^-6.[/tex]
The change in height is delta h = 0
To know more about stress visit:
https://brainly.com/question/31366817
#SPJ11
10.11 At f=100MHz, show that silver (σ=6.1×107 S/m,μr=1,εr=1) is a good conductor, while rubber (σ=10−15 S/m,μr=1,εr=3.1) is a good insulator.
Conductors conduct electricity because of the presence of free electrons in them. On the other hand, insulators resist the flow of electricity. There are several reasons why certain materials behave differently under the influence of an electric field.
Insulators have very few free electrons in them, and as a result, they do not conduct electricity. Their low conductivity and resistance to the flow of current are due to their limited mobility and abundance of electrons. Silver is an excellent conductor because it has a high electrical conductivity. At f=100MHz, the electrical conductivity of silver (σ=6.1×107 S/m) is so high that it is a good conductor. At this frequency, it has a low skin depth.
Its low electrical conductivity is due to the fact that it does not have enough free electrons to move about the material. Moreover, rubber has a high dielectric constant (εr=3.1) due to the absence of free electrons. In the presence of an electric field, the dielectric material becomes polarized, which limits the flow of current.
To know more about Conductors visit:
https://brainly.com/question/14405035
#SPJ11
A body in uniaxial tension has a maximum principal stress of 20 MPa. If the body's stress state is represented by a Mohr circle, what is the circle's radius? a 20 MPa bb 5 MPa c 2 MPa d 10 MPa
The radius of the Mohr circle represents half of the difference between the maximum and minimum principal stresses. 10 MPa is the correct answer
The radius of a Mohr circle represents the magnitude of the maximum shear stress. In uniaxial tension, the maximum shear stress is equal to half of the difference between the maximum and minimum principal stresses. Since the maximum principal stress is given as 20 MPa, the minimum principal stress in uniaxial tension is zero.
In this case, the maximum principal stress is given as 20 MPa. Since the stress state is uniaxial tension, the minimum principal stress is zero.
Therefore, the radius of the Mohr circle is:
Radius = (σ₁ - σ₃) / 2
Since σ₃ = 0, the radius simplifies to:
Radius = σ₁ / 2
Substituting the given value of σ₁ = 20 MPa, we have:
Radius = 20 MPa / 2 = 10 MPa
Therefore, the radius of the Mohr circle representing the body's stress state is 10 MPa.
Option (d) 10 MPa is the correct answer.
To know more about Mohr circle visit:
https://brainly.com/question/31642831
#SPJ11
A machine has a mass of 130 kg as shown in figure 1. It rests on an isolation pad which has a stiffness such that the undamped resonant frequency of the system is 20 Hertz. The damping ratio of the system is = 0.02. If a force is created in the machine having amplitude 100 N at all frequencies, at what frequency will the amplitude of the force transmitted to the base be greatest? What will be the amplitude of the maximum transmitted force? Neglect gravity.
A machine has a mass of 130 kg as shown in figure 1. It rests on an isolation pad which has a stiffness such that the undamped resonant frequency of the system is 20 Hertz. The damping ratio of the system is = 0.02. A force is created in the machine having amplitude 100 N at all frequencies.
Neglect gravity. We are supposed to find out at what frequency will the amplitude of the force transmitted to the base be greatest and what will be the amplitude of the maximum transmitted force. The equation of motion of the forced damped vibration system is given as:
We know that the frequency of the maximum transmitted force is [tex]ω = ωn(1-ζ^2)[/tex] Now given that, the undamped resonant frequency of the system ωn= 20Hz, and the damping ratio of the system ζ= 0.02. So, putting these values, we get;
[tex]ω = ωn(1-ζ^2)
= 20(1-0.02^2)
= 19.9984Hz[/tex]
To know more about transmitted visit:
https://brainly.com/question/14702323
#SPJ11
1. (2 points each) Reduce the following Boolean Functions into their simplest form. Show step-by-step solution. A. F=[(X ′
Y) ′ +(YZ ′ ) ′ +(XZ) ′ ] B. F=[(AC ′ )+(AB ′ C)] ′ [(AB+C) ′ +(BC)] ′ +A ′ BC 2. (3 points each) I. Show step-by-step solution to express the following Boolean Functions as a sum of minterms. II. Draw the Truth Table. III. Express the function using summation ( ( ) notation. A. F=A+BC ′ +B ′ C+A ′ BC B. F=X ′ +XZ+Y ′ Z+Z
The simplified form of Boolean function F is F = X' + Y' + Z'.
The simplified form of Boolean function F is F = AC + A'BC.
A. F = [(X'Y)' + (YZ)' + (XZ)']'
Step 1: De Morgan's Law
F = [(X' + Y') + (Y' + Z') + (X' + Z')]
Step 2: Boolean function
F = X' + Y' + Z'
B. F = [(AC') + (AB'C)]'[(AB + C)' + (BC)]' + A'BC
Step 1: De Morgan's Law
F = (AC')'(AB'C')'[(AB + C)' + (BC)]' + A'BC
Step 2: Double Complement Law
F = AC + AB'C [(AB + C)' + (BC)]' + A'BC
Step 3: Distributive Law
F = AC + AB'C AB' + C'' + A'BC
Step 4: De Morgan's Law
F = AC + AB'C [AB' + C'](B + C')' + A'BC
Step 5: Double Complement Law
F = AC + AB'C [AB' + C'](B' + C) + A'BC
Step 6: Distributive Law
F = AC + AB'C [AB'B' + AB'C + C'B' + C'C] + A'BC
Step 7: Simplification
F = AC + AB'C [0 + AB'C + 0 + C] + A'BC
Step 8: Identity Law
F = AC + AB'C [AB'C + C] + A'BC
Step 9: Distributive Law
F = AC + AB'CAB'C + AB'CC + A'BC
Step 10: Simplification
F = AC + 0 + 0 + A'BC
Know more about Boolean function here:
brainly.com/question/27885599
#SPJ4
The mechanical ventilation system of a workshop may cause a nuisance to nearby
residents. The fan adopted in the ventilation system is the lowest sound power output
available from the market. Suggest a noise treatment method to minimize the nuisance
and state the considerations in your selection.
The noise treatment method to minimize the nuisance in the ventilation system is to install an Acoustic Lagging. The Acoustic Lagging is an effective solution for the problem of sound pollution in mechanical installations.
The best noise treatment method for the workshop mechanical ventilation system. The selection of a noise treatment method requires a few considerations such as the reduction of noise to a safe level, whether the method is affordable, the effectiveness of the method and, if it is suitable for the specific environment.
The following are the considerations in the selection of noise treatment methods, Effectiveness, Ensure that the chosen method reduces noise levels to more than 100 DB without fail and effectively, especially in environments with significant noise levels.
To know more about treatment visit:
https://brainly.com/question/31799002
#SPJ11
Centre of Gravity i. What does the position of the centre of gravity (CG) affect? ii. Name at least two aircraft categories in which the CG is fixed. iii. Name at least three reasons/causes for the aircraft CG movement during flight operations.
i. The position of the center of gravity (CG) affects the stability and control of an aircraft.
ii. Two aircraft categories in which the CG is fixed are:
- Ultralight aircraft:
- Gliders:
iii. Three reasons/causes for the aircraft CG movement during flight operations are:
- Fuel consumption
- Payload changes
- Maneuvers
i. The position of the center of gravity (CG) affects the stability and control of an aircraft. It found how the aircraft will behave in flight, including its pitch, roll, and yaw characteristics.
ii. Two aircraft categories in which the CG is fixed are:
- Ultralight aircraft: These are small, single-seat aircraft that have a fixed CG. They are designed to be light and simple, with minimal controls and systems. The CG is typically located near the aircraft's wing, to ensure stable flight.
- Gliders: These are aircraft that are designed to fly without an engine. They rely on the lift generated by their wings to stay aloft. Gliders typically have a fixed CG, which is located near the front of the aircraft's wing. This helps to maintain stability during flight.
iii. Three reasons/causes for the aircraft CG movement during flight operations are:
- Fuel consumption: As an aircraft burns fuel during flight, its weight distribution changes, which affects the position of the CG. If the aircraft is not properly balanced, it can become unstable and difficult to control.
- Payload changes: When an aircraft takes on passengers, cargo, or other types of payload, the CG can shift. This is because the weight distribution of the aircraft changes.
- Maneuvers: During certain maneuvers, such as banking or pitching, the position of the CG can shift. This is because the forces acting on the aircraft change.
Learn more about the Centre of Gravity here;
https://brainly.com/question/1359722
#SPJ4
Discuss the philosophy and benefits of concurrent
engineering covering DFA/DFM
please do it in 30 minutes please urgently with
detailed solution... I'll give you up thumb
Concurrent engineering promotes cross-functional collaboration, early involvement of all stakeholders, and simultaneous consideration of design, manufacturing, and assembly aspects. This approach leads to several benefits.
Concurrent engineering promotes efficient product development by integrating design, manufacturing, and assembly considerations from the early stages. By involving manufacturing and assembly teams early on, potential design issues can be identified and resolved, resulting in improved product quality and reduced time to market. DFA focuses on simplifying assembly processes, reducing parts count, and improving ease of assembly, leading to lower production costs and improved product reliability. DFM aims to optimize the design for efficient and cost-effective manufacturing processes, reducing material waste and improving productivity. Concurrent engineering also enables better communication, shorter design iterations, and improved overall product performance.
To know more about engineering click the link below:
brainly.com/question/31140236
#SPJ11
A disc of a diameter D = 100 mm, and thickness of 10 mm, has a surface temperature of 290°C and emissivity s =[0.X]. The disc is oriented horizontally and subjected to a cooling process in quiescent, ambient air and large surroundings for which T[infinity] - Tsur = 30°C. Neglect the heat transfer at the bottom and the side of the disc. a) Calculate the rate of heat transfer from the top surface? b) Will the disc cool faster or slower when it is oriented vertically, explain mathematically? c) Check the situation whether the convection is forced, natural or mixed convection in case the disc is subjected to moving air with a velocity of 3 m/s.
Calculation of the rate of heat transfer from the top surface is given as;h = 9.72 W/m².
Kσ = 5.67 × 10^-8 W/m².
K^4A = πD²/4
Kσ = 7853.98 × 10^-6 m²
ε = 0.X
The net rate of radiation heat transfer can be determined by the given formula;
Qrad = σεAT^4
Where Qrad = Net rate of radiation heat transfer
σ = Stefan Boltzmann Constant
ε = emissivity of the body
A = surface area of the body
T = Surface temperature of the body
We know that the temperature of ambient air, T∞ = 30°C
T∞ = 303K
The temperature of the surface of the disc,
Tsurface = 290°C
Tsurface = 563K Thus,
Qrad = 5.67 × 10^-8 × 0.X × 7853.98 × 10^-6 × (563)^4
Qrad = 214.57 W/m²
Rate of heat transfer through convection is given as;
Qconv = hA(Tsurface - T∞) Where h is the heat transfer coefficient
We know that; h = 9.72 W/m².
KQconv = 9.72 × 7853.98 × 10^-6 × (563-303)
KQconv = 170.11 W/m²
Thus, the rate of heat transfer from the top surface is 170.11 W/m².
Calculation for the cooling of the disc when it is oriented vertically is given as; h = 14.73 W/m².K As the disc is oriented vertically, the area exposed to cooling air will be more and hence the rate of heat transfer will be greater.
Qconv = hA(Tsurface - T∞)
Qconv = 14.73 × 7853.98 × 10^-6 × (563-303)
Qconv = 315.46 W/m²
Thus, the disc will cool faster when it is oriented vertically.
The situation will be considered natural convection as the velocity of air is given to be 3 m/s which is less than the critical value for the flow regime to be changed to forced convection. Also, there are no specific objects which would disturb the flow pattern of the fluid to be mixed convection.
The main answer is,Rate of heat transfer through convection Qconv = hA(Tsurface - T∞)Where h is the heat transfer coefficient Qconv= 170.11 W/m²The disc will cool faster when it is oriented vertically. The situation will be considered natural convection as the velocity of air is given to be 3 m/s which is less than the critical value for the flow regime to be changed to forced convection.
To know more about heat transfer visit:
brainly.com/question/13433948
#SPJ11
A PITTMAN ID33000 series engine having the following data expressed in the international system, for a nominal voltage of 90 V.
Terminal resistance: 1.33 Ohms;
Inductance: 4.08mH;
Constant Torque (KT): 0.119 N.m/A;
Voltage constant: 0.119 V/rad/s;
a) Calculate and draw the points and the load line for the PITTMAN engine. Express the correct units.
b) A P.M.D.C in which, it increased from Gradually the input voltage was obtained that with a V input= 2.1 V and a current, i=0.12 A, it is managed to start turning the motor shaft. Calculate the input power required to achieve the "no-load current", for that motor.
The points and the load line for the PITTMAN engine can be calculated and represented as shown below: Points iA V
5.65 45.84Load line: y = 90 V - 1.33 Ω x. Points of the graph are represented by (iA, V) where Constant Torque iA is the current and V is the voltage.
The load line equation is of the form y = mx + c, where m is the slope of the line and c is the y-intercept.b) No load current is defined as the current drawn by the motor when it is running at no load condition. Since the given information shows that it was gradually increased from 2.1 V and a current of i = 0.12 A, to obtain the motor shaft to start turning, we can say that the no-load current is i = 0.12 A.
Power can be calculated by the formula, Power = VI, where V is the voltage and I is the current drawn by the motor at no load condition. The voltage constant of the PITTMAN engine is 0.119 V/rad/s. Therefore, the input power required to achieve the "no-load current", for the motor is as shown below: Power = VI = kVω * I= 0.119 * 2.1 * 0.12= 0.0304 W.An input power of 0.0304 W is required to achieve the "no-load current" for the given motor.
To know more about Constant Torque visit :-
https://brainly.com/question/32191533
#SPJ11
Find the expression for capacitance per unit length of an infinite straight coaxial cable with inner radius a and outer radius b. Dielectric is air
The expression for capacitance per unit length of an infinite straight coaxial cable is,
C = (2π x 8.85 x 10⁻¹² F/m) / ln(b/a)
The capacitance per unit length (C) of an infinite straight coaxial cable with inner radius a and outer radius b can be calculated using the following formula:
C = (2πε₀/ln(b/a)) F/m
where ε₀ is the permittivity of free space and ln(b/a) is the natural logarithm of the ratio of the outer radius to the inner radius.
For air as the dielectric, the permittivity is, ε₀ = 8.85 x 10⁻¹² F/m,
Therefore, the capacitance per unit length of the coaxial cable can be calculated as:
C = (2π x 8.85 x 10⁻¹² F/m) / ln(b/a)
Learn more about the function visit:
https://brainly.com/question/11624077
#SPJ4
Two particles A and B move towards each other with speeds of 4ms1¹ and 2ms-¹ respectively. They collide and Particle A has its continues in the same direction with its speed reduced to 1ms-¹ a) If the particle A has a mass of 30 and particle B a mass of 10 grams, find the direction and speed of particle B after the collision b) Find the change in kinetic energy after the collision c) What type of collision has taken place
After the collision, particle B moves in the opposite direction with a speed of 3 m/s. The change in kinetic energy is -16 J. The collision is inelastic.
Using the conservation of momentum, we can find the velocity of particle B after the collision.
m_1v_1 + m_2v_2 = m_1v_1' + m_2v_2'
30 * 4 + 10 * 2 = 30 * 1 + 10v_2'
v_2' = 3 m/s
The change in kinetic energy is calculated as follows:
KE_f - KE_i = 1/2 m_1v_1'^2 - 1/2 m_1v_1^2 - 1/2 m_2v_2^2 + 1/2 m_2v_2'^2
= 1/2 * 30 * 1^2 - 1/2 * 30 * 4^2 - 1/2 * 10 * 2^2 + 1/2 * 10 * 3^2
= -16 J
The collision is inelastic because some of the kinetic energy is lost during the collision. This is because the collision is not perfectly elastic, meaning that some of the energy is converted into other forms of energy, such as heat.
To learn more about kinetic energy click here : brainly.com/question/999862
#SPJ11
List out the methods to improve the efficiency of the Rankine cycle
The Rankine cycle is an ideal cycle that includes a heat engine which is used to convert heat into work. This cycle is used to drive a steam turbine.
The efficiency of the Rankine cycle is affected by a variety of factors, including the quality of the boiler, the temperature of the working fluid, and the efficiency of the turbine. Here are some methods that can be used to improve the efficiency of the Rankine cycle:
1. Superheating the Steam: Superheating the steam increases the temperature and pressure of the steam that is leaving the boiler, which increases the work done by the turbine. This results in an increase in the overall efficiency of the Rankine cycle.2. Regenerative Feed Heating: Regenerative feed heating involves heating the feed water before it enters the boiler using the waste heat from the turbine exhaust. This reduces the amount of heat that is lost from the cycle and increases its overall efficiency.
To know more about work visit:
brainly.com/question/31349436
#SPJ11