1. Darla's piggy bank is full, so she plans to empty out all of the coins, roll as many as possible to deposit

into her savings account, and put the remaining coins back into the piggy bank. Rolls of pennies and

dimes consist of 50 coins each, while rolls of nickels and quarters consist of 40 coins each.

(9 points: Part 1 - 2 points; Part II - 2.5 points; Part III - 2 points; Part IV - 2.5 points)

Part II: How much will Darla deposit into her savings account?

U.S.)

Answer:

a

  [tex] P(X = 0) =  0.6065 [/tex]

b

[tex]P(x <  25 ) =   1.18 *10^{-33} [/tex]

c

 [tex]  P(x \le 5 ) =  0.9994 [/tex]    

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

  The rate  is [tex]\lambda =  \frac{1}{2}\   hr^{-1}[/tex]    =  0.5 / hr

  Generally  Poisson distribution formula is mathematically represented as

       [tex]P(X = x) =  \frac{(\lambda t) ^x e^{-\lambda t }}{x!}[/tex]

Generally the probability that no error occurred during a day is mathematically represented as  

Here  t =  1  hour according to question a

So

   [tex]P(X = x) =  \frac{\lambda^x e^{-\lambda}}{x!}[/tex]

Hence

   [tex][tex]P(X = 0) =  \frac{\frac{1}{2} ^0 e^{-\frac{1}{2}}}{0!}[/tex]

=>  [tex] P(X = 0) =  0.6065 [/tex]

Generally the probability that  a critical error occurs since the start of a day is mathematically represented as

Here  t =  1  hour according to question a

So

   [tex]P(X = x) =  \frac{\lambda^x e^{-\lambda}}{x!}[/tex]

Hence

      [tex]P(x \ge 25 ) =  1 - P(x <  25 )[/tex]

Here

     [tex]P(x <  25 ) = \sum_{x=0}^{24} \frac{e^{-\lambda} * \lambda^{x}}{x!}[/tex]

=>   [tex]P(x <  25 ) =  \frac{e^{-0.5} *0.5^{0}}{0!} + \cdots + \frac{e^{-0.5} *0.5^{24}}{24!}[/tex]

[tex]P(x <  25 ) =  0.6065 + \cdots + \frac{e^{-0.5} *0.5^{24}}{6.204484 * 10^{23}}[/tex]

[tex]P(x <  25 ) =  0.6065 + \cdots + 6.0*10^{-32}[/tex]

[tex]P(x <  25 ) =   1.18 *10^{-33} [/tex]

Considering question c

Here  t =  2  

Gnerally given that the  system just started up and an error occurred  the probability the next reset will occur within 2 hours

[tex]P(x \le 5 ) =  \sum_{n=0}^{5}  \frac{(\lambda t) ^x e^{-\lambda t }}{x!}[/tex]

=> [tex]P(x \le 5 ) =   \frac{(0.5 *  2) ^ 0 e^{- 0.5  * 2 }}{0!} + \cdots  +   \frac{(0.5 *  2) ^ 5  e^{- 0.5  * 2 }}{5!}[/tex]

=> [tex]P(x \le 5 ) =   \frac{1* 2.7183 }{1 } + \cdots  +   \frac{1  *2.7183 }{120}[/tex]

=>  [tex]P(x \le 5 ) =   2.7183 + \cdots  +   0.0226525[/tex]

 [tex]  P(x \le 5 ) =  0.9994 [/tex]    

Answer:

z=2

Step-by-step explanation:

Just solve

1 + z = 3 (minus 1 on both sides)

z = 2

Plug in

3=(2+1)

3 = 3

Answer:

x = 9°

y = 119°

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

y° = 61°+58° { the exterior angle formed by producing the side of triangle is equal to two non-adjacent angle}

or, y° = 119°

therefore, y° = 119°

Now,

52°+y°+x° = 180°{the sum of angle if triangle is 180°}

or, 52°+119°+x°= 180°

or, 171°+x° = 180°

or, x° = 180°-171°

or, x° = 9°

therefore, x° = 9°

Answer:

10%

Step-by-step explanation:

(a) What percentage of meals had less than 10 grams of fat?

(b) Round your answer to the nearest tenth of a percent.

To find the percentage of meals with less than 10 grams of fat, count the number of meals with less than 10 grams of fat and divide by the total number of meals; multiply this figure by a hundred.

(A) Total number of meals = 550

Number of meals having less than 10 grams of fat = 77

Percentage of meals having less than 10 grams of fat = 77/550 × 100

= 0.14 × 100 = 14%

(B) Rounding the answer to the nearest tenth of a percent means approximating it to the nearest multiple of 10 that is not more than 100 (where 100 here represents a full cent or 'percent').

The multiples of 10 that are close to 14 are 10 and 20. The closest being 10, your answer becomes 10%

Answer:

What Is X and Y

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

It is a linear equation.

Step-by-step explanation:

It has no squares in the equation, meaning the line is straight, therefore meaning the equation is linear.

Answer:

-5/6,-1/4,-0.11,0.567

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: 31 i think

Step-by-step explanation:

Area of the actual park is 56000 square yards.

Step-by-step explanation:

A scale drawing of a rectangular park has dimensions as 5 inches width and 7 inches length.

Actual length of the park has been given as 280 yards.

So scale factor used in the drawing is 7 inches

= 280 yards

Or 1 inch = 40 yards

Since width of the rectangular park is = 5 inch

So actual width of the park will be = 5×40 = 200 yards

Now we can calculate the area of the park.

Actual area of the park = Length × Width

= 280×200

= 56000 yards²

Therefore, area of the actual park is 56000 square yards.

Answer:

14

Step-by-step explanation:

umm I don't know if im dumb but isn't it just 3 times 12 giving you 36 and than 50 minus 36 with an answer of 14

Answer:

hi to what. good bye???????

Answer:

You can make it to Splash Mountain

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question,

The distance you need to cover to Splash Mountain is 1 3/5 miles, and the time you have to arrive there is in 7 3/4 minutes.

Also, from the question,

You are able to cover 2/7 of a mile every minute, that is

Your speed is 2/7 mile per minute

To determine if you can make it to Splash Mountain, we will determine the distance you can cover, traveling at this speed of 2/7 mile per minute for 7 3/4 minutes. If the distance you can cover is more than 1 3/5 miles, then you can make it; but if the distance you can cover is less than 1 3/5 miles, then you cannot make it.

From

Speed = Distance / Time

Distance = Speed × Time

Speed = 2/7 mile/minute

Time = 7 3/4 minutes = 31/4 minutes

∴Distance = 2/7 × 31/4

Distance = 31/14 miles = 2 3/14 miles

The distance you can cover traveling 2/7 of a mile every minute for 7 3/4 minutes is 2 3/14 miles, since this is more than 1 3/5 miles, then you can make it to Splash Mountain.

Hence, you can make it to Splash Mountain.

Answer:

(6,11)

I can confirm that this question is right.

12/2      22/2

(6   ,        11)

A common discrete distribution is used in statistics, as opposed to a continuous distribution is called a Binomial distribution. The probability of at most 2 red cards is 0.5.

A common discrete distribution is used in statistics, as opposed to a continuous distribution is called a Binomial distribution. It is given by the formula,

P(x) = ⁿCₓ (pˣ) (q⁽ⁿ⁻ˣ⁾)

Where,

x is the number of successes needed,

n is the number of trials or sample size,

p is the probability of a single success, and

q is the probability of a single failure.

Using the given information the number of cards is 24 out of which 12 are red. Therefore, the probability of getting a red card is 0.5.

A) All red cards.

P(X=5) = ⁵C₅ (0.5⁵) (0.5⁰)

            = 0.03125

B.) at least two red cards.

P(X≥2) = 1 - ⁵C₀ (0.5⁰) (0.5⁵) - ⁵C₁ (0.5¹) (0.5⁴)

= 0.8125

C.)  At most 2 red cards.

P(X≤2) = ⁵C₀ (0.5⁰) (0.5⁵) + ⁵C₁ (0.5¹) (0.5⁴) + ⁵C₂ (0.5²) (0.5³)

           = 0.5

Learn more about Binomial Distribution:

https://brainly.com/question/14565246

#SPJ2

Answer:

51

Step-by-step explanation:

68/4=17

68-17=51

Answer:

Paula's dog weighs 51 pounds.

Carla's dog weighs 17 pounds.

17 times 3 equals 51.

Then 17 added to 51 equals to 68.

Answer:

-15, -9, -3, 3

Step-by-step explanation:

First One:

y =3(-4)-3 is -15

Second:

y= 3(-2)-3 is -9

Third:

y= 3(0)-3 is -3

Last One:

y= 3(2)-3 is 3

Answer:

You're right!

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Were you right?

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

26.31

Step-by-step explanation:

You just have to count up the shapes in each place.

Answer:

C: 48

Step-by-step explanation:

1/6 chance so multiply by 6, 8 marbles so multiply by 8, 8(6)=48

Answer:

48 marbles, it's C

Step-by-step explanation:

why?

Because 1/6 of the marbles are white. and there are 8 white marbles. so that means, 1/6=8 marbles.

So you just get 1/6 to 6/6

so you do, 8*6 which equals to 48

Answer:

52

Step-by-step explanation:

given that the number is a

The expression for Ten less than 5 times the value of a number is given by

5a - 10

10 times the quantity of  12 more than one-fourth of the number.

a/4 is one-fourth  of number

12 more than one-fourth of the number

a/4 + 12

expression for  10 times the quantity of  12 more than one-fourth of the number. is given by

10(a/4 + 12) = 10a/4 + 12*10 = 2.5a + 120

Given that the above two expression are equal

equating them we have

5a - 10 = 2.5a + 120

adding 10 both sides

=>5a - 10+ 10  = 2.5a + 120 + 10

=> 5a = 2.5a + 130

subtracting 2.5a from both sides

=> 5a - 2.5a = 2.5a + 130 - 2.5a

=> 2.5a = 130

dividing both side by 2.5

=> a = 130/2.5 = 52

Thus, value of a is 52

Answer:

a)Average cost function =[tex]\bar{C(x)}=\frac{1000+0.1x}{x}[/tex]

Marginal cost function =[tex]C'x=0.1[/tex]

b) [tex]\bar{C(2000)}=0.6[/tex]

[tex]C'(2000)=0.1[/tex]

c)[tex]\bar{C(2000)}=0.6[/tex] is the average cost to produce first 2000 items

C'(2000)=0.1 is the marginal cost to produce 2001 th item

Step-by-step explanation:

Cost function: [tex]C(x) = 1000 + 0.1x[/tex]

a)Find the average cost and marginal cost functions.

Average cost function =[tex]\bar{C(x)}=\frac{C(x)}{x}[/tex]

Average cost function =[tex]\bar{C(x)}=\frac{1000+0.1x}{x}[/tex]

Marginal cost function =[tex]C'x=0.1[/tex]

b) Determine the average and marginal cost when x = a.

a = 2000

Average cost function =[tex]\bar{C(x)}=\frac{1000+0.1x}{x}=\frac{1000+0.1a}{a}=\frac{1000+0.1(2000)}{2000}=0.6[/tex]

So, [tex]\bar{C(2000)}=0.6[/tex]

Marginal cost function =[tex]C'(2000)=0.1[/tex]

c)Interpret the values obtained in part​ (b).

[tex]\bar{C(2000)}=0.6[/tex] is the average cost to produce first 2000 items

C'(2000)=0.1 is the marginal cost to produce 2001 th item

Answer:

many take time and solve it step by step

Step-by-step explanation:

sorry I am lost

Answer:

Y= 17.5

Step-by-step explanation:

140 divided by 2 would equal 70 which could used on y as well meaning 35 divided by 2 would be 17.5 thus giving us the answer 17.5

Answer:

2034

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

97.65

Step-by-step explanation:

97.65

Step-by-step explanation

Answer:

that what

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:hbjnhbgfvrdfghjhgfdfghjhgfghjkl

Answer:

W>16

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for calculating the perimeter of a rectangle:

P = 2L+2W

L is the length of the rectangle

W is the width of the rectangle:

Given

P = 96m

If the length of a rectangle is 2 times the width, then L = 2W

Substitute into the formula:

Since the perimeter is less than 96m

96 < 2(2W)+2W

96 < 4W+2W

96 < 6W

Divide both sides by 6:

96/6 < 6W/6

16 < W

W>16

Hence the possible values of the width are all values greater than 16.

Answer:

Option C: an outline of a pine tree

Step-by-step explanation:

Artists usually use two main types of shapes when drawing. One is geometric shape and the other is bimorphic shape.

A geometric shape simply refers to common regular and precise shapes like triangles, rectangles, squares which are commonly found in man made objects. Whereas, a bimorphic shape is one that is basically rounded or irregular and depicts natural things or living organisms.

Now, from the question, the only thing there that refers to a natural occurring object is "an outline of a pine tree".

Thus, it is a bimorphic shape.

Answer:

C. an outline of a pine tree

Step-by-step explanation:

I just took the test!

Answer:

2 2/3 or 8/3

Step-by-step explanation:

Formula for each side = 2/3 x 2/3

2/3 x 2/3 = 4/9

6 sides

4/9 x 6 or 4/9 + 4/9 + 4/9 + 4/9 + 4/9 + 4/9

=2 2/3 or 8/3

Answer:

2 2/3

Is the answer