a)The pros of replacing zn2+ by cd2+ is that Zn metallothionein was able to efficiently compete with Cd2+, Zn2+ was restored to these proteins for the first time. When Zn2+ is exclusively coupled to Cys-thiolate in mammalian metallothionein, clusters are formed that are both kinetically labile and thermodynamically stable for the metal.
The cons of replacing zn2+ by cd2+ is Cd2+ damages kidney proximal tubule cells
b) Co and Zn can completely replace one another, with the possible exception of minor individual needs that can be satisfied
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108) which type of mutant would be most likely to produce a bushier phenotype? a) auxin overproducer b) strigolactone overproducer c) cytokinin underproducer d) gibberellin overproducer e) strigolactone underproducer
The correct answer is e) Strigolactones underproducer
A class of chemical substances called strigolactones is created by a plant's roots. These compounds have been categorised as phytohormones or plant hormones based on how they work. So far, three distinct physiological mechanisms linked to strigolactones have been discovered: First, they encourage the growth of parasitic organisms that reside in the roots of the host plant, including Striga lutea and other members of the Striga genus. Second, strigolactones are essential for symbiotic fungi, particularly arbuscular mycorrhizal fungi, to recognise the plant because they form a mutualistic interaction with these plants and supply them with phosphate and other soil nutrients.
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what is the term for the bone tissue located between the two layers of compact bone in the skull? multiple choice question.
The name of the bone tissue that is located between the two layers of compact bone is a) diploe.
The cortical bones or regions of the skull are separated through a specific type of cancellous bone that is spongy and is referred to as diploe.
The flat bones of a skull, also known as the compact bones are separated by these spongy bone tissues which are the diploe.
Examples of compact bones of the skull that have diploe bone tissue inside them are the flat bones of the cranium.
The bone tissues are added in order for providing protection to the compact bones of the skull.
Although a part of your question is missing, you might be referring to this question:
what is the term for the bone tissue located between the two layers of compact bone in the skull? multiple choice question.
a) diploe
b) connective
c) spacious
d) degrading
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Tom, a trumpet player, asks you which muscles he should develop in order to be a better trumpeter. What would you tell him?
A) the masseter and buccinator
B) the buccinator and orbicularis oris
C) the orbicularis oris and risorius
D) the risorius and zygomaticus minor
E) the levator labii superioris and mentalis
Tom, a trumpet player, asks you which muscles he should develop in order to be a better trumpeter. option A- the buccinator and orbicularis oris
The orbicularis oris muscle helps to shape and form the lips. This muscle contracts to close and protract the lips. Several mimetic muscles that elevate and depress the lips act on their position and movement. During ingesting, masticatory, blasting, and trying to suck, the buccinator muscle cooperates with the orbicularis oris and superior detrusor muscle muscles. By compressing the cheek inwards, it aids in mastication and blowing. The buccinator muscle is a major facial muscle that lies beneath the cheek. It secures the cheek to the teeth and aids in chewing.
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Which postulate of natural selection is deliberately enforced by dog breeders using artificial selection?.
By adopting artificial selection, dog breeders consciously insist that survival and reproduction are not determined by chance.
What is the guiding concept of animal natural selection?One method of evolution is natural selection. More environment-adapted organisms are more likely to survive and pass on the genes that contributed to their success. Over time, species change and diverge as a result of this process.
Why is reproductive success critical to the process of natural selection?Long life is not favored by natural selection unless it allows for or resulting in increased reproductive success. The same is true for intelligence, strength, and beauty, despite our best efforts to the contrary. By adopting artificial selection, dog breeders consciously insist that survival and reproduction are not determined by chance.
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looking at the fungi, which characteristics would you expect to see in the black bread mold rhizopus stolonifer, a member of the zygomycota? choose all that apply.
The characteristics one would expect to see in the black bread mold (Rhizopus stolonifer) are chitin cell wall, multicellularity, and osmotrophic.
Black bread mold (Latin name: Rhizopus stolonifer) is a type of fungi in the genus Rhizopus. It's commonly found throughout the globe, especially in tropical and subtropical regions.
Some characteristics of the black bread mold are as follows:
Multicellular (composed of many cells).Osmotrophic (using osmosis to move dissolved organic compounds for nutrition).Has chitin cell walls.Rhizopus stolonifer can reproduce sexually and asexually. Sexual reproduction happens when compatible strains are paired and rise zygospores. This fungus is now used commercially to manufacture lactic acid.
Attached below is an image of the fungi taken by Романов Павел Ви on January 14th, 2012.
The question seems incomplete, but the completed version is most probably as follows:
Looking at the fungi, which characteristics would you expect to see in the black bread mold rhizopus stolonifer, a member of the Zygomycota? choose all that apply.
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which methods can identify a genetic disorder in a fetus? take a blood sample from the placenta take a blood sample from the father take a sample of amniotic fluid perform pcr on the dna of a sibling perform an ultrasound
Take a sample of amniotic fluid can identify a genetic disorder in a fetus. So option (c) is the correct answer.
An amniocentesis is a prenatal test that can diagnose genetic disorders and other health problems in the fetus.
Genetic amniocentesis is usually performed between the 14th and 20th weeks of pregnancy. An amniocentesis performed before 14 weeks of gestation may cause additional complications. Reasons for genetic amniocentesis include: A positive prenatal screening test result.
Amniotic fluid is the clear fluid that surrounds your baby in your belly during pregnancy. This fluid provides a cushion that protects the baby from injury and gives it room to grow, move and develop.The amniotic fluid also prevents the umbilical cord from getting caught between the baby and the walls of the uterus.
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the mechansim of stabilizing the gfr (glomerular filtration rate) based on the tendency of smooth muscle to contract when streched is known as . a. sympathetic control b. tubuloglomerular feedback c. renal autoregulation d. the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism e. the myogenic mechanism
There are two mechanisms by which this occurs. The first is called the myogenic mechanism. The second mechanism is called the tubuloglomerular feedback. So, option b and e are the correct answers.
Renal myogenic mechanisms are part of the autoregulatory mechanisms that maintain constant renal blood flow under various arterial pressures. Simultaneous autoregulation of glomerular pressure and filtration indicates regulation of preglomerular resistance.
Tubuloglomerular feedback is an adaptive mechanism that relates glomerular filtration rate to salinity in the tubular fluid of the macula compacta. A high proportion of [NaCl] and reabsorption at this site constricts afferent arterioles and reduces GFR.
In this mechanism, termed tubuloglomerular feedback (TGF), an increase in NaCl concentration in the macula densa constricts glomerular afferent arterioles, reducing single freon GFR. Along with myogenic responses, TGFs contribute significantly to renal autoregulation.
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All living thing are organized from imple level to more complex level. Which level might be affected with a water intoxication
Simple levels are followed by more complicated levels in the organization of all living things. The number of levels that could have been impacted by water intoxication would have been higher. The species evolved a better defense against the problems.
What is water pollution ?
It is described as the toxic and destructive substances that contaminate water sources.
Numerous operations that may be carried out by a single cell, including respiration, digesting, and many other vital bodily functions. The specimen would have needed a higher level of water intoxication for some types of mechanisms to occur.
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nerve and hormone signals regulate the secretion of gastric juice so that it is discharged only when there is food in the stomach.
The mucus covering the stomach lining helps protect it from gastric juices, so the stomach doesn't digest itself. Additionally, gastric juice is only secreted when there is food in the stomach because nerve and hormone signals control this process. But the stomach's lining is changed once every three days.
How Gastric Phase Works?
When the food reaches the stomach, the gastric phase starts. The stimulus from the cephalic phase is expanded upon. The ingested materials are processed by gastric acids and enzymes. The presence of undigested material, a drop in the pH of the gastric contents, and distension of the stomach are the three factors that stimulate the gastric phase. Local, hormonal, and neural responses make up this phase. Strong contractions and secretions are induced by these reactions.
Hormonal Responses to Food - The endocrine system regulates the reaction of the body's numerous glands and the timing of hormone release. The environment of the stomach's acid is one of the significant elements regulated by hormones. G cells in the stomach secrete the hormone gastrin during the gastric phase in response to the presence of proteins. Hydrochloric acid (HCl), or stomach acid, is stimulated by the hormone gastrin to help break down proteins. A hormone called somatostatin, which is released when the stomach is emptied, prevents the release of hydrochloric acid because the acidic environment does not need to be maintained. A negative feedback mechanism governs this.
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In the process of photosynthesis, Green plants use light energy to convert?
Answer:
a sugar called glucose
Explanation:
Answer:
glucose
Explanation:
A company is having a contest for the best way to reduce energy use. All ideas must be in the form of a written report. How will it help the company to have reports in writing?.
Decision-makers can compare the reports and refer to them frequently, which will benefit the company. Option(c) is the correct answer. Simply put, energy efficiency is the reduction of energy waste while achieving the same goal.
Using less energy results in less demand for fossil fuels, which in proper sequence results in less colorless odorless gas in the air. Heat waves, drynesses, climbing sea levels, different weather patterns, and a profound contingency of unaffected accidents are all belongings of climate change.
Energy preservation boosts the atmosphere for all by threatening air and water pollution and protecting the timber. Energy efficiency creates enrollment and financial funds. Decision-makers can compare the reports and refer to them frequently, which will benefit the company.
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Answer:Decision makers can compare the reports and refer to them often.
Explanation:
which part of a neuron receives nerve impulses from other neurons and conducts them towards the cell body?
Dendrites acquire and combine indicators from different neurons or from sensory stimuli, and behavior nerve impulses closer to the axon or the mobileular body.
Dendrites acquire synaptic inputs from axons, with the sum general of dendritic inputs figuring out whether or not the neuron will hearthplace an motion potential. Spine – The small protrusions discovered on dendrites that are, for lots synapses, the postsynaptic touch site.
Axons byskip the nerve impulses directly to different cells. A unmarried neuron can also additionally have hundreds of dendrites, so it may talk with hundreds of different cells however most effective one axon. The axon is protected with a myelin sheath, a fatty layer that insulates the axon and lets in the electric sign to tour plenty extra quickly.
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Compare how fast a deep wound would heal compared to a scrape?
A fall, accident, or trauma could result in a significant scrape, abrasion, or cut. A deep wound also includes a surgical cut made by a medical professional while performing a surgery.
What do you mean by Deep wound ?Wound could be deeper or closer to the skin's surface. Tendons, muscles, ligaments, nerves, blood vessels, and even bone can be harmed by a deep cut. A nail, knife, or pointy tooth are examples of pointed objects that can cause punctures. Puncture wounds frequently look superficial but may penetrate deeper tissue layers.
Clean wounds are those classified as
class 1. They are primarily closed, uninfected, and devoid of irritation.Class 2 injuries are regarded as clean-contaminated.Class 3 injuries are regarded as polluted.Class 4 wounds are regarded as having a filthy infection.Your body has a sophisticated system for treating skin injuries. Every stage is necessary for effective wound healing. Body repair occurs as a result of a number of components and steps involved in wound healing.
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The more kate learned about the process of fertilization, the more questions she came up with. She now understood that when released from a follicle, the oocyte enters the uterine tube. And that the follicle then begins to release hormones that signal the uterus that an oocyte is on the way. She also understood why women trying to get pregnant kept track of their temperature, as a rise in body temperature might indicate the presence of an oocyte in the uterine tube where fertilization could occur. But now she wondered how the oocyte traveled from ovary to the uterus. What best explains how an oocyte (whether fertilized or not) makes its way from the ovary to the uterus?.
The oocyte is kept going toward the uterus by the contraction of the smooth muscles and the cilia lining the uterine canal.
An egg travels from the ovary to the uterus in what way?Fallopian tubes These are slender tubes that connect to the top section of your uterus and are used to transport your egg (ovum) from your ovaries to your uterus.
Which phase does the egg leave the follicle?Only one of the growing follicles produces an egg that is completely developed between days 10 and 14 of the cycle. This egg is released by the ovary on day 14 of the menstrual cycle in response to an abrupt rise in LH. This is ovulation. Progesterone increases following ovulation, aiding in uterine preparation for pregnancy.
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parasympathomimetic ophthalmic drugs such as pilocarpine reduce intraocular pressure in the treatment of glaucoma by what mechanism of action?
Pilocarpine and other parasympathomimetic medicines constrict the pupil and "pull" on the trabecular meshwork, increasing the flow of aqueous out of the eye.
What is pilocarpine's mechanism of action in the treatment of glaucoma?Pilocarpine contracts the ciliary muscle in open-angle glaucoma, increasing the outflow of aqueous humour and lowering intraocular pressure. Pilocarpine-induced miosis in closed-angle glaucoma widens the angle of the anterior chamber of the eye, allowing aqueous fluid to leave.
Pilocarpine acts on a subtype of muscarinic receptor (M3) located on the iris sphincter muscle, causing the muscle to contract and cause miosis. This effect is crucial in the treatment of various angle-closure glaucomas in the short term.
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for a lateromedial view of the tarsal joint of a horse, the cassette shoud be placed in which position?
On the medial surface to view of the tarsal joint of a horse.
Standard metatarsal series
Four views make up a typical metatarsal series: a plantarodorsal, lateral, and two obliques that are designed to profile the lateral and medial splint bones away from the shaft of the cannon bone. For orientation, it can be helpful to include small amounts of the tarsus above or the fetlock beneath, although combined tarsometatarsal or metatarsophalangeal exams typically result in subpar images due to geometric distortion brought on by decentering.
It is simple to distinguish between the medial and lateral aspects of the proximal metatarsus because the head of the lateral splint bone (fourth metatarsal) is almost twice as big as its medial counterpart (second metatarsal).
Another way to distinguish the lateral from the medial aspect of the metatarsus is by the partial articulation of the lateral splint with the overlaying fourth tarsal bone.
The little metatarsal bones' natural curvature, especially distally, usually causes the surrounding cannon bone to partially obscure them, mimicking a fractured splint.
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griffith's experiments with s. pneumoniae were significant because they showed that traits could be transferred from one organism to another. what else did he find that was significant? see concept 16.1 (page)
Griffith's experiments with S. pneumonia were significant because they showed that traits could be transferred from one organism to another. He found that more products were significant because the transferred traits were heritable.
An illness called pneumonia causes the air sacs in one or both lungs to become inflamed. The air sacs may swell with fluid or pus (purulent material), which can lead to a cough that produces pus or phlegm, a fever, chills, and breathing difficulties. Pneumonia can be brought on by a number of different species, including bacteria, viruses, and fungi.
Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus) and Mycoplasma pneumoniae, particularly in children, are frequent causes of bacterial pneumonia.
The bacteria streptococcus pneumoniae is frequently detected in the nose and throat. Children, the elderly, and other people with compromised immune systems can occasionally develop life-threatening illnesses from the bacteria.
Early signs include a fever, a dry cough, a headache, muscle discomfort, and weakness, which are similar to influenza symptoms. The symptoms usually worsen over the course of a day or two, including an intensifying cough, shortness of breath, and muscle soreness.
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nicotine patches are often used to help smokers quit. does adding antidepressants to the nicotine patches help
Adding antidepressants to the nicotine patches can also help smokers quit as nicotine replacement therapy can be used with antidepressants.
Does adding antidepressants to the nicotine patches help?The nicotine patch is an FDA-approved medicine that helps people quit smoking. It can be used daily to control withdrawal symptoms, or it can be used with nicotine gum or lozenge which can be taken as needed for strong cravings.
Using the antidepressant bupropion makes it more likely that a person will successfully stop smoking.
There are many reasons to believe that antidepressants might help in smoking cessation. Nicotine withdrawal may produce depressive symptoms and in that case, antidepressants may relieve these.
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B
What is the
probability of
heteorzygous
offspring for these
two parents?
B. 75%
D. 0%
Answer:
There is a 75% probability that an offspring will have the dominant trait and a 25% probability that an offspring will have a recessive trait.
Explanation:
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Which extraembryonic membrane partially originates from tissue that is not part of the three germ layers?.
Thing which makes up the three germ layers of the chorion. The developing embryo is surrounded by two layers: an amnion that is its deepest layer and a chorion that is its outermost layer.
What are allantois and chorion?The amnion, which is the embryo's innermost layer and covers and protects it, and the chorion, which is the embryo's outermost layer and houses all the other extraembryonic membranes, are separated by the allantois, which is a hallmark of reptiles, birds, and mammals.
The allantois membrane is what?Allantois, an extra-embryonic membrane found in mammals, birds, and reptiles, develops from the hindgut as a pouch or sac. It significantly enlarges in both reptiles and birds between the amnion and chorion membranes to act as a temporary respiratory organ.
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arasympathetic signaling to β-cells involves the binding of ach to muscarinic receptors. these receptors are gpcrs that are coupled to a subfamily of g proteins which causes downstream elevations of ca2 in the cytoplasm. given this information, with which subfamily of g proteins must these gpcrs be coupling?
An increase in lipolysis is one adaptation that results in higher HGP.these receptors are gpcrs that are coupled to a subfamily of g proteins which causes downstream elevations of ca2
Triacylglycerols (TAGs) hydrolyze into their constituent molecules, glycerol and free fatty acids, during the metabolic process known as lipolysis(FFAs). Adipose TAGs in the body are used to store fat, which is then used as insulation, energy, and heat. During periods of hunger, the body primarily draws energy from its fat reserves while preserving protein. Overall, fats are the body's most significant source of fuel, and how long a person can go without meals mostly relies on how much fat is stored in adipose tissue. Thus, when the body is in the fasting state of metabolism and blood glucose levels have dropped, lipolysis is particularly crucial. But it also happens in unstimulated (basic) conditions.
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what is the difference between gross primary production (gpp), and net primary production (npp), in an ecosystem?
Gross primary production (GPP) is the overall rate at which a substance is produced, and net primary production (NPP) is the rate at which a substance accumulates beyond respiration. So NPP is his GPP minus his breath.
Gross primary production: The amount of chemical energy produced by plants and algae from light energy. Net primary production (NPP) is the total minus the energy lost through respiration by plants and algae. Gross primary productivity (GPP) also refers to the rate of the production of the organic matter during the photosynthesis. Net primary productivity: Net primary productivity (NPP) refers to the remainder of the gross production that remains after being used by the grower or plant in the respiratory process. Net primary production are equals gross primary production which minus the energy used by the primary producers for the respiration. Gross primary production is also the amount of the energy from the light converted to the chemical energy per unit of that time
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Use the graph and your knowledge of enzymes to identify the three true statements about enzymes.
Enzymes lower the overall energy input needed for a reaction to occur.
By binding to reactant molecules, enzymes make it easier for the bonds in the molecules to break apart.
Only reactions that are controlled by enzymes require activation energy.
Chemical reactions cannot occur without enzymes.
Reactants cannot convert to products without an initial input of energy to start the reaction.
Enzymes lower the overall energy input for a reaction to occur.
By binding to the reactant molecules the enzymes make it easier for the bonds to break apart.
The reactants cannot convert to the products without an initial input of energy to start the reaction.
These statements above regarding the enzymes are true.
Enzymes are proteins that aid in the speeding up of metabolism, or the chemical events that occur in our bodies. Some chemicals are created while others are destroyed. Enzymes are found in all living organisms. Enzymes are naturally produced by our bodies. However, enzymes can also be found in manufactured goods and food.
What are the 5 enzymes?
Types of Digestive Enzymes
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identify the type of tissues that make up the outer and inner skin. how did they appear different in the chicken skin?
The epithelium is the type of tissue that make up the outer and inner skin.
The epithelium is a type of frame fabric that forms the top on all within and outside surfaces of your bulk, lines physique craters, and hollow tools and is the major fabric in glands. The epithelium is extensive during the whole of the party.
The epithelium has an assortment of functions that contain guardianship, discharge, absorption, defecation, filtration, spread, and sonic acceptance. The skin is the best tissue for the frame. The skin and allure descendants (eyebrow, nails, sweat, and lubricate glands) create the integumentary order. One of the main functions of the skin is care.
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How are skin cells damaged by exposure to ultra-violet radiation?
A. Too many new cells are produced.
B. The skin cells produced split too easily.
C. Skin cell DNA is broken up and the DNA molecules do not repair properly.
D. RNA is not reproduced and the skin cells are incomplete.
PLSS I HAVE A 84 :P
Answer: C
Explanation:
which hormone(s) increase(s) gluconeogenesis which is the formation of glucose from amino acids and free fatty acids?
Insulin is a peptide hormone generated by beta cells in the pancreatic islets and encoded by the INS gene in humans. thus the correct option Insulin.
Gluconeogenesis is the process by which new glucose is synthesized from noncarbohydrate precursors, and it provides glucose when dietary intake is insufficient or absent. It also regulates acid-base balance, amino acid metabolism, and the synthesis of carbohydrate-derived structural components.
The metabolic process by which organisms produce sugars (specifically glucose) for catabolic reactions from non-carbohydrate precursors is known as gluconeogenesis. The brain (with the exception of ketone bodies during fasting), testes, erythrocytes, and kidney medulla all use glucose as their sole energy source.
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Full Question :Which of the following hormones inhibits gluconeogenesis, the formation of glucose from noncarbohydrate sources such as amino acids, glycerol, and fatty acids?
Insulin
Epinephrine
Cortisol
Glucagon
hich of the following enhances phagocytosis of microbes by macrophages? i) the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes ii) antibody-mediated opsonization of microbes iii) the release of cytokines by activated b cells
Phagocytosis of microbes by macrophages is enhanced by both the binding of antibodies to the surface of microbes & antibody-mediated opsonization of microbes.
Phagocytosis is the process through which larger-than-0.5 m-diameter particles, such as bacteria, foreign objects, and apoptotic cells, are taken up and excreted by cells.
Since phagocytosis occurs in a wide variety of cell types, it is crucial for maintaining tissue homeostasis.
However, only specialized cells called professional phagocytes are able to phagocytose with great efficiency.
Macrophages, neutrophils, monocytes, dendritic cells, and osteoclasts are a few of these specialized cells.
Identification of the object to be ingested, activation of the internalization process, development of a specialized vacuole called a phagosome, and maturation of the phagosome into a phagolysosome are the four stages of phagocytosis.
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You decide to conduct a genetic analysis of these mutant lines by crossing each with a pure wild-type line. The numbers in the F2 indicate the number of progeny in each phenotypic class.
From these results, determine the relationship between the mutant allele and its corresponding wild-type allele in each line.
Label each mutant line with the best statement from the list below. Labels may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
View Available Hint(s)for Part A
The mutant allele is dominant to its corresponding wild-type allele.
The mutant allele is recessive to its corresponding wild-type allele.
The mutant allele is neither dominant nor completely recessive to its corresponding wild-type allele.
From the results above, we can determine the relationship between the mutant allele and its corresponding wild-type allele in each line. The best statement to label each mutant line is: A. The mutant allele is dominant to its corresponding wild-type allele.
What are the wild-type and mutant forms of alleles?The wild type is an allele that encodes the phenotype as the most common characteristic in a particular natural population. In genetic shorthand, the wild type is often designated as “+”. Meanwhile, the mutant allele is any form other than the wild type. The relationship between both types is the mutant allele is dominant to its corresponding wild-type allele.
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what structures compose a portal triad? branches of the hepatic artery, hepatic vein, and hepatic duct branches of the common bile duct, central vein, and hepatic artery branches of the hepatic duct, cystic duct and central vein branches of the hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein, and hepatic duct
The portal triad, which consists of a portal vein, bile duct, hepatic artery, and lymphatic arteries, is where blood enters the lobule.
What is portal triad?Three main tubes make up portal triads. Hepatic artery branches deliver oxygenated blood to the hepatocytes, whereas portal vein branches deliver blood with nutrients from the small intestine. The bile duct transports bile products from the hepatocytes to the gall bladder and larger ducts.
Although the portal triad is rarely injured, it is one of the most challenging traumatic injuries to treat due to its high morbidity and fatality rates.
Exsanguinating haemorrhage, frequently from several sources and difficult exposure, is the primary cause of death. Furthermore, vascular occlusion of the portal vein or hepatic artery in an effort to stop bleeding may lead to total intestinal ischemia or liver necrosis, respectively. Ductal injuries can be hard to spot, and infections, leaks, and fatalities are common post-reconstruction consequences.
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a farmer crosses a yellow feathered hen with a red feathered rooster and observed that all their offspring have both yellow and red feathers. if the feather color is determined by both dominant gene, then what is the likely explanation for these results?
if the feather color is determined by both dominant gene, then incomplete dominance is the likely explanation for these results.
Incomplete dominance results from a cross in which each parental contribution is genetically distinct and produces progeny with an intermediate phenotype. Semi-dominance and partial dominance are other terms for incomplete dominance. Mendel defined dominance but not partial dominance.
It is also referred to as partial dominance. In roses, for example, the allele for red color predominates over the allele for white color.
Codominance implies that no allele can prevent or mask the expression of the other allele. Incomplete dominance, on the other hand, is a condition in which a dominant allele does not completely mask the effects of a recessive allele.
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