you put $500 in your bank account. With a interest rate of 5%, how long will it take the account to reach $600?

Answer:How many miles can a car be driven in 3 hours at 50 miles per hour? Under normal circumstances and the generally assumed conditions, the answer is of course (3 hours) * (50 miles / hour) = 150 miles.

3.5 hours

It will take you 3.5 hours to go 280 miles at 80 miles an hour.It travels at constant speed for the remaining time. Let x be the time traveled at the unknown constant speed. The total itme for the trip was 6 hours so: 6 = time traveled at 50 mph + time traveled at 60 mph + time traveled at x mph.

Step-by-step explanation:So you drive 25 miles / hour. then 25 miles/ 1 hour = 225 miles / nb of hours.2 minutes

However, traveling at 30 MPH for 1 mile (1 lap) takes 2 minutes, which means that your average will never be 60MPH.approximately 0.6818 miles per hour.

Answer:

la distancia del punto de observación A al incendio = 5.5 millas

la distancia del punto de observación B al incendio = 3.8 millas

Step-by-step explanation:

La expresión esquemática de la pregunta se puede ver en la imagen adjunta a continuación :

Del siguiente diagrama;

Usando la sine regla:

[tex]\dfrac{sin \ F}{f} = \dfrac{sin \ A }{a}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{sIn \ 79}{6} = \dfrac{sin \ 63}{a}[/tex]

a sin 79 = 6 sin 63

[tex]a =\dfrac{6 \times sin \ 63}{sin \ 79}[/tex]

[tex]a =\dfrac{6 \times 0.8910}{0.9816}[/tex]

a = 5.446 millas

la distancia del punto de observación A al incendio = 5.5 millas (a la décima más cercana)

[tex]\dfrac{sin \ F}{f} = \dfrac{sin \ B}{b}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{sin \ 79}{6} = \dfrac{sin \ 38}{b}[/tex]

b sin 79 = 6 sin 38

[tex]b = \dfrac{6 \times sin \ 38}{sin \ 79}[/tex]

[tex]b = \dfrac{6 \times0.6157 }{0.9816}[/tex]

b = 3.7635 millas

la distancia del punto de observación B al incendio = 3.8 millas (a la décima más cercana)

Answer:

-1

Step-by-step explanation:

First find the inverse function.  Rewrite the given function as

y = 5(x + 4) - 6  =  5x + 20 - 6  =  5x + 14

Second, interchange x and y:

x = 5y + 14

Third, solve this result for y:

5y = 14 - x, or y = (1/5)(14 - x)

This last result is the inverse function of the given f(x).

The value of this inverse at x = 19 is (1/5)(14 - 19) = (1/5)(-5) = -1

Answer:

[tex]10^{11}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

A statement is given i.e. "ten to the eighth divided by ten to the negative third."

It means that 10 to power 8 divided by 10 to the power -3.

Mathematically,

[tex]\dfrac{10^8}{10^{-3}}[/tex]

We know that, [tex]\dfrac{x^a}{x^b}=x^{a-b}[/tex]

Here, x = 10, a = 8 and b = -3

So,

[tex]\dfrac{10^8}{10^{-3}}=10^{8-(-3)}\\\\=10^{8+3}\\\\=10^{11}[/tex]

So, the answer is [tex]10^{11}[/tex]

Answer:

x = 0.6

Step-by-step explanation:

3x - 1.1 = 0.7

3x = 1.8

x = 0.6

Answer:

x = .6

Step-by-step explanation:

3x – 1.1 = 0.7

Add 1.1 to each side

3x – 1.1+1.1 = 0.7+1.1

3x = 1.8

Divide each side by 3

3x/3 = 1.8/3

x = .6

Answer:

If radius = 8 cm and we needed perimeter of complete circle then

circumference (or perimeter) = 2*PI * 8 = 50.2654824574  cm

or 50.27 cm (rounded)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-2

Step-by-step explanation:

We can find the slope for two points

m = ( y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

    = ( 12 - 4)/(-6- -2)

   = 8/( -6+2)

   = 8/-4

   = -2

Answer:

2009 data set is most homogeneous

Step-by-step explanation:

As per coefficient of variation, which is around 5% for the year 2009 and around 20% for the year 2010 we can state that the data set for the year 2009 is most homogeneous

Homogeneous means similar, it can be observed on the graph as well that the data for the year 2009 is less variant

Hope it answers your question.

Answer:

The equation for constant of proportionality is:

y = kx

K = Constant of proportionality

An example:

4y = 8x

=> 4y/4 = 8x/4

=> y = 2x

In the answer, y = 2x;   2 is the constant of proportionality

Answer:

it is ratio of the amount s y and x:k = y/x. put another way: y = Kx.

Example:- you are paid 20 rupaye an hour the constant of proportionality is 20

because pay = 20 hours worked

Answer:

C

Step-by-step explanation:

So we have:

[tex]\frac{6^{\frac{3}{10}}}{6^\frac{1}{5}}[/tex]

To simplify, we can use the quotient rule of exponents, which says that if we have:

[tex]\frac{x^a}{x^b}[/tex]

Then this equals:

[tex]=x^{a-b}[/tex]

So, our equation will be:

[tex]\frac{6^{\frac{3}{10}}}{6^\frac{1}{5}}\\=6^{\frac{3}{10}-\frac{1}{5}}[/tex]

Subtract the exponents. Turn 1/5 into 2/10 by multiplying both layers be 2. Thus:

[tex]6^{\frac{3}{10}-\frac{1}{5}}\\=6^{\frac{3}{10}-\frac{2}{10}}[/tex]

Subtract in the exponent:

[tex]=6^{\frac{1}{10}}[/tex]

So, our answer is C :)

Answer:C

Step-by-step explanation:

9+7=16

16 times 4 = 64

36+28=64

Answer:

The round off values are- 3.14, 6.12, and 4.57 respectively.

Step-by-step explanation:

The given value to which we have to round off is a. 3.14159 b. 6.12356 c. 4.56787

In order to round off the number we must keep in mind that there should be three digits in total and we will increase the value by one if the right-hand side value is more than 5.  

Thus round off figure of 3.14159 is 3.14.

The round off figure of 6.12356 is 6.12.

The round off figure of 4.56787 is 4.57.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

True

Answer:

0.49926

Step-by-step explanation:

We solve for this using z score formula

z-score is

z = (x-μ)/σ,

where x is the raw score

μ is the population mean

σ is the population standard deviation

The probability that defect length is at most 20 mm is calculated as:

x = 20mm, μ = 33 mm, σ = 7.9mm

z = 20 - 33/7.9

= -13/7.9

= -1.64557

Obtaining the Probability value from Z-Table:

Probability (At most 20mm) = P(x ≤ 20mm) P(z = -1.64557)

P(x ≤ 20) = 0.049926

Therefore, the probability that defect length is at most 20 mm is 0.049926

Answer:

The probability that defect length is at most 20 mm is 0.0495.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that the defect length of a corrosion defect in a pressurized steel pipe is normally distributed with a mean value of 33 mm and a standard deviation of 7.9 mm.

Let X = the defect length of a corrosion defect in a pressurized steel pipe

The z-score probability distribution for the normal distribution is given by;

                             Z  =  [tex]\frac{X-\mu}{\sigma}[/tex]  ~ N(0,1)

where, [tex]\mu[/tex] = mean defect length = 33 mm

           [tex]\sigma[/tex] = standard deviation = 7.9 mm

So, X ~ Normal([tex]\mu=33 \text{ mm}, \sigma^{2} = 7.9^{2} \text{ mm}[/tex])

Now, the probability that defect length is at most 20 mm is given by = P(X [tex]\leq[/tex] 20 mm)

        P(X [tex]\leq[/tex] 20 mm) = P( [tex]\frac{X-\mu}{\sigma}[/tex] [tex]\leq[/tex] [tex]\frac{20-33}{7.9}[/tex] ) = P(Z [tex]\leq[/tex] -1.65) = 1 - P(Z < 1.65)

                                                             = 1 - 0.9505 = 0.0495              

The above probability is calculated by looking at the value of x = 1.65 in the z table which has an area of 0.9505.

Answer:

to two decimal places

= 6.04 mega joules

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume of the half tank

= πr²h

r= 2 m

h= 14/2= 7 m

Volume= 22/7 *2² *7

Volume= 88 m³

work (in mega-joules) needed to pump all of the water to the top of the tank

= Volume*mass density *acceleration*distance

= 88*1000*9.8*7

= 6036800 joules

In mega joules

= 6.036800 mega Joules

to two decimal places

= 6.04 mega joules

The work needed to pump all of the water to the top of the tank is 6.03 MJ

Work is said to be done whenever a force move a body through a certain distance.

To calculate the work needed to pump the water to the tank, first we need to find the volume of the water in the tank half full.

Formula:

Where:

From the question,

Given:

Substitute these values into equation 1

Finally, to get the work needed to pump all the water to the top of the tank, we use the formula below.

Where:

From the question.

Given:

Substitute these values into equation 2

Hence, The work needed to pump all of the water to the top of the tank is 6.03 MJ.

Learn more about work here: https://brainly.com/question/8119756

Answer: 32

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

4, 15, 6, 18.

Step-by-step explanation:

Try the others by yourself and if you have any questions ask me in the comments

Answer:

d = ±7i

Step-by-step explanation:

d^2 -1 = -50

Add 1 to each side

d^2 -1 = -50

d^2 = -49

Take the square root of each side

sqrt(d^2) = sqrt(-49)

d = sqrt(-1) sqrt(49)

d = i( ±7)

d = ±7i

Answer:

A.

Step-by-step explanation:

d^2-1= -50

First, add 1 to both sides.

d^2= -49

Take the square root of both sides:

d=√-49

Since i^2=-1

d=i√49

d= ±7i

Hope this helps!

Question:

Carl throws a single die twice in a row. For the first throw, Carl rolled a 2; for the second throw he rolled a 4. What is the probability of rolling a 2 and then a 4? Answer choices are in the form of a percentage, rounded to the nearest whole number. O 22% 36% O 3% O 33%

Answer:

The probability of rolling a 2 then 4 is 3%

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

A die rolled twice

Required

Probability of rolling a 2 then 4; i.e. P(2 n 4)

First, we need to list out the sample space

[tex]S = \{1,2,3,4,5,6\}[/tex]

[tex]n(S) = 6[/tex]

Next, is to calculate P(2)

[tex]P(2) = \frac{n(2)}{n(S)}[/tex]

[tex]P(2) = \frac{1}{6}[/tex]

Next, is to calculate P(4)

[tex]P(4) = \frac{n(4)}{n(S)}[/tex]

[tex]P(4) = \frac{1}{6}[/tex]

Next,is to calculate the required probability using the following formula

[tex]P(2\ n\ 4) = P(2) * P(4)[/tex]

[tex]P(2\ n\ 4) = \frac{1}{6} * \frac{1}{6}[/tex]

[tex]P(2\ n\ 4) = \frac{1}{36}[/tex]

[tex]P(2\ n\ 4) = 0.02777777777[/tex]

Convert to Percentage

[tex]P(2\ n\ 4) = 2.777777777\%[/tex]

Approximate

[tex]P(2\ n\ 4) = 3\%[/tex]

Hence, the probability of rolling a 2 then 4 is 3%

Answer:

3%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

f (x) = { 19 + 0.39(x - 300), x > 300

Step-by-step explanation:

Andrew has a cell phone plan that provides 300 free minutes each month for a flat rate of $19. For any minutes over 300, Andrew is charged $0.39 per minute. Let x be the number of minutes Andrew uses per month and f(x) be the charges based on Andrew's cell phone plan. If  then If  then first 300 minutes are free and each minute of next (x-300) minutes costs $0.39, therefore Hence, { 19 + 0.39(x - 300), x > 300

Hoped I helped

Answer:

This means in the first week the number sells of digital copies is 308, paperback sells was 385 copies and hardback sell was 77 copies

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the number of digital copies be x, the number of paperback copies be y and the number of hardback copies be z.

4 digital sales is equal to 5 paperback sales and 1 hardback sale.

5x = 4y, x = 4z, y = 5z

The company sells 308 more paperback copies of the book than hardback copies

y = 308 + z

But y = 5z

5z = 308 + z

4z = 308

z = 77

y = 5z = 5(77) = 385

x = 4z = 4(77) = 308

This means in the first week the number sells of digital copies is 308, paperback sells was 385 copies and hardback sell was 77 copies

Answer: False

Step-by-step explanation:

Primary technology skills are simply the skills which are vital in order to attain success in online education. It should be noted that technical skills are knowledge and abilities that are related to information technology which are needed to do certain tasks.

It should be noted that online education is the form of education that is delivered and being administered through the internet.

For one to learn online, it should be noted that being able to open and close windows is a primary technology skill.

Therefore, the statement in the question is false.

Answer: F

I already did the test

Answer:

the sum of the this series is Sn = [n(n+1)] / 2

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is not in the option.

The answer is 29/24.

the answer is -67 because you use the given function to set up and simplify  f(7).

Answer:

∠ B = 54°

Step-by-step explanation:

Supplementary angles sum to 180°.

Sum A and B  and equate to 180, that is

7x + 14 + 5x - 26 = 180, that is

12x - 12 = 180 ( add 12 to both sides )

12x = 192 ( divide both sides by 12 )

x = 16

Thus

∠ B = 5x - 26 = 5(16) - 26 = 80 - 26 = 54°

Answer:

x ≤ 3

Step-by-step explanation:

In the graph given, values of variable x is represented.

From the plot, we note that a small circle is at point 3 on the numberline. This small "o" is shaded, which indicates that the values of x includes 3.

The arrow which starts at 3 on the numberline, points towards our left. This means that the values of x are less than or equal to 3. No value of x is greater than 3.

Therefore, the following inequality can be written for the graph:

x ≤ 3

Answer:

n = 5

Step-by-step explanation:

All of the other choices are true except for n = 5, which is a counterexample. [tex]4^{5}[/tex] = 1024, which is greater than the other side as the other side is:

and [tex]4^{2}[/tex] = 16, 16 + 250 = 266

1024 < 266 is definitely false.

Therefore, the counterexample is n = 5.