You are an engineer working at Samsung producing Galaxy mobile phones. The products have got the following failure mode, the charger cable damaged and not charging properly, Use your knowledge, skills and engineering background to apply the process of Failure Mode Effects Analysis FMEA aiming the reduction of failure or prevent it. You must design the FMEA table and explain every single column

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Answer 1

The FMEA table includes columns for Item/Process/Function, Failure Mode, Potential Effects of Failure, Severity, Potential Causes, Occurrence, Current Controls, Detection, RPN, Recommended Actions, Responsibility, and Target Completion Date.

The FMEA (Failure Mode Effects Analysis) table is a systematic approach used to identify potential failure modes, their effects, and their causes in a product or process. Each column in the table serves a specific purpose:

Item/Process/Function: Identifies the specific component, process, or function being analyzed.

Failure Mode: Describes the potential ways in which the item/process/function can fail.

Potential Effects of Failure: Lists the consequences or impacts resulting from the failure.

Severity: Rates the severity of each potential effect on a predefined scale.

Potential Causes: Identifies the underlying reasons or sources that could lead to the failure mode.

Occurrence: Rates the likelihood or frequency of occurrence of each potential cause.

Current Controls: Describes the existing measures or controls in place to prevent or detect the failure.

Detection: Rates the effectiveness of the current controls in detecting the failure mode.

RPN (Risk Priority Number): Calculates the RPN by multiplying Severity, Occurrence, and Detection ratings.

Recommended Actions: Suggests actions or improvements to reduce the occurrence or severity of failure modes.

Responsibility: Assigns the person or team responsible for implementing the recommended actions.

Target Completion Date: Sets the deadline for completing the recommended actions.

By systematically analyzing and addressing each column in the FMEA table, engineers can identify potential failures and take proactive measures to prevent or minimize them, thereby improving product quality and reliability.

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Related Questions

The acceleration of a particle traveling along a straight line is a = 8 − 2x. If velocity = 0 at position x = 0, determine the velocity of the particle as a function of x, and the position of the particle as a function of time..

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The velocity equation for a particle traveling along a straight line, given the acceleration equation a = 8 - 2x and the initial velocity of 0 at x = 0, is v = 8x - x^2 + C, where C is the constant of integration.

What is the velocity equation for a particle traveling along a straight line given the acceleration equation a = 8 - 2x and the initial velocity of 0 at x = 0?

The given problem describes the motion of a particle along a straight line. The acceleration of the particle is represented by the equation a = 8 - 2x, where x represents the position of the particle.

To find the velocity of the particle as a function of x, we can integrate the given acceleration equation with respect to x. Integrating a = 8 - 2x gives us the velocity equation v = 8x - x^2 + C, where C is the constant of integration.

Since the velocity is given as 0 at x = 0, we can substitute these values into the equation to solve for C. Thus, C = 0, and the velocity equation becomes v = 8x - x^2.

To find the position of the particle as a function of time, we need to integrate the velocity equation with respect to x. Integrating v = 8x - x^2 gives us the position equation s = 4x^2 - (1/3)x^3 + D, where D is the constant of integration.

However, since the problem does not provide information about time, we cannot determine the position as a function of time without additional information.

In summary, the velocity of the particle as a function of x is v = 8x - x^2, and the position of the particle as a function of time cannot be determined without additional information.

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In which situation, BJT npn transistor operates as a good amplifier? E. 0.68 V A. Vas Reverse bias and Ve Reverse bas B. Var Forward bias and Vac Forward bas C. Vas Forward bias and Vic Reverse bas D. Vas Reverse bias and Vic Forward bas E. All of them because it depends only on the value of le

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Among the options provided, the situation in which a BJT (npn transistor) operates as a good amplifier is Var forward bias and Vac forward bias. Hence option B is correct.

In this configuration, the base-emitter junction (Var) is forward biased, allowing a small input signal to control a larger output signal. The base-collector junction (Vac) is also forward biased, providing proper biasing conditions for amplification.

Options A, C, and D involve reverse biasing of either the base-emitter junction (Vas) or the base-collector junction (Vic), which hinders the transistor's amplification capabilities.

Option E states that all situations can result in good amplification, depending only on the value of le. However, this statement is not accurate as the biasing conditions play a crucial role in determining the transistor's amplification performance.

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True or False: Write T for True and F for False only. The delta configuration is commonly used in SOURCE side. True or False: Write T for True and F for False only. The wye configuration is commonly used in SOURCE side.

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The statement “The delta configuration is commonly used in SOURCE side” is false.The statement “The wye configuration is commonly used in SOURCE side” is true.

The delta connection is commonly used in DISTRIBUTION systems, not source side. The delta (Δ) configuration is also called as the mesh or closed delta. It is called mesh as it forms a closed loop which looks similar to a fishnet or mesh or net. This closed delta arrangement is usually used in transformer windings and motor windings. Hence, the given statement is false.

The wye (Y) configuration is also called a star or connected to ground. It is called connected to ground as it usually has the neutral point connected to ground. This wye arrangement is used in the transformer and generator windings. Hence, the given statement is true.

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QUESTION 34 Which of the followings is true? Phasors can be processed using O A. graphs. O B. complex numbers only. O C. complex conjugates only. O D. numerical calculations only. QUESTION 35 Which of the followings is true? For PM, given that the normalised phase deviation is exp(-2 t), the message is O A. - exp(-2 t). O B.2 exp(-2 t). OC. +2 exp(-2 t). O D. + exp(-2 t).

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For QUESTION 34, the correct statement is:B. Phasors can be processed using complex numbers only.

Phasors are mathematical representations used to analyze and describe the amplitude and phase relationships of sinusoidal signals in electrical engineering and physics. They are often represented using complex numbers, where the real part represents the magnitude (amplitude) and the imaginary part represents the phase angle. Complex numbers provide a convenient and concise way to manipulate and analyze phasor quantities.For QUESTION 35, the correct statement is:C. For PM, given that the normalized phase deviation is exp(-2t), the message is +2exp(-2t).In Phase Modulation (PM), the phase deviation is directly related to the message signal. The given normalized phase deviation exp(-2t) implies that the phase of the carrier signal changes according to the exponential function exp(-2t). Since the message is represented by the phase deviation, the message in this case is +2exp(-2t), indicating a positive amplitude modulation of the carrier signal with the message signal.

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Question 3 Which of the following is the proper declaration of a pointer to a double? double &x; O double x; double *x; O None of the abov

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A proper declaration of a pointer to a double is `double *x`. Therefore option C is the right answer.

A pointer is a variable that stores the memory address of another variable, so that you can access the values ​​stored in it. he pointer type determines the type of the variable it is pointing to. In this case, we want to declare a pointer to a double variable, so we use the double type followed by an asterisk (*) to indicate that it is a pointer. The name of the pointer variable is then specified after the asterisk. The other options are not correct because: Option A: `double &x;` is a reference variable to a double, not a pointer to a double. It is a different type of variable that works like an alias to another variable. Option B: `double x;` is just a regular double variable, not a pointer to a double.

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Catalogue data of 4.8 % clearance R134a compressor with piston displacement of 2 m³/min shows the capacity to be 12.7 TR, when the suction conditions are 20 °C and 5.7160 bar and condensing temperature is 40 °C. The refrigerant leaves the condenser as saturated liquid. At these compressor conditions, calculate: a) The mass flow rate of refrigerant at compressor inlet b) The actual volumetric efficiency c) The clearance volumetric efficiency d) The clearance volume, in m³/min 2 [9 marks] [3 marks] [3 marks] [2 mark]

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a) Mass flow rate at compressor inlet: Additional information required.

b) Actual volumetric efficiency: Actual volume flow rate of compressor required.

c) Clearance volumetric efficiency: Clearance volume and actual volume flow rate required.

d) Clearance volume: Clearance percentage (4.8%) multiplied by piston displacement.

a) The mass flow rate of refrigerant at the compressor inlet can be calculated using the ideal gas law and the given suction conditions:

  Mass flow rate = (P * V) / (R * T)

where P is the pressure, V is the volume, R is the gas constant, and T is the temperature.

b) The actual volumetric efficiency can be calculated as the ratio of the actual volume flow rate to the piston displacement:

  Actual volumetric efficiency = (Actual volume flow rate) / (Piston displacement)

c) The clearance volumetric efficiency can be calculated as the ratio of the clearance volume to the piston displacement:

  Clearance volumetric efficiency = (Clearance volume) / (Piston displacement)

d) The clearance volume can be calculated using the clearance percentage and the piston displacement:

  Clearance volume = (Clearance percentage / 100) * Piston displacement

Note: The specific values and calculations would require the specific clearance percentage and compressor data provided in the catalog.

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Good day! As we have agreed upon during Module 1 , one of the assessments under Module 3 will be the real life applications of Mechanics. Please give at least 3 applications of Mechanics to your daily life. Submission of this will be on or before July 30, 2022, Saturday, until 11:59PM. This activity will be done through a powerpoint presentation. Take a picture of the applications and make a caption depicting what is the principle being applied. This can be submitted through the link provided here. Please use the filename/subject format

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Mechanics is the branch of physics that deals with the motion of objects and the forces that cause the motion.

The following are three examples of the applications of mechanics in daily life:

1. Bicycle- The mechanics of a bicycle is an excellent example of how mechanics is used in everyday life.

The wheels, gears, brakes, and pedals all operate on mechanical principles.

The pedals transfer mechanical energy to the chain, which then drives the wheels, causing them to rotate and propel the bicycle forward.

2. Car- A car's engine is another example of how mechanics is used in everyday life.

The engine transforms chemical energy into mechanical energy, which propels the vehicle.

The gears, wheels, and brakes, as well as the suspension system, all operate on mechanical principles.

3. Elevators- Elevators rely heavily on mechanics to function.

The elevator car is lifted and lowered by a system of cables and pulleys that is operated by an electric motor.

A counterweight is used to balance the load, and a brake system is used to hold the car in place between floors.

Thus, these are the 3 examples of mechanics that we use daily in our life.

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For a flux of D = 5xy5 ax + y4z ay + yz3 az, find the following: a. the volume charge density at P(4, 2, 1). (5 points) b. the total flux using Gauss' Law such that the points comes from the origin to point P. (10 points) c. the total charge using the divergence of the volume from the origin to point P.

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a. The volume charge density at point P(4, 2, 1) is 198. b. The total flux using Gauss' Law cannot be determined without additional information about the electric field and charge distribution. c. The total charge using the divergence of the volume cannot be determined without specifying the limits of integration and the shape of the volume.

a. To find the volume charge density, we need to calculate the divergence of the electric flux density D at point P(4, 2, 1). The divergence is given by div(D) = ∂Dx/∂x + ∂Dy/∂y + ∂Dz/∂z. By substituting the values of Dx, Dy, and Dz from the given flux equation, we can evaluate the divergence at point P to find the volume charge density.

b. To calculate the total flux using Gauss' Law, we need additional information about the electric field and charge distribution, such as the electric field vector E and the enclosed charge within a surface. Without this information, we cannot determine the total flux.

c. Similarly, to calculate the total charge using the divergence of the volume, we need to integrate the divergence over the volume from the origin to point P. However, without specifying the limits of integration and the shape of the volume, we cannot determine the total charge.

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In your house, you have an electrical heater to heat 10 liter water from 0°C to 100 °C The energy required to heat 1 g of water from 0°C to 100 °C = 100 calories 1 kcal = 4186 J, 1 kWh = 3.16* 10 Joule, 1000 g of water = 1 liter of water. 1) what is the ideal energy required to heat 10 liter from 0°C to 100 °C in kWh.? 2) if the electric meter reading is 1.5 kWh, what is the efficiency of this heater. 3) if the cost of electricity is 0.12 JD for 1 kWh, what will be the cost of heating 10 liters water in Jordanian Dinar?

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The ideal energy required to heat 10 liters of water from 0°C to 100°C is approximately 418.6 kWh,the cost of heating 10 liters of water in Jordanian Dinar would be approximately 50.23 JD, considering the electricity cost of 0.12 JD per kWh.

To calculate the ideal energy required to heat 10 liters of water from 0°C to 100°C, we need to consider that 1 liter of water is equal to 1000 grams. Therefore, the total mass of water is 10,000 grams. The energy required to heat 1 gram of water by 1°C is 1 calorie. Since the temperature difference is 100°C, the total energy required is 10,000 grams * 100 calories = 1,000,000 calories. Converting this to kilowatt-hours (kWh), we divide by 3.6 million (the number of joules in a calorie) to get approximately 418.6 kWh.

The efficiency of the heater is determined by the ratio of useful output energy (energy used to heat the water) to total input energy (electricity consumed). In this case, the useful output energy is 418.6 kWh (as calculated in the previous step), and the total input energy is given as 1.5 kWh. Dividing the useful output energy by the total input energy and multiplying by 100 gives us the efficiency: (418.6 kWh / 1.5 kWh) * 100 = approximately 66.5%.

To calculate the cost of heating 10 liters of water, we multiply the total energy consumption (418.6 kWh) by the cost per kilowatt-hour (0.12 JD/kWh). Multiplying these values gives us the cost in Jordanian Dinar: 418.6 kWh * 0.12 JD/kWh = approximately 50.23 JD.

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Air at temperature of 50°C db, 80% relative humidity and a pressure of 100 kPa undergoes a throttling process to a pressure of 90 kPa. Calculate the specific humidity at the final equilibrium state. Assume that air and water vapor behave like ideal gases.

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The specific humidity at the final equilibrium state is calculated using the given conditions and the ideal gas law.

What is the specific humidity at the final equilibrium state after throttling air from 100 kPa to 90 kPa with initial conditions of 50°C dry bulb temperature and 80% relative humidity?

To calculate the specific humidity at the final equilibrium state after the throttling process, we can use the concept of the psychrometric chart.

Given:

Initial temperature (T1) = 50°C

Relative humidity (RH) = 80%

Initial pressure (P1) = 100 kPa

Final pressure (P2) = 90 kPa

1. Find the saturation vapor pressure at T1:

Using the psychrometric chart or equations, find the saturation vapor pressure (Psat) at 50°C. Let's assume it to be Psat1.

2. Find the vapor pressure at T1:

The vapor pressure (Pv1) can be calculated using the equation:

Pv1 = (RH/100) * Psat1

3. Find the dry air pressure at T1:

Pdry1 = P1 - Pv1

4. Find the specific humidity at T1:

The specific humidity (ω1) can be calculated using the equation:

ω1 = (0.622 * Pv1) / (Pdry1 - 0.378 * Pv1)

5. Use the ideal gas law to find the final temperature (T2):

Using the ideal gas law, we have:

(P1 * V1) / T1 = (P2 * V2) / T2

where V1 and V2 represent the specific volumes of dry air at the initial and final states, respectively.

6. Find the saturation vapor pressure at T2:

Using the psychrometric chart or equations, find the saturation vapor pressure (Psat) at the final temperature T2. Let's assume it to be Psat2.

7. Find the vapor pressure at T2:

The vapor pressure (Pv2) can be calculated using the equation:

Pv2 = (P2 * ω1 * Pdry1) / ((0.622 * ω1) + 0.378)

8. Find the specific humidity at the final equilibrium state:

The specific humidity (ω2) at the final state is given by:

ω2 = (0.622 * Pv2) / (P2 - 0.378 * Pv2)

Calculate ω2 using the obtained values of Pv2 and P2 to get the specific humidity at the final equilibrium state.

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Which of the following statements is true for a mechanical energy reservoir (MER)? O stores work as KE or PE O all of the mentioned O all processes within an MER are quasi-static O it is a large body enclosed by an adiabatic impermeable wall

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The statement "O all of the mentioned" is true for a mechanical energy reservoir (MER).

A mechanical energy reservoir is a system that stores mechanical energy in various forms such as kinetic energy (KE) or potential energy (PE). It acts as a source or sink of energy for mechanical processes.

In an MER, all processes are typically assumed to be quasi-static. Quasi-static processes are slow and occur in equilibrium, allowing the system to continuously adjust to external changes. This assumption simplifies the analysis and allows for the application of concepts like work and energy.

Lastly, an MER can be visualized as a large body enclosed by an adiabatic impermeable wall. This means that it does not exchange heat with its surroundings (adiabatic) and does not allow the transfer of mass across its boundaries (impermeable).

Therefore, all of the mentioned statements are true for a mechanical energy reservoir.

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QUESTION 10 Plot the Bode Plot for low pass filter with R=3.3kΩ and C=0.033μF. Include all the calculation stpes and points on Bode Plot. Each step carry marks.

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A Bode plot is a graph that describes a linear, time-invariant system's frequency response using two axes: the magnitude of the frequency response (in decibels) and the phase (in degrees).

It is a logarithmic plot of the system's magnitude and phase as a function of frequency. It is used to predict how the system will react to specific frequencies and how its performance will be impacted by specific components.In order to plot the Bode plot for a low pass filter with

R=3.3kΩ and

C=0.033μF,

we must first calculate the cutoff frequency and then plot the gain and phase shift.

The formula for calculating the cutoff frequency (fc) is as follows:

fc = 1/(2πRC)

= 1/(2π(3.3kΩ)(0.033μF))

= 1507.96 Hz

The Bode plot is divided into two sections: the magnitude plot and the phase plot. The magnitude plot is plotted on the y-axis, and the frequency is plotted on the x-axis. The phase plot is plotted on the y-axis, and the frequency is plotted on the x-axis. Both plots are plotted on logarithmic scales. The magnitude plot is plotted in decibels (dB), and the phase plot is plotted in degrees (°).Gain: The gain plot for the low pass filter is given by the equation

A(f) = 20 log(Vout/Vin) where Vin and Vout are the input and output voltages of the filter, respectively.

The gain plot is a straight line with a slope of -20 dB/decade.

Phase Shift: The phase shift plot for the low pass filter is given by the equation

φ(f) = -arctan(2πfRC) where f is the frequency of the input signal. The phase shift plot is a straight line with a slope of -45°/decade.\

Calculation steps:-The cutoff frequency is calculated using the formula

fc = 1/(2πRC).-

The gain plot is plotted using the equation

A(f) = 20 log(Vout/Vin) where Vin and Vout are the input and output voltages of the filter, and respectively.-The phase shift plot is plotted using the equation

φ(f) = -arctan(2πfRC)

where f is the frequency of the input signal.-Both plots are plotted on logarithmic scales.-The main plot is a straight line with a slope of -20 dB/decade.-The phase shift plot is a straight line with a slope of -45°/decade.

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A 15 mm diameter steel bar has a forged surface with the ultimate strength Su = 1100 MPa and the yield strength Sy = 715 MPa. a) Esti- mate the S-N curve and the family of constant life fatigue curves for axial load. Estimate the fatigue life for 4x10⁵ cycles. b) Determine the fatigue strength corresponding to 10⁶ cycles and to 4x10⁴ cycles for the case of zero- to-maximum (rather than completely reversed) load fluctuations for bending and no yielding

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a) The estimated fatigue life for 4x10⁵ cycles under axial load is approximately 179,260 cycles, based on the given ultimate strength (Su) and yield strength (Sy) of the steel bar.

b) In the case of zero-to-maximum load fluctuations in bending and no yielding, the fatigue strength remains constant regardless of the number of cycles and is equal to the yield strength (Sy) of the steel bar, which is 715 MPa.

a) To estimate the S-N curve and the family of constant life fatigue curves for axial load, we can use the Basquin's equation, which relates the stress amplitude (Sa) and the number of cycles to failure (Nf).

The equation can be written as:

[tex]Sa = C\times(Nf)^(^-^b^)[/tex]

Where:

Sa is the stress amplitude,

Nf is the number of cycles to failure,

C and b are material constants.

To estimate the S-N curve, we need to determine the values of C and b.

C is related to the ultimate strength and b is related to the slope of the S-N curve.

Assuming a typical value for b in the range of 0.1 to 0.2, we can estimate C using the Su value:

[tex]C = Su / (4 \times 10^(^-^b^))[/tex]

Substituting the given values:

Su = 1100 MPa

Assuming b = 0.15:

To estimate the fatigue life for 4x10⁵ cycles, we can rearrange the Basquin's equation to solve for Nf:

[tex]Nf = (Sa / C)^(^-^1^/^b^)[/tex]

Substituting Sa = Sy (yield strength):

[tex]Nf = (Sy / C)^(^-^1^/^b^)[/tex]

=[tex](715 MPa / C)^(^-^1^/^0^.^1^5^)[/tex]

[tex]Nf = (715 MPa / 871.78 MPa)^(^-^1^/^0^.^1^5^)[/tex]

Nf = 179,260 cycles

b)

The Goodman equation relates the alternating stress (Sa) and the mean stress (Sm) to the yield strength (Sy) and the ultimate strength (Su):

(Sa / Sy) + (Sm / Su) = 1

Rearranging the equation, we can solve for Sa:

Sa = Sy × (1 - Sm / Su)

For 10⁶ cycles:

Sa = Sy × (1 - Sm / Su)

Substituting Sm = 0 (zero mean stress):

Sa = Sy

For 4x10⁴ cycles:

Sa = Sy × (1 - Sm / Su)

Substituting Sm = 0 (zero mean stress):

Sa = Sy

Sy = 715 MPa.

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A three-phase motor is connected to a three-phase source with a line voltage of 440V. If the motor consumes a total of 55kW at 0.73 power factor lagging, what is the line current?

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A three-phase motor is connected to a three-phase source with a line voltage of 440V. If the motor consumes a total of 55kW at 0.73 power factor lagging The line current of the three-phase motor is 88.74A

Voltage (V) = 440V Total power (P) = 55 kW Power factor (pf) = 0.73 Formula used:The formula to calculate the line current in a three-phase system is:Line current = Total power (P) / (Square root of 3 x Voltage (V) x power factor (pf))

Let's substitute the values in the above formula,Line current = 55,000 / (1.732 x 440 x 0.73) = 88.74ATherefore, the line current of the three-phase motor is 88.74A.

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8. Write and execute a query that will delete all countries that are not assigned to an office or a client. You must do this in a single query to receive credit for this question. Write the delete query below and then execute the following statement in SQL Server: Select * from Countries. Take a screenshot of your select query results and paste them below your delete query that you constructed.

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The Countries which are not assigned any Office means that the values are Null or Blank:

I created a table:

my sql> select*from Country; + | Country Name | Office | - + | Yes | NULL | Yes | Croatia | Argentina Sweden Brazil Sweden | Au

Here in this table there is Country Name and a Office Column where it is Yes, Null and Blank.

So, we need to delete the Blank and Null values as these means that there are no office assigned to those countries.

The SQL statement:

We will use the delete function,

delete from Country selects the Country table.

where Office is Null or Office = ' ' ,checks for values in Office column which are Null or Blank and deletes it.

Code:

mysql> delete from Country     -> where Office is Null or Office = ''; Query OK, 3 rows affected (0.01 sec)

Code Image:

mysql> delete from Country -> where Office is Null or Office Query OK, 3 rows affected (0.01 sec) =

Output:

mysql> select*from Country; + | Country Name | Office | + | Croatia Sweden Sweden | India | Yes | Yes Yes | Yes + 4 rows in s

You can see that all the countries with Null and Blank values are deleted

An exhaust fan, of mass 140 kg and operating speed of 900rpm, produces a repeated force of 30,500 N on its rigid base. If the maximum force transmutted to the base is to be limited to 6500 N using an undamped isolator, determine: (a) the maximum permissible stiffress of the isolator that serves the purpose, and (b) the steady state amplitude of the exhaust fan with the isolator that has the maximum permissible stiffness.

Answers

(a) The maximum permissible stiffness of the isolator is 184,294.15 N/mm.

(b) The steady-state amplitude of the exhaust fan with the isolator that has the maximum permissible stiffness is 0.18 mm.

(a) Mass of the exhaust fan (m) = 140 kg

Operating speed (N) = 900 rpm

Repeated force (F) = 30,500 N

Maximum force (Fmax) = 6,500 N

Let's calculate the force transmitted (Fn):

Fn = (4πmN²)/g

Force transmitted (Fn) = (4 * 3.14 * 140 * 900 * 900) / 9.8Fn = 33,127.02 N

As we know that the maximum force transmitted to the base is to be limited to 6,500 N using an undamped isolator, we will use the following formula to determine the maximum permissible stiffness of the isolator that serves the purpose.

K = (Fn² - Fmax²)¹/² / xmax

where, K = maximum permissible stiffness of the isolator

Fn = 33,127.02 N

Fmax = 6,500 N

xmax = 0.5 mm

K = ((33,127.02)² - (6,500^2))¹/² / 0.5K = 184,294.15 N/mm

(b) Let's determine the steady-state amplitude of the exhaust fan with the isolator that has the maximum permissible stiffness.

Maximum amplitude (X) = F / K

Maximum amplitude (X) = 33,127.02 / 184,294.15

Maximum amplitude (X) = 0.18 mm

Therefore, the steady-state amplitude of the exhaust fan with the isolator that has the maximum permissible stiffness is 0.18 mm.

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What is the physical meaning of sampling theorem? And Write down the corresponding expressions for low-pass analog signals and band pass analog signals. What happens if the sampling theorem is not satisfied when sampling an analog signal?

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The sampling theorem, also known as Nyquist-Shannon sampling theorem, states that in order to accurately reconstruct an analog signal from its discrete samples, the sampling rate must be at least twice the maximum frequency present in the signal.

In other words, the sampling frequency should be greater than or equal to the Nyquist frequency, which is half the maximum frequency of the signal.

For low-pass analog signals, the sampling theorem states that the sampling frequency (Fs) should be greater than or equal to twice the maximum frequency (Fmax) in the signal, i.e., Fs ≥ 2Fmax.

For bandpass analog signals, the sampling theorem states that the sampling frequency (Fs) should be greater than or equal to twice the bandwidth (B) of the signal, i.e., Fs ≥ 2B.If the sampling theorem is not satisfied and the sampling frequency is too low, a phenomenon called aliasing occurs. Aliasing causes the high-frequency components of the signal to fold back into the lower frequencies, leading to distortions and the inability to accurately reconstruct the original signal.

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the phrase ad hoc queries means:- group of answer choices -programmed queries -new, one-of-a-kind queries -highly structured queries -standard queries

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The phrase "ad hoc queries" means new, one-of-a-kind queries. Ad hoc queries are created on the spot, usually to solve an immediate need. Ad hoc is a Latin term that means "for this purpose."

Ad hoc queries refer to one-time, one-of-a-kind queries that are generated on the fly to answer a particular question or satisfy an immediate need. Ad hoc queries are typically requested by power users or business analysts, and they are frequently ad hoc because the user does not know what data is available or how the data can be accessed.

The Advantages of Ad Hoc Queries:-

Ad hoc queries can provide several advantages, including the ability to answer a one-time query or provide information that is not available in existing reports.

Ad hoc queries are frequently employed in data discovery and data mining activities because they allow users to interactively explore data and spot trends that might not be immediately obvious.

Another significant benefit of ad hoc queries is the ability to generate fresh insight and detect anomalies that standard reports might overlook.

Additionally, ad hoc queries can be used to identify data-quality issues that need to be resolved.

In summary, ad hoc queries provide flexibility and agility for users to solve issues that may arise quickly.

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What is the maximum number of locations that a sequential search algorithm will have to examine when looking for particular value in an array of 50 elements?
50
25
12
6
1 Which of the following sorting algorithms is described by this text? "Split the array or ArrayList in two parts. Take each part, and split into two parts. Repeat this process until a part has only two items, and swap them if necessary to get them in order with one another. Then, take that part and combine it with the adjacent part, sorting as you combine. Repeat untill all parts have been combined."

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The maximum number of locations that a sequential search algorithm will have to examine when looking for a particular value in an array of 50 elements is 50. In the worst-case scenario, the desired value could be located at the last position of the array, requiring the algorithm to iterate through all elements before finding it.

The sorting algorithm described in the text is the Merge Sort algorithm. Merge Sort follows a divide-and-conquer approach by recursively splitting the array into smaller parts, sorting them individually, and then merging them back together in a sorted manner. It ensures that each part is sorted before merging them, resulting in an overall sorted array.

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A semiconductor material has a spontaneous emission rate Rsp R₁ under thermal equilibrium. (i) Assuming n。 = P₁, calculate the exact value of the required concentration of excess carriers, An, such that the new total spontaneous emission rate under excitation, R₂, is equal to 10¹ (R₁). Write the answer in terms of no. (10 points) (ii) Show that doubling An from Part (i) results in a new spontaneous emission rate, R3, that is approximately equal to 4R₂. (10 points)

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The spontaneous emission rate refers to the rate at which photons are emitted by excited atoms or electrons in a material without any external stimulation. It is a fundamental process in which an excited state transitions to a lower energy state by emitting a photon. The spontaneous emission rate depends on various factors such as the energy level structure of the material, temperature, and other physical properties. It is typically represented by the symbol Rsp. doubling An from Part (i) results in a new spontaneous emission rate (R3) that is approximately equal to 4 times R₂.

(i) To calculate the required concentration of excess carriers (An) such that the new total spontaneous emission rate under excitation (R₂) is equal to 10¹ times the initial spontaneous emission rate (R₁), we can set up the equation:

R₂ = R₁ + An

Since we want R₂ to be 10 times R₁, we have:

10R₁ = R₁ + An

Simplifying the equation, we find:

An = 9R₁

Therefore, the required concentration of excess carriers (An) is equal to 9 times the initial spontaneous emission rate (R₁).

(ii) Doubling An from Part (i) means that the new concentration of excess carriers ([tex]A_2n[/tex]) is 2An. We need to find the new spontaneous emission rate ([tex]R_3[/tex]) in terms of R₂.

[tex]R_3[/tex] = R₂ + A2n

Substituting the value of A2n, we get:

([tex]R_3[/tex]) = R₂ + 2An

Since An is 9R₁ (as found in Part i), we have:

([tex]R_3[/tex]) = R₂ + 2(9R₁)

([tex]R_3[/tex])= R₂ + 18R₁

Approximately, ([tex]R_3[/tex]) is equal to 4 times R₂ (4R₂).

Therefore, doubling An from Part (i) results in a new spontaneous emission rate (R3) that is approximately equal to 4 times R₂.

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Name the eight key elements recommended for an Ergonomics Program as presented in the OSHA Meatpacking Guidelines?

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The OSHA Meatpacking Guidelines recommend the following eight key elements for an Ergonomics Program in the meatpacking industry:

These key elements are designed to help prevent and mitigate ergonomic hazards in the meatpacking industry, reducing the risk of work-related injuries and promoting a safer working environment for employees.

Management Commitment and Employee Involvement: Management should demonstrate a commitment to ergonomics by allocating resources, establishing policies, and involving employees in the decision-making processWorksite Analysis: Conduct a thorough analysis of the worksite to identify ergonomic risk factors, such as repetitive motions, awkward postures, and heavy lifting.

Hazard Prevention and Control: Implement measures to prevent and control ergonomic hazards, including engineering controls, administrative controls, and personal protective equipment (PPE). Training: Provide training to employees on ergonomics awareness, hazard recognition, and safe work practices to minimize the risk of musculoskeletal disorders (MSDs).

Medical Management: Develop protocols for early detection and management of work-related MSDs, including prompt reporting, medical evaluation, treatment, and rehabilitation.

Program Evaluation: Regularly assess the effectiveness of the ergonomics program, identify areas for improvement, and make necessary adjustments.Recordkeeping and Program Documentation: Maintain records related to ergonomics program activities, including assessments, training, incident reports, and corrective actions.

Management Review: Conduct periodic reviews of the ergonomics program to ensure its continued effectiveness and make any necessary updates or revisions.

These key elements are designed to help prevent and mitigate ergonomic hazards in the meatpacking industry, reducing the risk of work-related injuries and promoting a safer working environment for employees.

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A fuel oil is burned with air in a boiler furnace. The combustion produces 813 kW of thermal energy, of which 65% is transferred as heat to a boiler tubes that pass through the furnace. The combustion products pass from the furnace to a stack at 650°C. Water enters the boiler tubes as a liquid at 20 °C and leaves the tubes as saturated steam at 20 bar absolute a. Define the system. What type of energy balance is needed? Calculate the rate (kg/hr) at which steam is produced.

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Fuel oil burned in boiler furnace Thermal energy produced by combustion = 813 kW Percentage of heat transferred = 65% Temperature of combustion products passing from furnace to stack = 650°C Water enters boiler tubes as a liquid at 20°C Water leaves the tubes as saturated steam at 20 bar absolute. Hence Steam is generated at a rate of 236.89 kg/hr.

According to the given data, the system here is the boiler, the fuel oil, and the combustion air.Type of energy balance:According to the given data, a steady-state energy balance can be applied to the given data.Calculate the rate at which steam is produced:First, we calculate the rate at which heat is transferred from combustion to the boiler tubes. Q1 = Q2 + Q3 Q1 is the heat produced by combustion Q2 is the heat transferred to the boiler tubes Q3 is the heat transferred to the surroundings by the combustion products Q2 = Q1 × percentage of heat transferred Q2 = 813 × 0.65 Q2 = 528.45 kW Cooling water flows at 30 °C and leaves at 80 °C.

We know that the rate of flow of cooling water is 72.4 kg/s and the specific heat capacity of water is 4.18 kJ/kg·°C.The heat transferred to cooling water can be calculated as: Q3 = mass flow rate of cooling water × specific heat capacity of water × (final temperature of water – initial temperature of water)Q3 = 72.4 × 4.18 × (80 − 30)Q3 = 157883.2 J/s This value must be converted to kW, which is the unit of power used in this problem. Q3 = 157883.2/1000Q3 = 157.88 kW Rate of steam production can be calculated as: Q2 = msteam × hfg where hfg is the specific enthalpy of vaporizationQ2 = mass of steam produced per unit time × specific enthalpy of vaporization Mass of steam produced per unit time = Q2/hfg Mass of steam produced per unit time = 528.45 × 1000/2227 Mass of steam produced per unit time = 236.89 kg/hr.

Therefore, the rate at which steam is produced is 236.89 kg/hr.

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Draw the T-type equivalent circuit of transformer, and mark the components in the circuit by R₁, X₁, R₂, X, Rm and Xm. Which symbol stands for the magnetization reactance? Which symbol stands for the primary leakage reactance? Which symbol is the equivalent resistance for the iron loss? Which symbol is the secondary resistance referred to the primary side? (6 marks).

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The T-type equivalent circuit of a transformer consists of four components namely R1, X1, R2 and X2 that represent the equivalent resistance and leakage reactance of the primary and secondary winding, respectively


Symbol stands for the magnetization reactance: Xm

symbol stands for the primary leakage reactance: X1

Symbol is the equivalent resistance for the iron loss: Rm

Symbol is the secondary resistance referred to the primary side: R2T

herefore, the above mentioned circuit is called the T-type equivalent circuit of a transformer. In this circuit, R1 is the resistance of the primary winding,

X1 is the leakage reactance of the primary winding, R2 is the resistance of the secondary winding, and X2 is the leakage reactance of the secondary winding.

The equivalent resistance for the core losses is represented by Rm.

The magnetization reactance is represented by Xs. The primary leakage reactance is represented by X1.

The secondary resistance referred to the primary side is represented by R2.

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The step down chopper is operating at 1 kHz. Other data are V = 240 V, L = 10 mH, R = 10 and duty cycle 60%. (a) current. Determine the DC component of the load current and the peak-to-peak ripple in the load (b) By how much will the above values change if the frequency is increased to 2 kHz other data remaining the same. (c) What will the change in the values determined in (a) if the frequency is unchanged but the inductance value is increased to 20 mH, other data remaining the same.

Answers

Changes in values if inductance is increased to 20 mH: Recalculate I_avg and I_ripple using new inductance.

Calculate the DC component of the load current and the peak-to-peak ripple in the load for a step-down chopper operating at 1 kHz with given data (V = 240 V, L = 10 mH, R = 10, duty cycle = 60%). Determine the changes in these values if the frequency is increased to 2 kHz or the inductance is increased to 20 mH.

To determine the DC component of the load current and the peak-to-peak ripple in the load:

Calculate the inductor current during the on-time of the chopper:

I_Lon = (V * Ton) / L, where V is the input voltage, Ton is the on-time, and L is the inductance.Given V = 240 V, L = 10 mH, and duty cycle = 60% (Ton = 0.6 * T, where T is the switching period).

Calculate the inductor current during the off-time of the chopper:

I_Loff = I_Lon * (1 - duty cycle) = I_Lon * (1 - 0.6).

Calculate the average load current (DC component):

I_avg = I_Lon * duty cycle + I_Loff * (1 - duty cycle).

Calculate the peak-to-peak ripple in the load current:

   I_ripple = I_Lon - I_Loff.

If the frequency is increased to 2 kHz:

Calculate the new on-time:

Ton_new = Ton * (f_new / f_old) = Ton * (2 kHz / 1 kHz).

Repeat steps 1-4 from part (a) using the new on-time value.

If the inductance value is increased to 20 mH:

Repeat steps 1-4 from part (a) using the new inductance value of 20 mH.

Please note that for accurate calculations, the units must be consistent (e.g., convert mH to H).

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7 ion Schering bridge is used for: Select one: a. low and high voltages O b. low voltages only O c. high voltages only O d. intermediate voltages only Clear my choice

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Schering bridge is a type of AC bridge circuit which is used to determine the capacitance of the capacitor with high precision.

The Schering bridge is usually used for intermediate voltages only. The working of Schering bridge is based on the principle of balancing the capacitance and the resistance of the capacitor. In this bridge, a known resistance is connected in parallel to a known capacitor.

The Schering bridge is used in capacitance measurements with high accuracy. It is used in different industries for testing different types of capacitors including air capacitors, low-loss capacitors, mica capacitors, and other types of capacitors.

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pressure switches are the only pressure sensing devices that an electrician is likely to encounter on the job. TRUE/FALSE

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False: Pressure switches are not the only pressure sensing devices that an electrician is likely to encounter on the job. While pressure switches are commonly used in various applications, there are other pressure sensing devices that an electrician may come across.

Some examples of pressure sensing devices include:

1. Pressure transducers: These devices convert pressure into an electrical signal and are used to measure and monitor pressure in various systems.

2. Pressure gauges: These mechanical devices provide a visual indication of pressure through a dial or a digital display.

3. Pressure sensors: These electronic devices detect pressure changes and generate corresponding electrical signals for measurement or control purposes.

4. Pressure transmitters: These devices combine pressure sensing and signal transmission capabilities, converting pressure into a standardized electrical signal for remote monitoring or control.

It is important for electricians to be familiar with a range of pressure sensing devices as they may need to install, maintain, troubleshoot, or replace them in different electrical and mechanical systems.

Thus, the correct option is "False".

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False: Pressure switches are not the only pressure sensing devices that an electrician is likely to encounter on the job. While pressure switches are commonly used in various applications, there are other pressure sensing devices that an electrician may come across.

Some examples of pressure sensing devices include:

1. Pressure transducers: These devices convert pressure into an electrical signal and are used to measure and monitor pressure in various systems.

2. Pressure gauges: These mechanical devices provide a visual indication of pressure through a dial or a digital display.

3. Pressure sensors: These electronic devices detect pressure changes and generate corresponding electrical signals for measurement or control purposes.

4. Pressure transmitters: These devices combine pressure sensing and signal transmission capabilities, converting pressure into a standardized electrical signal for remote monitoring or control.

It is important for electricians to be familiar with a range of pressure sensing devices as they may need to install, maintain, troubleshoot, or replace them in different electrical and mechanical systems.

Thus, the correct option is "False".

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Assuming that the required power for cruising an airplane with a total weight of 200 kgf and a cruising speed of 15 m / s is 1 kW, obtain the following values. The air density is constant at 1.25 kg / m^3 regardless of altitude.
1) Find the required power for the above airplane to fly ascending at a speed of 15 m / s at an ascending angle of 3°.
2) When the above airplane travels on a concrete runway with µ= 0.02 with constant thrust while maintaining a horizontal state from a state where it is stationary on the ground, the drag coefficient CD and lift coefficient CL of the entire aircraft are constant regardless of speed. If so, find the thrust required to reach 15 m / s in one minute from rest. Also, find the distance traveled to reach 15 m / s.

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the equations related to power, force, and distance traveled. Let's calculate the required values:

1) Required power for ascending flight:

The required power for ascending flight can be calculated using the following equation:

P_ascend = (F_ascend × V) / η

where P_ascend is the required power, F_ascend is the ascending force, V is the velocity, and η is the efficiency.

Since the ascending angle is given as 3°, we can calculate the ascending force using the equation:

F_ascend = Weight × sin(θ)

where Weight is the total weight of the airplane.

Substituting the given values, we have:

Weight = 200 kgf = 200 × 9.81 N (conversion from kgf to Newtons)

θ = 3°

V = 15 m/s

η = 1 (assuming 100% efficiency)

Calculating the ascending force:

F_ascend = Weight × sin(θ)

Now, we can calculate the required power for ascending flight:

P_ascend = (F_ascend × V) / η

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Develop a minimum-multiplier realization of a length-7 Type 3 Linear Phase FIR Filter.

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A minimum-multiplier realization of a length-7 Type 3 Linear Phase FIR Filter can be developed.

To develop a minimum-multiplier realization of a length-7 Type 3 Linear Phase FIR Filter, we need to understand the key components and design considerations involved. A Type 3 Linear Phase FIR Filter is characterized by its linear phase response, which means that all frequency components of the input signal experience the same constant delay. The minimum-multiplier realization aims to minimize the number of multipliers required in the filter implementation, leading to a more efficient design.

In this case, we have a length-7 filter, which implies that the filter has 7 taps or coefficients. Each tap represents a specific weight or gain applied to a delayed version of the input signal. To achieve a minimum-multiplier realization, we can exploit the symmetry properties of the filter coefficients.

By carefully analyzing the symmetry properties, we can design a structure that reduces the number of required multipliers. For a length-7 Type 3 Linear Phase FIR Filter, the minimum-multiplier realization can be achieved by utilizing symmetric and anti-symmetric coefficients. The symmetric coefficients have the same value at equal distances from the center tap, while the anti-symmetric coefficients have opposite values at equal distances from the center tap.

By taking advantage of these symmetries, we can effectively reduce the number of multipliers needed to implement the filter. This results in a more efficient and resource-friendly design.

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For a reversible refrigerator, Coefficient of Performance is given by OT2/(T1-T2) OT1/(T2-T1) O T1/(T1-T2) O T2/(T2-T1) "

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The COP equation provides a quantitative measure of the efficiency of a reversible refrigerator in terms of the temperature differences involved in the cooling process.

The Coefficient of Performance (COP) is a measure of the efficiency of a refrigerator, representing the amount of cooling it produces per unit of work input. For a reversible refrigerator, the COP is given by the ratio of the temperature difference between the cold and hot reservoirs to the temperature difference between the hot and cold reservoirs.

the COP is calculated as COP = T2 / (T1 - T2), where T1 is the temperature of the high-temperature reservoir (source) and T2 is the temperature of the low-temperature reservoir (sink).

A higher COP indicates a more efficient refrigerator, as it produces more cooling per unit of work input. By minimizing the temperature difference between the hot and cold reservoirs, the COP can be improved. However, the COP is limited by the temperature range at which the refrigerator operates.

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A cylinder with a movable piston contains 5.00 liters of a gas at 30°C and 5.00 bar. The piston is slowly moved to compress the gas to 8.80bar. (a) Considering the system to be the gas in the cylinder and neglecting ΔEp, write and simplify the closed-system energy balance. Do not assume that the process is isothermal in this part. (b) Suppose now that the process is carried out isothermally, and the compression work done on the gas equals 7.65L bar. If the gas is ideal so that ^ U is a function only of T, how much heat (in joules) is transferred to or from (state which) thes urroundings? (Use the gas-constant table in the back of the book to determine the factor needed to convert Lbar to joules.)(c) Suppose instead that the process is adiabatic and that ^ U increases as T increases. Is the nal system temperature greater than, equal to, or less than 30°C? (Briey state your reasoning.)

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A cylinder with a movable piston contains 5.00 liters of a gas at 30°C and 5.00 bar. The piston is slowly moved to compress the gas to 8.80bar.

(a) The closed-system energy balance can be written as follows:ΔU = Q − W, where ΔU is the change in internal energy, Q is the heat transferred to the system, and W is the work done by the system. Neglecting ΔEp, the work done by the system is given by W = PΔV, where P is the pressure and ΔV is the change in volume. Therefore, ΔU = Q − PΔV.

(b) Since the process is carried out isothermally, the temperature remains constant at 30°C. Therefore, ΔU = 0. The work done by the system is

W = −7.65 L bar, since the compression work is done on the gas. Using the gas constant table, we find that 1 L bar = 100 J. Therefore, the work done by the system is

W = −7.65 L bar × 100 J/L bar = −765 J. Since

ΔU = 0, we have Q = W = −765 J. The heat is transferred from the system to the surroundings.

(c) Since the process is adiabatic, Q = 0. Therefore, the closed-system energy balance simplifies to ΔU = −W. Since the gas is ideal and ^ U is a function only of T, the change in internal energy can be written as ΔU = (3/2)nRΔT, where n is the number of moles of gas, R is the gas constant, and ΔT is the change in temperature. Since ^ U increases as T increases, we have ΔU > 0. Therefore, ΔT > 0, and the final system temperature is greater than 30°C.

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