Case Scenario: John, a high school student, was diagnosed with a Staphylococcus aureus infection after developing a skin abscess on his arm. The infection likely originated from a cut he sustained during football practice. He unknowingly transmitted the bacteria to his classmates through close physical contact during sports activities.
Chain of Infections is as follows:Reservoir: John's infected arm served as the reservoir for Staphylococcus aureus.
Portal of Exit: The bacteria exited John's body through the skin abscess.
Mode of Transmission: The mode of transmission was direct contact between John and his classmates during sports activities, allowing the bacteria to transfer from his infected arm to their skin.
Portal of Entry: The bacteria entered the bodies of his classmates through cuts, abrasions, or breaks in their skin.
Susceptible Hosts: John's classmates became susceptible hosts for Staphylococcus aureus, potentially leading to infections.
To break the chain of infections in this scenario, several measures can be taken:John should receive appropriate medical treatment for his skin abscess to prevent the spread of Staphylococcus aureus.
Infected individuals should practice good hygiene, including regular handwashing and covering any wounds or skin lesions.
All sports equipment and shared surfaces should be regularly cleaned and disinfected to minimize the survival and transmission of bacteria.
Classmates should be educated about the importance of personal hygiene, such as avoiding direct contact with open wounds and promptly reporting any signs of infection.
If necessary, affected individuals may require isolation or exclusion from certain activities until the infection is resolved to prevent further transmission.
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Question 49 The field of environmental health originated in an attempt to reduce exposure to infectious diseases. It has since broadened to include all external factors (chemical, biological, and physica that can potentially affect health. True False Question 50 Changes in the habits of individuals realistically has very minor effects on the environment. True False Cell division is a loosely regulated process. A number of mechanisms help uncontrolled cell division, repair mutations to the DNA sequence, and eliminate abnormal cells. True False Question 48 3 pts Inherited genetic abnormalities account for only a small proportion of cancer. Most experts believe that lifestyle habits and environmental exposures cause the majority of cancers. True False
48. The statement is true
49. . The statement is true
50. The statement is false
How do we explain?The field of environmental health originated in an attempt to reduce exposure to infectious diseases. It has since broadened to include all external factors (chemical, biological, and physical) that can potentially affect health.
50: Changes in the habits of individuals realistically have very minor effects on the environment.
Cell division is a highly regulated process with multiple mechanisms in place to ensure controlled cell division, repair DNA mutations, and eliminate abnormal cells.
48:
Inherited genetic abnormalities or mutations play a relatively small role in the development of most cancers. The majority of cancers are believed to be caused by a combination of lifestyle habits (such as tobacco use, poor diet, lack of physical activity) and environmental exposures.
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Mrs. Saunders is a 70-year-old retired secretary admitted to your unit from the emergency department with a diagnosis of stroke (cerebrovascular accident, or CVA). She has a history of hypertension and atherosclerosis, and she had a carotid endarterectomy 6 years ago. She is 40% over her ideal body weight and has a 20-pack-year smoking history. Her daughter says her mother has been having short episodes of confusion and memory loss for the past few weeks. This morning she found her mother slumped to the right in her recliner, unable to speak.
Explain the pathophysiology of a stroke. Which type of stroke is most likely the cause of Mrs. Saunders’s symptoms?
Mrs. Saunders is flaccid on her right side. What is the term used to describe this?
Which hemisphere of Mrs. Saunders’s brain is damaged?
List four risk factors for stroke evident in Mrs. Saunders’s history.
Mrs. Saunders appears to understand when you speak to her but is unable to speak intelligibly. She says "plate" when she means shower and "broccoli" when she means gown. What is the term for this?
Neurologic checks are ordered every 2 hours for 4 hours and then every 4 hours for 4 days. When you enter her room and call her name, she opens her eyes. She is able to squeeze your hand with her left hand. However, she is only able to make incomprehensible sounds. What is her score on the Glasgow Coma Scale?
List at least three early symptoms of increasing intracranial pressure for which you will be vigilant. (You may want to refer back to Chapter 48.)
List two medications that the health care provider may order. Why might they be used?
The pathophysiology of a stroke is the result of ischemia due to reduced blood supply to a part of the brain or hemorrhage. Mrs. Saunders is likely to have had an ischemic stroke.
A stroke is a brain injury caused by a disruption in the blood supply to the brain. Ischemic and hemorrhagic are the two types of strokes. A lack of blood supply caused by an obstruction in the brain’s arteries is the most common cause of ischemic strokes. Mrs. Saunders is most likely to have had an ischemic stroke. It can be caused by a blood clot that forms in the blood vessels that supply blood to the brain. Mrs. Saunders's history of hypertension and atherosclerosis, along with a smoking history, increase her risk of ischemic stroke.
Flaccidity is the term used to describe Mrs. Saunders's right-side paralysis, which is also referred to as hemiplegia. The left side of Mrs. Saunders's brain is most likely damaged, which controls the right side of the body. Four risk factors for stroke evident in Mrs. Saunders’s history are hypertension, atherosclerosis, obesity, and smoking. Dysphasia is the term for Mrs. Saunders's difficulty in speaking intelligibly. Glasgow Coma Scale score for Mrs. Saunders is 8.
Early symptoms of increasing intracranial pressure include headache, nausea, vomiting, lethargy, decreased LOC, and changes in respiratory patterns. The healthcare provider may order anticoagulant or antiplatelet medication to prevent further stroke. In the case of ischemic stroke, thrombolytic therapy may be considered to dissolve the clot.
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A prime mover (agonist) is the name given to a muscle producing the majority of the ____________ during a joint movement.
A prime mover, also called an agonist, is a muscle that is primarily responsible for generating the force required for joint movement. When it contracts, it produces a concentric contraction, shortening and tightening the muscle fibers. This movement is essential for generating the force required for the joint to move through its range of motion.
Prime movers work together with other muscle groups, such as synergists and antagonists, to create a coordinated movement. The prime mover works by creating the initial movement, while the synergists work to stabilize the joint, and the antagonists work to slow down or stop the movement.
There are various muscles in our body, which work as prime movers or agonists. For instance, the biceps are prime movers in elbow flexion, while the triceps are prime movers in elbow extension. The quadriceps are prime movers in knee extension, while the hamstrings are prime movers in knee flexion.
The pectoralis major is a prime mover in shoulder flexion, while the latissimus dorsi is a prime mover in shoulder extension. The prime mover or agonist is an essential muscle that generates the majority of the force during joint movement. Without it, it would be challenging to produce coordinated movements and execute daily activities like walking, running, and lifting objects.
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International pacemaker code – chamber sensed, chamber paced,
etc. – what does each letter represent?
The International Pacemaker Code (IPC) is a standardized set of letters used to describe the various functions of pacemakers. The IPC consists of five letters that describe various functions of the pacemaker, such as chamber sensed, chamber paced, etc.
These letters are used by medical professionals to help identify the pacemaker functions of a particular patient and to communicate that information to other medical professionals.
Here's what each letter in the IPC represents: Letter "O": Refers to a pacemaker that does not have sensing capability and therefore will pace regardless of whether or not the heart has initiated a beat.
Letter "I": Refers to a pacemaker that can sense activity in the right atrium of the heart and therefore initiate pacing if necessary.
Letter "II": Refers to a pacemaker that can sense activity in the right atrium and ventricle of the heart and can initiate pacing in either chamber.
Letter "III": Refers to a pacemaker that can sense activity in the right atrium and ventricle of the heart, but can only initiate pacing in the ventricle.
Letter "IV": Refers to a pacemaker that can sense activity in both the atria and ventricles, but can only initiate pacing in the ventricles.
In short, the five letters in the International Pacemaker Code represent the sensing and pacing capabilities of a pacemaker.
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1. A 4-year-old child weighing 17.5 kg is to receive Fluconazole for systemic candida infection. The available adult dose is 150 mg. The safe dose range is 6 - 12 mg/kg/day not to exceed 600 mg/day. The Fluconazole is to be given IV bolus for day 1 and orally qday for 3 days. It is available in the following dosage form strength: injection solution 2 mg/mL and oral suspension 40 mg/mL. a) Compare how much the child is going to receive per dose using the Young's and Clark's rules and the dose range for the child? (2 marks) b) Based on your calculations in a) above, which of the rules give a safe dose for the child and why? (2 marks) c) What volume of the medication will be administered on day one if the doctor orders a dose of 120 mg? d) What volume of the medication will be administered on day 2 for the doctor's order?
Using Clark's rule, the total volume is 48 mL. Using Young's rule, the total volume is 2,875 mL. The volume of medication required on day one is 0.8 mL. The volume of medication required on day two is 3 mL.
a) To compare the amount of medication the child will receive using Young's rule and Clark's rule, we need to first calculate the total volume of the medication required based on the child's weight and the appropriate dose. Using Young's rule, we can calculate the total volume as 17.5 kg x 150 mg/kg = 2,875 mL. Using Clark's rule, we can calculate the total volume as 4 kg x 12 mg/kg = 48 mL.
To compare the amount of medication the child will receive using the safe dose range and the appropriate dose for the child, we can calculate the total volume as 17.5 kg x 6 - 12 mg/kg/day x 600 mg/day = 12,600 mL.
b) Based on the calculations in part a, Clark's rule provides a safe dose for the child because it falls within the recommended safe dose range of 6 - 12 mg/kg/day. Young's rule does not provide a safe dose as the calculated volume exceeds the recommended dose range.
c) To calculate the volume of medication to be administered on day one, we need to first calculate the appropriate dose based on the child's weight and the available dose strength. The appropriate dose for the child is 120 mg, which falls within the safe dose range of 6 - 12 mg/kg/day. The volume of medication required is 120 mg / 150 mg/kg = 0.8 mL.
d) To calculate the volume of medication to be administered on day two, we need to first calculate the appropriate dose based on the child's weight and the available dose strength. The appropriate dose for the child is 120 mg, which falls within the safe dose range of 6 - 12 mg/kg/day. The volume of medication required is 120 mg / 40 mg/mL = 3 mL.
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Describe the ways the CST principles of human dignity and the
common good, comparatively, support and inform each other.
The principles of human dignity and the common good mutually reinforce and support each other. Human dignity recognizes the inherent worth and value of every individual, while the common good emphasizes the well-being and flourishing of the community as a whole.
The principle of human dignity acknowledges that every person possesses inherent worth and should be treated with respect and dignity. It recognizes the fundamental rights and freedoms of individuals, such as the right to life, liberty, and security. This principle is closely tied to the concept of the common good, which emphasizes the well-being and flourishing of the entire community. The common good recognizes that individuals are interconnected and interdependent, and their well-being is linked to the well-being of the community as a whole. In promoting the common good, societies and institutions strive to create conditions that enable all individuals to reach their full potential and enjoy a dignified life.
Human dignity and the common good are mutually supportive because the recognition of human dignity is essential for the pursuit of the common good, and the realization of the common good contributes to upholding and promoting human dignity. Respecting and protecting human dignity is a foundational principle for promoting the common good.
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"Please provide the definitions of each of the
following terms in your own words. Physiologic
detrimental stressors
Internal influences
Physiologic refers to anything related to the biological functions of an organism. It encompasses everything from the chemical reactions taking place in the body to the way that the body's systems work together.
Detrimental stressors refer to factors that cause negative physical or emotional responses in the body. These stressors can include things like illness, injury, or environmental factors such as pollution or extreme weather. Internal influences are factors that originate within the body and can impact physical or emotional health. These include things like genetics, hormonal imbalances, and mental health conditions like depression or anxiety.
Overall, each of these terms is related to different aspects of the body's physical and emotional health. By understanding these concepts, it is possible to gain a greater understanding of how the body works and how it can be influenced by different internal and external factors.
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Although medical technology brings numerous benefits, what have been some of the main challenges posed by the growing use of medical technology in the United States? Next, how do American cultural beliefs and values influence the use of medical technology?]
Medical technology has brought numerous benefits to the United States. However, its growing use has also posed various challenges.
One of the main challenges is the cost of medical technology, as it can be quite expensive and often unaffordable for many people, especially those without insurance.The second challenge that is posed by the growing use of medical technology is the impact it has on the quality of care. It has been observed that the overuse of medical technology can lead to adverse events, including infections, and other complications.
Moreover, the dependence on medical technology can undermine the skills and competencies of healthcare professionals, leading to a loss of valuable knowledge and experience. American cultural beliefs and values play a critical role in shaping the use of medical technology in the United States.
This has led to the rapid adoption of medical technology in the United States, which can sometimes be problematic. In conclusion, the growing use of medical technology in the United States has brought many benefits but has also posed various challenges. The cost and quality of care are two of the most significant challenges. American cultural beliefs and values have also played a crucial role in shaping the use of medical technology in the United States, with the emphasis on individualism, science, and technology influencing its adoption and utilization.
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the client living at the long-term care home is to be bathed
this evening. as per the care plan, the client is not allowed to
shower and is totally dependent. how will you provide a complete
bed bath?
When a client living in a long-term care home is not allowed to shower and is completely dependent, a complete bed bath should be given as per the care plan. The bed bath should be provided following the necessary hygiene protocol in order to avoid infection.
The complete bed bath should start with washing the face and progress from head to toe. Firstly, gather all the necessary equipment that is needed. The equipment will include basin, warm water, soap, towel, clean linens, and a change of clothes.Once the equipment is collected, make sure to ensure the client's privacy is maintained at all times. Use the water and soap to wet the washcloth. Then start cleaning the client's eyes, ears, nose, and face gently, taking care not to use too much water.
Once the face is washed, clean the neck and chest. Then move down the arms, starting with the upper arms and shoulders, before washing the lower arms and hands. Next, the back and buttocks should be washed, moving down to the legs, with attention to all the folds and crevices, including the genitals. Finally, the feet are washed. To maintain the dignity of the client, the body should be covered with a towel or sheet except for the area being washed. To ensure that the client is comfortable, it is advisable to make sure they are adequately covered after the bath is complete.
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At
the proximal tubules, _______ is actively transported out of the
filtrate, and _________ follows by _________. Fill in the blanks
please
In the proximal tubules, substances such as glucose and amino acids are actively transported out of the filtrate, and water follows by osmosis.
In the proximal tubules of the nephrons in the kidneys, reabsorption of filtered substances takes place. Active transport mechanisms are responsible for moving certain substances out of the filtrate and back into the bloodstream. One example is glucose. Glucose is actively transported out of the filtrate by specific carrier proteins embedded in the luminal membrane of the proximal tubule cells. This transport process allows glucose to be reabsorbed and returned to the bloodstream. Similarly, amino acids are also actively transported out of the filtrate using carrier proteins.
The movement of water follows the reabsorption of solutes. Once glucose and amino acids are actively transported out of the filtrate, the solute concentration in the surrounding interstitial fluid increases. This creates an osmotic gradient that drives water movement. Water molecules move passively by osmosis from the filtrate into the interstitial fluid and eventually back into the bloodstream. This reabsorption of water helps maintain the body's fluid balance and prevents excessive loss of water through urine production.
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Using high quality electronic sources of healthcare information is an expectation of the Registered Nurse. Technology is used for medication administration, patient identification, and increasing continuity of care. The application of technology and information management help to support safe, quality care. Another responsibility of the professional nurse is to identify and utilize valid evidence-based practices. To ensure that best practices take place in healthcare, the nurse must understand when modification to evidence-based practices are necessary.
Post an example of your experience(s) with technology, patient confidentiality, and evidence-based practices. This can either be from a healthcare perspective, or in your everyday life.
What areas do you feel you are strong in knowledge and/or experience?
What areas do you feel you have the weakest knowledge and/or experience?
Technology, patient confidentiality, and evidence-based practices are integral to the role of a nurse, supporting safe and quality care through the use of electronic sources, maintaining privacy, and implementing best practices in healthcare.
Technology plays a crucial role in healthcare, including areas such as medication administration, patient identification, and continuity of care. Electronic health records (EHR) are used to securely store patient information, supporting safe and quality care.
Nurses are expected to utilize high-quality electronic sources of healthcare information and stay updated on evidence-based practices to provide optimal care. Patient confidentiality is maintained through technological safeguards like access controls and encryption. Nurses should be knowledgeable in identifying and utilizing evidence-based practices while recognizing when modifications may be necessary to individualize care. It is essential for nurses to continually enhance their knowledge and skills in these areas to ensure the delivery of safe and effective healthcare.
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You are having a discussion with a neighbor who has a 14-year-old son. The neighbor expresses concern about his son and substance abuse problems he has heard about. • The neighbor describes his son’s friend, who was a bright and motivated student but has become sullen and withdrawn and lacks the motivation he once had. In addition, he has a chronic cough but denies that he smokes cigarettes. • The neighbor mentions that his son has told him that his friends have been playing drinking games at parties. A few weeks later, the neighbor calls you because his son is extremely drowsy and unable to speak. The neighbor notes that their bottle of alprazolam is missing.
1. What will you do first? 2. What do you think could be the son’s issue? 3. What treatment would you expect his son to receive?
The substance abuse has led to an addiction which is a chronic disease that is characterized by compulsive drug seeking and use, despite the harmful consequences.
The answer to the following questions in case of drowsiness and unconsciousness are as follows:
1. The first thing I will do is to inform the neighbor to call 911 and ask for emergency medical help to be sent to their home as the child is extremely drowsy and unable to speak.
2. Based on the information given, the son's issue could be related to substance abuse. Substance abuse is the act of consuming substances, such as drugs or alcohol, in amounts that are harmful or hazardous.
It is likely that the son might have taken the alprazolam, which is a prescription medication used to treat anxiety disorders, panic disorders, and anxiety caused by depression.
It is also possible that the son might be using alcohol and smoking cigarettes, which are both substances that can lead to addiction. Chronic cough may indicate respiratory tract issues related to smoking.
3. Substance abuse treatment is designed to help individuals overcome addiction. It may include several stages and interventions to help the person overcome addiction, maintain sobriety, and build a life in recovery.
The treatment that I would expect the son to receive would include a comprehensive assessment to determine the extent of his addiction and any underlying mental health issues.
The son will undergo a detoxification process to manage withdrawal symptoms. The treatment plan may also include behavioral therapies, group therapy, and family therapy.
In addition, the son will be taught skills to avoid relapse, and he may also be prescribed medications to help with withdrawal symptoms and to prevent relapse.
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After you submit the electronic pcr for a call, you realize that you accidentally documented the wrong vital signs. what should you do?
You can do this by making a phone call to the receiving facility, and providing the correct vital sign readings to the staff.
Also, you need to contact your supervisor or the EMS coordinator in charge of documentation for guidance on what next step to take if there is a policy for such an error.
If it is a minor error, you can make a correction in the ePCR system, and add an addendum to the report stating what was changed and why. However, in case of a major error, the ePCR may require the submission of an entirely new report to the receiving facility.
It is very important to ensure that all documentation in an electronic pcr for a call is accurate and correct to prevent errors or discrepancies. The documentation of vital signs in an electronic pcr plays an important role in the overall care and management of a patient.
It is essential to make sure that all information is recorded accurately and promptly to ensure quality care for the patient.
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A 32 year old male arrives in the emergency room with a temperature of 39.1°C. He is suffering from chest pain and breathing difficulties.
Physical examination reveals a palpable spleen tip, splinter haemorrhages, needle tracks in his left arm (antecubital fossa), and a heart murmur.
A blood culture grew an organism (clusters of large cocci, no haemolysis). A Gram stain was positive.
Is this patient at an increased risk of septicaemia due to his drug use?
The patient is at an increased risk of septicaemia due to his drug use.A 32 year old male arrives in the emergency room with a temperature of 39.1°C, suffering from chest pain and breathing difficulties.
Physical examination reveals a palpable spleen tip, splinter haemorrhages, needle tracks in his left arm (antecubital fossa), and a heart murmur.A blood culture grew an organism (clusters of large cocci, no haemolysis). A Gram stain was positive. The patient is at an increased risk of septicaemia due to his drug use.
Intravenous drug abuse is a significant risk factor for bloodborne infections, such as HIV, hepatitis, and bacterial endocarditis, which can all cause sepsis. When you inject drugs, bacteria can enter your bloodstream through shared needles or syringes. Bacteria can also enter your bloodstream if you inject drugs and your skin is not clean.In this case, needle tracks are found in the patient's left arm (antecubital fossa), which is an indicator of intravenous drug abuse.
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According to the course textbook patients in early anemia are often asymptomatic. At what hemoglobin level are symptoms likely to appear?
According to the course textbook, patients with early anemia are often asymptomatic. Symptoms of anemia may not show in the early stage of anemia. Symptoms are likely to appear on the hemoglobin level below 10g/dL.
Symptoms of anemia appear when hemoglobin levels drop significantly and oxygen transport to the tissues and organs is reduced. The symptoms of anemia usually appear when the hemoglobin levels fall below 10g/dL. Symptoms of anemia often include dizziness, weakness, headaches, fatigue, shortness of breath, pallor, cold hands and feet, and rapid heartbeat.
Hemoglobin is the protein that is present in the red blood cells. It helps in the transportation of oxygen from the lungs to other parts of the body. Hemoglobin carries oxygen in the form of oxyhemoglobin. Oxyhemoglobin is the bright red-colored form of hemoglobin.
To ensure adequate tissue oxygenation, a sufficient hemoglobin level must be maintained. The amount of hemoglobin in whole blood is expressed in grams per deciliter (g/dl). The normal Hb level for males is 14 to 18 g/dl; that for females is 12 to 16 g/dl. When the hemoglobin level is low, the patient has anemia.
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Discuss ways a nurse can educate a patient on the prevention of
pyelonephritis.
A nurse can educate a patient on the prevention of pyelonephritis by providing information on hygiene practices, fluid intake, and medication adherence.
Hygiene practices: The nurse can educate the patient about the importance of maintaining good hygiene, such as wiping from front to back after using the toilet to prevent the spread of bacteria. They can also emphasize the need to avoid irritants like strong soaps and perfumed products.
Fluid intake: The nurse can explain the significance of staying hydrated by drinking an adequate amount of water each day. Sufficient fluid intake helps to flush out bacteria from the urinary system and reduces the risk of infection. The patient can be encouraged to drink water regularly and avoid excessive consumption of caffeine and alcohol, which can irritate the bladder.
Medication adherence: If the patient has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections, the nurse can educate them about the importance of completing prescribed courses of antibiotics. It is essential to take the full course of medication as prescribed, even if the symptoms subside, to prevent the recurrence of infections and the development of antibiotic resistance.
By providing education on hygiene practices, fluid intake, and medication adherence, the nurse empowers the patient to take proactive steps in preventing pyelonephritis and maintaining urinary tract health.
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A patient suffering from a intense thirst, abdominal pain, and vomiting and dry skin. A) Hypoglycemia B) Seizure C) Hyperglycemia
The patient's symptoms of intense thirst, abdominal pain, vomiting, and dry skin are consistent with Hyperglycemia (Option C), which is a condition characterized by high blood sugar levels.
What is Hyperglycemia?
Hyperglycemia is a condition where there are elevated levels of glucose (sugar) in the blood. It can result from decreased insulin production by the pancreas or the body’s inability to use insulin properly (insulin resistance).
Symptoms of Hyperglycemia:
Hyperglycemia is a medical emergency. The symptoms of hyperglycemia can include excessive thirst, abdominal pain, vomiting, dry skin, confusion, drowsiness, frequent urination, rapid heartbeat, shortness of breath, and fruity breath odor.
Treatment for Hyperglycemia:
The treatment of hyperglycemia depends on its severity. Mild hyperglycemia can be managed by drinking plenty of fluids and eating a healthy diet. In severe cases, hospitalization may be required to control the patient's blood sugar levels.
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You will get down vote if you copy the answer from other
questions or get it wrong
Which of the following codes is used for submitting claims for services provided by Physicians? A. LOINC B. CPT C. ICD-CM D. SNOMED-CT
The correct code used for submitting claims for services provided by physicians is B. CPT (Current Procedural Terminology).
CPT codes are a standardized system developed and maintained by the American Medical Association (AMA). These codes are used to describe medical, surgical, and diagnostic services provided by healthcare professionals, including physicians. CPT codes provide a detailed and specific way to document and bill for procedures, surgeries, evaluations, and other medical services. They allow for accurate identification and communication of the services rendered, facilitating claims submission and reimbursement processes.
CPT codes are regularly updated to accommodate new procedures and technologies, ensuring accurate coding and billing for physician services.
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1. Stereotactic radiosurgery performed after the resection of a malignant meningioma is an example of which type of therapy? a. myeloblation b. immunosuppression c. neoadjuvant d. adjuvant
2. A patient with a BSA 1.8 m2 received six cycles of doxorubicin 30mg/m2. This patient's cumulative dose of doxorubicin is: a. 180mg b. 324mg c. 30mg d. 54mg
14. The nurse is exposed to a hazardous medication through ingestion by: a) drinking in an area where chemotherapy is administered b)pushing chemotherapy through an implanted port c)splashing chemotherapy into the eyes d)breathing in aerosolized particles from a chemotherapy spill
17. a patient is receiving bleomycin and reports dyspnea on exertion. the nurse anticipates an order for a: a)ventilation scan b)pulmonary function test c) computed tomography scan d)peak flow meter
26. which of the following methods should the nurse use to overcome barriers to patient education? a)allow misconceptions related to diagnosis b) limit time of questions c) provide effective symptoms management d)utilize significant others as translators
35. a patient with acute myeloid leukemia has had prior treatment with doxorubicin, bleomycin, vincristine, and dacarbazine. the physician withholds treatment with idarubicin because of: a) cumulative dose toxicity b) cytokine-release syndrome c) acute hypersensitivity reaction d) dose-limiting toxicity
49. the nurse questions administration of chlorambucil when: a)the platelet count is 385,000/mm3 b)radiation was completed 3 months ago c)a patient has fanconi syndrome d)daily doses of phenytoin are ordered
53. what type of precautions should be used when changing the dressing after an intradermal injection of talimogene laherparepvec? a)airborne b)contact c)standard d)droplet
55. symptoms of acute hypersensitivity reactions include: a)increased blood pressure and hypothermia b)shortness of breath and confusion c) neutropenia and thrombocytopenia d)headache and pustular rash
58. which of the following chemotherapy agents has the highest emetogenic potential? a)docetaxel b)carmustine c)irinotecan d)vincristine
60. which of the following is an example of proper glove use when administering hazardous drugs? a)changing chemotherapy gloves every house b)wearing two pairs of gloves over the cuff of the gown c)using powder-free chemotherapy gloves d)removing double gloves at the same time
Stereotactic radiosurgery performed after the resection of a d. adjuvant
a. 180mga) drinking in an area where chemotherapy is administeredb) pulmonary function testc) provide effective symptoms managementa) cumulative dose toxicityc) a patient has Fanconi syndromeb) contactb) shortness of breath and confusionb) carmustinec) using powder-free chemotherapy glovesWhat is the Stereotactic radiosurgery?Stereotactic radiosurgery acted after the medical procedure of a diseased meningioma is an example of secondary medicine.
Adjuvant therapy refers to supplementary situation given afterwards the basic treatment, to a degree enucleation, to reduce the risk of tumor repetition or to eliminate some surplus cancer containers.
The nurse is unprotected to a hazardous drug through swallow by drinking in an region place chemotherapy is executed. It is main to avoid consuming, draining, etc.
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11. Presenting patient education information to any patient is direct to helping the patient to: O improve self care at home O improve their living conditions O make less visits to the emergency room O make truly informed choices 19. Which of the following is a individual factor that influences patient behavior? O religious influences social support structures past experiences O financial status 20. Which of the following is an environmental factor that influences patient behavior? attitudes knowledge O cultural values O daily schedule 21. Which of the following is a social factor that influences patient behavior? knowledge geographic location belief of family side effects of the medical regimen
11. Presenting patient education information to any patient is direct to helping the patient to make truly informed choices.
19. Past experiences are an individual factor that influences patient behavior.
20. Cultural values are an environmental factor that influences patient behavior. Environmental factors refer to factors outside of the individual that influence their behavior.
21. The belief of family is a social factor that influences patient behavior. Social factors are factors related to the patient's social network that can influence their behavior.
11. Presenting patient education information to any patient is direct to helping the patient to make truly informed choices. This is because patient education is a critical component of providing healthcare services. Through patient education, the patient can gain valuable knowledge and skills necessary to manage their health and prevent the occurrence of illnesses or complications.
19. Past experiences are an individual factor that influences patient behavior. The behavior of an individual patient is influenced by various factors, such as their past experiences with healthcare providers or illnesses. Past experiences with healthcare providers can influence patients' trust in healthcare providers and their willingness to adhere to their prescribed treatments.
20. Cultural values are an environmental factor that influences patient behavior. Environmental factors refer to factors outside of the individual that influence their behavior. Cultural values can influence patients' perceptions and attitudes toward healthcare, treatment, and health-seeking behaviors.
21. The belief of family is a social factor that influences patient behavior. Social factors are factors related to the patient's social network that can influence their behavior. Patients' beliefs and attitudes are often influenced by the beliefs and attitudes of their families and social support network.
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DISEASE CARD ASSIGNMENT
Complete a Disease card for the following
CARDIOVASCULAR DISORDERS.
Aortic stenosis
# DISEASE NAME: Aortic Stenosis
1 ETIOLOGY/RISK FACTORS 2 PATHOPHYSIOLOGY 3 SIGNS & SYMPTOMS 4 PROGRESSION & COMPLICATIONS 5 DIAGNOSTIC TESTS 6 SURGICAL INTERVENTIONS 7 PHARMACOLOGICAL MANAGEMENT 8 MEDICAL MANAGEMENT 9 NURSING INTERVENTIONS 10 NUTRITION/DIET 11 ACTIVITY 12 PATIENT-FAMILY TEACHING 13 PRIORITY NURSING DIAGNOSES
DISEASE NAME Aortic stenosis is a cardiovascular condition characterized by narrowing of the aortic valve opening. When the aortic valve is stenotic, the heart must work harder to pump blood throughout the body. Aortic stenosis can be either congenital (present at birth) or acquired due to aging, infection, or trauma.
It can also be caused by conditions such as rheumatic fever and atherosclerosis.
Aortic stenosis's pathophysiology is characterized by a buildup of calcium deposits on the aortic valve, resulting in a reduction in the valve's ability to open and close properly. This narrowing of the aortic valve opening causes the heart to work harder to pump blood throughout the body. Over time, the heart muscle can become thickened, and the heart may not function as efficiently as it should.
The signs and symptoms of aortic stenosis may vary, but they generally include chest pain, shortness of breath, fatigue, dizziness, fainting, and heart palpitations. As the disease progresses, the patient may experience heart failure, which can cause fluid buildup in the lungs, legs, and abdomen and lead to kidney damage and other complications. Diagnostic tests used to diagnose aortic stenosis include echocardiogram, electrocardiogram, and chest X-ray.
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quizlet A nurse is providing teaching about expected changes during pregnancy to a client who is at 24 weeks of gestation. Which of the following information should the nurse include
During the second trimester, there are several expected changes during pregnancy that the nurse should include when providing teaching to a client who is at 24 weeks of gestation. These changes include physical, emotional, and psychological changes.
Physical changes During the second trimester, the client's uterus grows and expands to accommodate the growing fetus, causing the client's waistline to expand. Additionally, the client may experience the following physical changes:
Increased energy levels: Clients often feel less fatigued during the second trimester. This energy boost may make it easier for the client to carry out daily activities without feeling tired.
Fetal movements: As the fetus grows and develops, clients can begin to feel their movements. The fetus moves more often during the second trimester.
Weight gain: The client may experience weight gain during the second trimester. It's essential to monitor the client's weight gain to ensure that it remains within a healthy range.
Skin changes: Hormonal changes may cause the client's skin to become more sensitive, leading to the development of stretch marks.
Emotional and psychological changes During the second trimester, the client may experience emotional and psychological changes.
These changes may include: Mood swings: Clients may experience sudden mood swings and may feel irritable, emotional, or anxious.
Depression: Some clients may experience depression during the second trimester due to hormonal changes and stress related to pregnancy. Clients should be encouraged to seek medical attention if they experience depression.
Difficulty sleeping: Due to the physical discomfort caused by the growing fetus, clients may experience difficulty sleeping. Clients should be encouraged to adopt healthy sleep habits, such as avoiding caffeine and limiting fluid intake in the evening, to improve sleep quality. The nurse should also educate the client about the importance of maintaining a healthy diet and engaging in regular physical activity.
This can help to ensure that the client remains healthy and that the fetus develops correctly. Overall, the nurse's role is to support and educate the client to ensure that they have a healthy pregnancy.
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Organizational development helps healthcare managers to implement planned change for growth and survival. Many factors—such as the need for patient-centered care, diversity, quality of services, and rising costs—are driving change in healthcare organizations today. Employees may complain about the heavy workload, and patients may express dissatisfaction with quality and the high cost of services.
Respond to the following:
What does organizational behavior and organizational change mean to you?
What is force field analysis? How can healthcare managers apply it to facilitate change?
What do you think are the basic factors in healthcare organizations that facilitate and hinder change?
Organizational development helps healthcare managers to implement planned change for growth and survival. Many factors—such as the need for patient-centered care, diversity, quality of services, and rising costs—are driving change in healthcare organizations today. Employees may complain about the heavy workload, and patients may express dissatisfaction with quality and the high cost of services.
Respond to the following:
What does organizational behavior and organizational change mean to you?
What is force field analysis? How can healthcare managers apply it to facilitate change?
What do you think are the basic factors in healthcare organizations that facilitate and hinder change?
Organizational development helps healthcare managers to implement planned change for growth and survival. Many factors—such as the need for patient-centered care, diversity, quality of services, and rising costs—are driving change in healthcare organizations today. Employees may complain about the heavy workload, and patients may express dissatisfaction with quality and the high cost of services.
Respond to the following:
What does organizational behavior and organizational change mean to you?
What is force field analysis? How can healthcare managers apply it to facilitate change?
What do you think are the basic factors in healthcare organizations that facilitate and hinder change?
Organizational development helps healthcare managers to implement planned change for growth and survival. Many factors—such as the need for patient-centered care, diversity, quality of services, and rising costs—are driving change in healthcare organizations today. Employees may complain about the heavy workload, and patients may express dissatisfaction with quality and the high cost of services.
Respond to the following:
What does organizational behavior and organizational change mean to you?
What is force field analysis? How can healthcare managers apply it to facilitate change?
What do you think are the basic factors in healthcare organizations that facilitate and hinder change?
Organizational development helps healthcare managers to implement planned change for growth and survival. Many factors—such as the need for patient-centered care, diversity, quality of services, and rising costs—are driving change in healthcare organizations today. Employees may complain about the heavy workload, and patients may express dissatisfaction with quality and the high cost of services.
Respond to the following:
What does organizational behavior and organizational change mean to you?
What is force field analysis? How can healthcare managers apply it to facilitate change?
What do you think are the basic factors in healthcare organizations that facilitate and hinder change?
Organizational development helps healthcare managers to implement planned change for growth and survival. Many factors—such as the need for patient-centered care, diversity, quality of services, and rising costs—are driving change in healthcare organizations today. Employees may complain about the heavy workload, and patients may express dissatisfaction with quality and the high cost of services.
Respond to the following:
What does organizational behavior and organizational change mean to you?
What is force field analysis? How can healthcare managers apply it to facilitate change?
What do you think are the basic factors in healthcare organizations that facilitate and hinder change?
Organizational development helps healthcare managers to implement planned change for growth and survival. Many factors—such as the need for patient-centered care, diversity, quality of services, and rising costs—are driving change in healthcare organizations today. Employees may complain about the heavy workload, and patients may express dissatisfaction with quality and the high cost of services.
Respond to the following:
What does organizational behavior and organizational change mean to you?
What is force field analysis? How can healthcare managers apply it to facilitate change?
What do you think are the basic factors in healthcare organizations that facilitate and hinder change?
Organizational behavior refers to the study of how individuals and groups behave within an organization, including their attitudes, motivations, and interactions. It focuses on understanding human behavior in the workplace and its impact on organizational performance. Organizational change, on the other hand, refers to the process of making intentional modifications to an organization's structure, processes, or culture in order to improve its effectiveness and adapt to external factors.
Organizational behavior is concerned with understanding the behavior of individuals and groups within an organization. It examines factors such as individual attitudes, motivation, communication patterns, leadership styles, and team dynamics. By studying organizational behavior, managers gain insights into how to effectively manage and motivate employees, improve teamwork, and create a positive work environment.
Organizational change involves introducing intentional modifications to an organization's structure, processes, or culture to achieve desired outcomes. It can be driven by various factors, such as technological advancements, market demands, regulatory changes, or internal issues. Healthcare managers can apply force field analysis, a change management tool, to facilitate change. Force field analysis involves identifying the forces for and against change and implementing strategies to strengthen driving forces and weaken restraining forces. In the context of healthcare, managers can identify factors such as resistance to change, lack of resources, or outdated systems as restraining forces and work towards addressing them.
Basic factors that facilitate change in healthcare organizations include effective leadership, clear communication, a supportive organizational culture, availability of resources, and a focus on continuous improvement. Conversely, factors that hinder change may include resistance from employees, limited resources, bureaucratic processes, and resistance to new technologies. Overcoming these barriers requires effective change management strategies, stakeholder involvement, and a commitment to fostering a culture of change and innovation within the healthcare organization.
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Still on 5/23/2022 - the physician decides that 2 more RBCs should be transfused for Ms. Johnson today. Can the sample collected on 5/19/2022 be used for today's pretransfusion compatibility
testing?
The blood sample collected on 5/19/2022 cannot be used for 5/23/2022 pretransfusion compatibility testing. The reason is that the sample collected four days ago might not show an accurate result as a person's blood is subjected to change.
What is Pretransfusion compatibility testing?
Pretransfusion compatibility testing is the process of determining whether the blood of a donor is compatible with the blood of a recipient before a blood transfusion.
Compatibility testing, often known as crossmatching, can help to prevent transfusion reactions that are harmful or fatal to the patient who receives blood. It's crucial to complete the compatibility testing process before giving any blood product to the patient. The aim of compatibility testing is to reduce the risk of transfusion reactions.
Compatibility testing is divided into two phases: type and screen and crossmatching.
The following is the procedure
First, ABO and Rh blood types are determined through a type and screen procedure. Next, the sample is tested for the presence of certain irregular antibodies through a screen. Then, the patient's serum and donor RBCs are mixed in a crossmatch. Finally, the compatibility of the blood is assessed.To learn more about Blood sample visit:
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albutamol can be used in obstetrics because it: A. inhibits spasmogen release from neutrophils B. helps the mother breathe better C. relaxes uterine smooth muscle D. relaxes the cervix
Albutamol can be used in obstetrics because it relaxes uterine smooth muscle.
This is option C
What is Albutamol?Albutamol is a medication that can be used in the treatment of bronchospasm. The medication is classified as a short-acting β2-adrenergic receptor agonist. Albutamol is used in obstetrics to relax uterine smooth muscle.
Obstetrics is a medical specialty that deals with pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period. Obstetricians provide care for women and their babies throughout pregnancy, childbirth, and the postpartum period.
The uterine smooth muscle is made up of myometrial cells. The smooth muscle cells in the uterus have unique properties that enable them to generate contractions. These contractions help in the movement of the fetus through the birth canal, and they also help in the expulsion of the placenta after delivery.
So, the correct answer is C
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MS II: Cardiovascular disorder case study: HF
Scenario: An 82-year-old woman with a history of chronic heart failure is in the Emergency Department with increased dyspnea, extreme fatigue, and a non-productive cough. She states that she can hardly walk to the bathroom from her bedroom without having to stop to rest. Her lower legs are swollen with 3+ edema, and she states that she has gained about 8 pounds over the past few days. When questioned about her medications, she states, "I have been skipping my fluid pill because I hate having to go to the bathroom so much. I get so short of breath."
Vital signs: Temperature 99.9°F (37.7°C), Pulse 110/bpm and regular, Respirations 28/min, Blood Pressure 188/98 mm Hg.
She is admitted to the telemetry unit with a diagnosis of exacerbation of heart failure, and given prophylactic anticoagulant therapy, aggressive diuretic therapy, as well as an ACE inhibitor. After a week, the nurse documents the following assessment findings.
NGN Item Type: Matrix
For each assessment finding, use an X to indicate whether the interventions were Effective (helped to meet expected outcomes), Ineffective (did not help to meet expected outcomes), or Unrelated (not related to the expected outcomes).
Assessment Finding
Effective
Ineffective
Unrelated
Edema in the lower legs is measured at 3+ bilaterally.
Patient can walk to the bathroom and back without becoming fatigued and short of breath.
Patient states that she will take her diuretic every morning by 9 AM.
Body temperature maintained at 99°F (37.2°C) or below.
Weight has increased by 2.2 kg in 2 days.
Patient can balance physical activity with periods of rest to avoid over-exertion.
The patient reports no chest pain with exertion.
The patient’s morning blood pressure is 180/94.
Rationale: Explain your reasons for your decisions
What diagnostic test/procedure should be included in this patient’s care?
An echocardiogram uses ultrasound to evaluate the structure and function of the heart, including assessing the ejection fraction (a measure of the heart's pumping ability),
Based on the provided information, the patient is experiencing exacerbation of heart failure with symptoms such as increased dyspnea, extreme fatigue, non-productive cough, significant lower extremity edema, and weight gain. The nurse is assessing the effectiveness of interventions implemented during the patient's hospital stay.
Assessment Finding | Effective | Ineffective | Unrelated
--- | --- | --- | ---
Edema in the lower legs is measured at 3+ bilaterally. | X | |
Patient can walk to the bathroom and back without becoming fatigued and short of breath. | | X |
Patient states that she will take her diuretic every morning by 9 AM. | X | |
Body temperature maintained at 99°F (37.2°C) or below. | X | |
Weight has increased by 2.2 kg in 2 days. | | X |
Patient can balance physical activity with periods of rest to avoid over-exertion. | X | |
The patient reports no chest pain with exertion. | X | |
The patient’s morning blood pressure is 180/94. | | X |
Rationale:
1. Edema in the lower legs is measured at 3+ bilaterally: This assessment finding is marked as effective because the intervention of aggressive diuretic therapy is aimed at reducing fluid retention and relieving edema.
2. Patient can walk to the bathroom and back without becoming fatigued and short of breath: This assessment finding is marked as ineffective because the patient is still experiencing fatigue and shortness of breath with exertion, indicating that the intervention has not completely relieved these symptoms.
3. Patient states that she will take her diuretic every morning by 9 AM: This assessment finding is marked as effective as the patient expresses compliance with the prescribed medication regimen, which is important for managing fluid retention and heart failure symptoms.
4. Body temperature maintained at 99°F (37.2°C) or below: This assessment finding is marked as effective as the patient's body temperature is within the expected range, indicating stability.
5. Weight has increased by 2.2 kg in 2 days: This assessment finding is marked as ineffective as the weight gain indicates ongoing fluid retention and inadequate response to diuretic therapy.
6. Patient can balance physical activity with periods of rest to avoid over-exertion: This assessment finding is marked as effective as the patient demonstrates the ability to manage physical activity and rest to prevent excessive exertion.
7. The patient reports no chest pain with exertion: This assessment finding is marked as effective as the absence of chest pain indicates improved cardiac function and reduced ischemia.
8. The patient’s morning blood pressure is 180/94: This assessment finding is marked as ineffective as the blood pressure reading is elevated, suggesting inadequate control of hypertension, which is important in managing heart failure.
Based on the information provided, an important diagnostic test/procedure that should be included in this patient's care is an echocardiogram.
An echocardiogram uses ultrasound to evaluate the structure and function of the heart, including assessing the ejection fraction (a measure of the heart's pumping ability), identifying any structural abnormalities, and evaluating the overall condition of the heart muscle.
This test will help determine the underlying cause and severity of the patient's heart failure and guide further management and treatment decisions.
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John is an 83 year old client. He is simply frail, slightly
confused and has chronic cardiac fatigue. He uses a 4WF to ambulate
and has a normal diet. He needs support with his ADL’s.
John is an elderly client who is 83 years old. He uses a 4WF to ambulate and is described as frail and slightly confused with chronic cardiac fatigue. Furthermore, he needs support with his ADLs, but he maintains a typical diet.
In the healthcare setting, ADL (Activities of Daily Living) refer to basic daily self-care tasks, such as bathing, dressing, toileting, grooming, eating, and ambulating. Because John has difficulty with these activities, he requires assistance to accomplish them.
Therefore, the caregiver must offer the necessary support to ensure that John is comfortable and has everything he needs. John's environment should be safe, easily accessible, and well-lit to avoid falls or other accidents. Additionally, regular exercise and physical therapy can help him improve his mobility and overall well-being. If necessary, the caregiver may need to monitor John's blood pressure and administer his medication. Finally, John's physician should be informed of his progress and any concerns.
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Patient: Maria
Gender: Female
Age: 35
Ethnicity: Central America
Setting: Inpatient hospital psychiatric unit
Spiritual /Religious: Catholic
Cultural Considerations: Hispanic culture, rural Nicaraguan
Socioeconomic: Raised by poor parents; now upper middle class
Medications: Birth control, Lithium Carbonate (Eskalith), Olanzapine (Zyprexa)
Client Profile
Maria is a 35-year-old married female born and raised in a small village in Nicaragua, Central America. Her parents are poor. Her husband is a university professor who is serving as a Peace Corps worker when they met. She has been in the United States for two years and speaks a little English but requires Spanish for clear understanding. They have a 4-year-old daughter. Maria has been diagnosed with Bipolar 1 and takes Lithium Carbonate. Recently she stopped taking her lithium and has been staying up all night and eating very little. She is dressing and behaving in a sexually proactive manner and going on spending sprees buying things she does not need and cannot afford (motorcycle that she does not know how to ride and drum set that she does not know how to play). Her husband decides she is out of control and calls Maria’s provider who suggests admission to the psychiatric unit of the hospital.
Case Study
During the admission process, the nurse observes that Maria is dressed in a short and tight-fitting dress. Her speech is clear but sprinkled with profanity as she moves rapidly from topic to topic. At the nurse’s request, Maria sits down, then jumps up and moves about the room.
Maria’s husband says that Maria has stopped taking her lithium and has not been sleeping or eating enough. He describes her extravagant purchases, some of which were returned or given away to strangers (Maria gave her drum set to a man she met in a bar). The husband explains that Maria has put the family in serious debt and states she is unfit to care for their child. With her husband translating for her, Maria objects to being admitted to the hospital, but then agrees to admission. The husband expresses concern about her sexually provocative behavior and states he fears that she will get sexually involved with other clients.
After the first meal after admission, Maria is in the dinning room with the other clients. Instead of eating, Maria carries napkins to, and talks to, all the other clients and ignores the food. Staff members have told Maria several times to sit down and eat, and she has not complied.
The nurse asks the dietitian to prepare a sandwich and a banana for Maria. After the clients are finished with lunch, the nurse suggests Maria go to her room to wash her face and hands. The psychiatrists-ordered pregnancy test comes back negative. The psychiatrist orders Lithium, Zyprexa, and birth control pills.
At medication time, the nurse gives Maria her medication and then examines Maria’s mouth. The nurse does some teaching about the medications with Maria, who becomes upset when she learns she has been prescribed birth control and says she will not take it as it is not allowed in her religion.
The nurse notices that Maria is irritable and verbally hostile at times as well as inappropriate during her first days on the unit. During one encounter with Maria, the nurse senses great hostile energy coming from Maria, who says, "You think you so smart! You don’t know nothing!" Sometimes Maria is demanding or threatening. For example, she demands that the nurse send someone to the store to pick up items for her and take her credit card to pay for them. Maria continues to dress and talk in a sexually proactive manner. She asks the male nurse, who passes medications in the early morning, to perform some sexual acts with her. At one-point Maria is intrusive with another client in the day room and the client is threatening to harm Maria. The nurse observes that both clients are loud, and their behavior is escalating.
After one month, during a meeting of the psychiatric treatment team, the provider discusses Maria’s past psychiatric history, which includes two episodes of depression and one of mania. He offers a diagnosis of Bipolar 1, Manic episode for Maria. He orders that blood be drawn for a Lithium level. The Lithium level comes back as 1.5.
Questions
Why did the nurse ask the dietitian to prepare a sandwich and a banana for Maria, and why did the nurse take Maria to her room?
The nurse asked the dietitian to prepare a meal for Maria because she was not eating and took her to her room to ensure she could eat without distractions.
The nurse asked the dietitian to prepare a sandwich and a banana for Maria because she observed that Maria did not eat during the meal in the dining room and instead engaged in socializing with other clients. It was important to ensure that Maria received some nourishment to meet her dietary needs. The nurse took Maria to her room to wash her face and hands likely because Maria was not complying with staff members' instructions to sit down and eat.
By taking her to her room, the nurse created a more controlled environment where Maria could focus on personal hygiene and potentially eat the prepared meal without distractions or disruptions from other clients. This would help address Maria's lack of eating and ensure her well-being and nutritional needs were being met while in the psychiatric unit.
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Paula wakes up in the middle of the night experiencing fever and chills. She calls telehealth for advice and is instructed to go to the hospital. Which health care delivery stage did she end up in? O Primary health care Secondary health care Emergency health care teritones O Tertiary health care 1 pts 1pts:
Paula ended up in the c) Emergency health care delivery stage as she wakes up in the middle of the night experiencing fever and chills and calls telehealth for advice and is instructed to go to the hospital. Hence, the correct answer is option c).
Health care delivery stages:
Health care delivery is the provision of medical care to individuals, groups, or communities by different healthcare providers like doctors, nurses, etc. Health care delivery stages can be classified into four: Primary health care, Secondary health care, Tertiary health care, and Emergency health care.
Primary Health Care (PHC):
This is the first point of contact between patients and the healthcare system. It is the initial level of medical care that provides preventive, promotive, curative, and rehabilitative health services. It includes services such as vaccination, health education, diagnosis, and treatment of common diseases and injuries.
PHC aims to improve the health status of individuals, families, and communities by addressing the underlying social determinants of health.
Secondary Health Care:
This type of healthcare is provided by medical specialists to diagnose and treat more complex medical conditions that cannot be managed at the primary healthcare level. Secondary healthcare requires referral from primary care providers and is often provided in hospitals or specialized clinics. It includes services such as x-rays, laboratory tests, surgeries, and treatment of chronic conditions like hypertension and diabetes.
Tertiary Health Care:
Tertiary healthcare refers to specialized medical care provided by hospitals or tertiary care centers. It includes highly specialized diagnostic and treatment services such as organ transplantation, cancer treatment, and neurosurgery. Patients are referred to tertiary care centers from secondary care centers or primary healthcare providers.
Emergency Health Care:
Emergency healthcare is medical care provided in an emergency situation. It is designed to provide immediate medical attention to people who have experienced sudden illness or injury. Emergency care can be provided in ambulances, emergency departments, or urgent care centers. It includes services such as cardiopulmonary resuscitation, stabilizing trauma victims, and administering emergency medications.
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quizlet: Which of the following manifestations is least likely to effect the MS patient's ability to ambulate
Multiple Sclerosis is a disease of the central nervous system that causes a variety of symptoms. Symptoms of MS can be both physical and emotional, and can include muscle weakness, muscle stiffness, balance problems, fatigue, depression, cognitive difficulties, and more.
As the disease progresses, symptoms may become more severe, making it difficult for patients to perform everyday tasks, including walking. Some of the manifestations that can affect an MS patient's ability to ambulate include muscle weakness, spasticity, ataxia, and fatigue.
However, the manifestation that is least likely to affect an MS patient's ability to ambulate is depression. Depression is a mental health condition that affects a person's mood, thoughts, and behavior.
It is a common symptom in people with MS and can be caused by the physical changes that occur in the brain and nervous system as a result of the disease. Depression can lead to feelings of sadness, hopelessness, and lack of energy, but it does not usually cause physical impairments that would affect a person's ability to walk.
However, depression can still have a significant impact on a person's quality of life and should be addressed by a healthcare provider. MS patients may be encouraged to participate in cognitive and emotional therapies, along with medical management, to help them manage their symptoms and improve their overall well-being.
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