Foods high in protein, fat, or carbohydrates provide energy. The amount of kilocalories, or "calories," required for each unit of a person's body.
Why do newborns require a higher amount of calories from fat in their meals than adults do?Fat is crucial for brain function and neurological development, especially in infancy and early childhood. 40–50% of the energy in mother's milk and newborn formula comes from fat (Fidler et al. 1998). Ingested carbohydrate and protein as well as endogenous metabolism are two possible sources of body fat.
Why do you gain weight when you consume more calories than your body requires?A person can stop burning fat, and when they consume more calories, they become very good at storing fat. A healthy weight should be not by the number of calories you consume, but rather by the kinds of foods you eat and lifestyle adjustments like exercise.
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a warehouse worker is experiencing trouble with incontinence, especially when lifting heavy objects. what intervention is most appropriate for this client's needs? administration of alpha-adrenergic agonist drugs as ordered administration of diuretics as ordered to promote frequent bladder emptying intermittent catheterization bladder ultrasonography two to three times daily
A warehouse worker is experiencing trouble with incontinence, especially when lifting heavy objects so intervention which is most appropriate for this client's needs is administration of alpha-adrenergic agonist drugs as ordered.
Trouble with incontinence means the loss of bladder management — may be a common and is embarrassig. The severity ranges from often leaky excretory product once you cough or sneeze to having an urge to urinate that is thus unexpected and robust you do not get to a rest room in time.
Alpha-adrenergic agonists are a category of adrenergic agents that by selection stimulates alpha adrenergic receptors. The alpha-adrenoceptor has 2 subclasses α₁ and α₂. Alpha a pair of receptors ar related to sympatholytic properties. Alpha-adrenergic agonists have the alternative operate of alpha blockers.
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in which order would the nurse perform initial assessments to manage immediate threats in the client who was admitted to an emergency unit with a critical injury from a bomb blast?
Positioning, suctioning, and oxygen administration as necessary to create a patent airway and evaluating the sound and difficulty of breathing in emergency unit.
Establishing a patent airway is the most important intervention for any injured client who survived a bomb blast. By positioning, suctioning, and providing oxygen as needed, a patent airway is created. The next step is to listen for oxygen breathing sounds and respiratory exertion to determine ventilation once the patent airway has been created. After ensuring efficient ventilation, circulation becomes more important. By keeping an eye on key indicators like blood pressure and heart rate, circulation is evaluated in emergency unit. The next step is to use the GCS to determine the client's degree of awareness after measuring circulation. The removal of all clothing to allow for a full physical evaluation is the last step in the assessment process.
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a nurse is teaching a client about maintaining a healthy heart. the nurse should include which point in teaching?
Answer:
Exercise one or two times per week.
Explanation:
a patient says that her visitor is unable to come during visitor hours and asks if she could be accommodated. the nursing assistant:
While the nurse assistant is changing the client, a visitor enters the space. Please wait in the lobby, thanks. When the visitor inquires about accommodations, the sufferer replies that her visitor is unable to arrive.
Are CNAs and nurses the same thing?
The range of work varies between an RN and a CNA. Compared to CNAs, who serve as the RNs' and other medical professionals' assistants, RNs have more freedom to carry out their duties. CNAs have a more constrained job description and are supervised, but they lighten the load on other staff members, improving patient care in general.
What distinguishes NA and CNA from one another?
A certified nurse assistant is known as a CNA. The state that issues certification has examined and tested them
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an older adult admitted to a long-term care facility is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes and coronary artery disease. the client takes glipizide and isosorbide mononitrate. the medical history states that the client drank 8 ounces (240 ml) of whiskey per day for many years. which action should be a priority for the admitting nurse?
Assess for hypoglycemia and hypotension.
What is hypoglycemia?
Hypoglycemia is a condition in which your blood sugar (glucose) level is lower than normal. Malnutrition and famine can cause hypoglycemia because when you don't eat enough, your body uses up the glycogen stores it requires to produce glucose. One condition that can result in hypoglycemia and long-term malnutrition is an eating disorder termed anorexia nervosa. Lip tingling is one of the signs of hypoglycemia. feeling unsteady or shaking palpitations, an accelerated or hammering heartbeat, and an increase in irritability, emotion, anxiety, or moodiness. Although hypoglycemia may be prevented, it is a very serious condition. In the event of severe hypoglycemia, prompt action is required. If not, it might result in death.
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when plotting a 20-week-old infant's weight on a standardized growth chart, the nurse determines that the child's weight is between the 2nd and 3rd percentile. based on this finding, which action should the nurse take?
Compare this weight to earlier weights listed in the child's file.
What sort of work does a nurse do?Registered nurses (RNs) deliver and organize patient care, inform the public about various health issues, and offer counsel and emotional support to patients and their families. In a variety of situations, the majority of registered nurses collaborate in teams alongside doctors and other healthcare professionals.
Can a nurse perform surgery?They are in charge of several aspects of surgical post-operative treatment. Many surgical nursing professionals decide to specialize in a particular field, such as obstetrics, pediatric surgery, or heart surgery.
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the nurse is preparing to give an enema to a laboring client. which client would require the most caution when carrying out this procedure?
The client that requires the most caution is ; A 40-week primigravida who is at 6 cm cervical dilatation and the presenting part is not engaged.
What is the reason behind it ?The reason is : The presenting portion floats out of the pelvis when it is ballotable. In such a case, the chord may descend prior to the fetus, leading to a prolapsed cord, an emergency circumstance.
What is enema ?Enemas are fluid injections used to clear your bowels or to encourage it to empty. Constipation and other comparable conditions have been treated with this treatment for many years. Stool movement is slowed down by constipation, a serious ailment. Additionally, it makes stools hard and challenging to pass.
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the nurse is caring for a newborn who is large-for-gestational-age (lga). which characteristics are documented as a contributing factor? select all that apply.
In order to reduce the risk of LGA babies, the nurse should recognise maternal prenatal fat. Fetal oestrogen exposure is one of the additional risk factors for the development of LGA infants.
Which maternal characteristics ought the nurse to take into account as a contributing element in a newborn's large for gestational age?A big baby may be a sign that the mother has diabetes (gestational or pre-gestational), or that she may develop it in the future. Not correctly diagnosing it as being at a later gestational age is crucial.
What is the most typical cause of a baby being small for gestational age (SGA)?Most SGA babies are small due to foetal growth issues that arise during pregnancy, although some babies are small due to genetics (their parents are small). A disease known as intrauterine growth restriction affects many infants with SGA (IUGR).
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why might it be a bad idea to say that the risk of death associated with an effective treatment for disorder x quadruples if a patient also has disorder y?
The patient features, acute complications, comorbidities, or medications were among the risk factors for death that were investigated.
What causes the death rate to rise?Between 1990 and 2017, and over 1.3 million deaths among people of working age (25 to 64 years) were caused by drugs and alcohol combined, or around 8% of all deaths.These drug-related fatalities were a significant factor in the rise in having to work mortality, and they're now occurring today.
What does epidemiology mean by a risk factor?anything that raises the risk of contracting an illness.Aged, a family history of specific cancers, cigarette use, radiation exposure, chemical exposure, infection with specific viruses and bacteria, and genetic alterations are a few kinds for risk factors for cancer.
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the nurse is caring for a child diagnosed with down's syndrome. which explanation of this syndrome should the nurse provide the parents?
The correct option (4) Moderate to severe intellectual disability and linkage to an extra chromosome 21, group G.
Down syndrome is a genetic disorder that causes minor to severe physical and developmental issues.
Down syndrome is caused by the presence of one extra chromosome at birth. Chromosomes are gene bundles, and your body depends on having the appropriate amount of them.
This extra chromosome causes a variety of disorders that impact you both mentally and physically in people with Down syndrome.
Symptoms of Down Syndrome:
Down syndrome can have a variety of impacts, which vary from person to person. Some may grow up to be able to live nearly fully on their own, while others will require more assistance in caring for themselves.
Although mental capacities vary, most persons with Down syndrome struggle with thinking, reasoning, and comprehending. They will learn and develop new skills throughout their lives, but it may take them longer to achieve important goals such as walking, talking, and developing social skills.
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Full question :The nurse is caring for a child diagnosed with Down syndrome. Which explanation of this syndrome should the nurse provide the parents?
1.Subaverage intellectual functioning with a congenial nature
2 .Above-average intellectual functioning with deficits in adaptive behavior
3.Average intellectual functioning and the absence of deficits in adaptive behavior
4.Moderate to severe intellectual disability and linkage to an extra chromosome 21, group G
which is the most important action for the nurse to perform when assessing bowel sounds? (select all that apply.)
The most important action for the nurse to perform when assessing bowel sounds is to listen for up to 5 minutes when auscultating for bowel sounds.
What action should be taken when assessing bowel sounds?Always follow this sequence for the assessment of bowel sounds: inspection, auscultation, percussion, and palpation and changing the order of these assessment techniques can alter the frequency of bowel sounds and make findings less accurate.
Auscultate for bowel sounds by beginning in the right lower quadrant, and move in sequence up to the right upper quadrant, left upper quadrant and finally the left lower quadrant. Change in bowel sounds indicates problems with the patient before other signs emerge.
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the nurse is providing education for a client diagnosed with hypothyroidism. what information about diet should the nurse be sure to include in this information?
the nurse is providing education for a client diagnosed with hypothyroidism. the information about diet should the nurse be sure to include in this information is Increase in appetite.
What is hypothyroidism?
When your thyroid gland does not generate enough hormones, this condition is known as hypothyroidism. Fat gain, fatigue, and depressive symptoms are typical indicators of an underactive thyroid.
Cause:The main cause is an autoimmune disorder termed as Hashimoto's thyroiditisHence, the nurse is providing education for a client diagnosed with hypothyroidism. the information about diet should the nurse be sure to include in this information is Increase in appetite.
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which of the following products is not suitable to timed-release method for medications that are desired to have an extended effective level time?
The fluoride compounds in a toothpaste is a timed-release method for medications that are desired to have an extended effective level time.
What is a time release method ?Time-release medications employ unique technology to gradually introduce small doses of the drug into the body over an extended period of time. The terms sustained release, extended release, and controlled release are also used to describe this.
These typically come in the shape of pills that are merely stronger but disintegrate slowly.
Extended release pills are designed to keep your dosage constant for longer periods of time and are typically used once daily. They are frequently suggested to patients whose medications are not working as well as they should.
While prolonged release tablets are known to release their active ingredients in small amounts over a long period of time, they are intended to take effect after some time from the moment they are administered.
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mrs. laird is a 56-year-old postsurgical patient who has an unremarkable social and medical history. her surgeon has ordered fentanyl patient-controlled analgesia (pca) but mrs. laird admits to you that she is very reluctant to use it for fear of becoming addicted. how should you best respond to mrs. laird's concerns?
There is very little likelihood that patient-controlled analgesia (pca) will lead to drug addiction. I'll put it on my list to ask your doctor whether you can have non-narcotic pain relievers for your discomfort.
What is an analgesic?
A class of medications known as analgesics is designed specifically to manage pain. They include acetaminophen (Tylenol), which is supplied over the counter (OTC) or by prescription when taken in conjunction with another drug, and opioids (narcotics), which are only available with a prescription.
What sets anesthesia apart from analgesia?
Analgesia is the process of treating pain with analgesics without inducing unconsciousness or loss of sensation (e.g., Aspirin, Carprofen, etc.). The use of anesthetics to create a lack of body sensation, with or without awareness, is known as anesthesia (e.g., Ketamine, Propofol, Isoflurane, etc.).
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the type of stress that results from stressful situations that persist over time and produce negative health outcomes is called
Phase of exhaustion. Long-term or persistent stress is what led to this stage. Long-term stress management can exhaust your body's ability to combat stress by depleting its physical, emotional, and mental resources.
Stress is harmful when it interferes with our ability to function, wears down bodily systems, and results in behavioural or medical issues. Distress is the name for this negative tension. Stress causes reactivity, fuzziness, lack of focus, and performance anxiety, which typically leads to subpar performance.
Chronic stress is described as stress that lasts for several hours each day for weeks or months. Short-term stress is defined as tension that lasts for a period of minutes to hours.
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propylthiouracil is prescribed for a client with hyperthyroidism. the nurse provides instructions to the client regarding the medication and informs the client to notify the primary health care provider (pcp) is which sign or symptom occurs?
The most common side effects of propylthiouracil include fatigue, muscle aches, joint pain, headache, rash, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, dizziness, and loss of appetite.
What is Propylthiouracil?
Propylthiouracil (PTU) is a medication used to treat hyperthyroidism, an overactive thyroid gland. It works by preventing the thyroid gland from making thyroid hormones. It is also sometimes used to treat Graves' disease, an autoimmune disorder that can cause an overactive thyroid.
What is Hyperthyroidism?
Hyperthyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland produces too much of the hormone thyroxine. Symptoms of hyperthyroidism include weight loss, increased appetite, increased sweating, and nervousness. In more severe cases, hyperthyroidism can cause palpitations, tremors, and heat intolerance. Treatment for hyperthyroidism usually involves a combination of medication and lifestyle changes.
If any of these symptoms occur, the client should contact their primary health care provider.
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a client with chronic kidney disease (ckd) selects a scrambled egg for his breakfast. which action should the nurse take?
Answer: A. Commend the client for selecting a high protein biologic value protein
Explanation: Hope this was helpful
How does providing affirmation within the family promote mental and emotional health?.
which nursing action would be the primary consideration when caring for a client with a substance use disorder?
Medication-Assisted Treatment (MAT) is a strategy to treating substance use disorders that combines the use of pharmaceuticals with other interventions.
What are some signs of substance abuse?Utilizing or consuming in greater quantities or for longer periods of time than intended continuously wishing to reduce or manage their use of drugs or alcohol, or making unsuccessful attempts to do so. taking a long of time to get, use, or recuperate from drug or alcohol usage
Why are drugs a common coping strategy?Alcohol and drugs might offer a momentary escape from reality and daily life. Inhibitions and anxiety can be reduced, and pleasure can be increased. Compulsions or habits that a person develops over time to help them cope with specific situations or levels of stress are known as coping mechanisms.
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A common radiologic diagnostic manifestation of fibrotic restrictive disease is the appearance of.
A common radiologic diagnostic manifestation of fibrotic restrictive disease is appearance of a : honeycomb lung.
How does fibrotic restrictive illness manifest itself?Restrictive lung conditions prevent the lungs from fully expanding, which reduces the amount of air that can be inhaled. This phrase refers to a number of chronic illnesses, including lung fibrosis and numerous neuromuscular problems.
Asbestosis, sarcoidosis, and pulmonary fibrosis are a few types of restrictive lung disorders. Lung cancer risk is increased if you have chronic pulmonary fibrosis. When a lung disorder is the source of restrictive lung disease, it is difficult to cure and finally lethal. The most important factor affecting life expectancy is the severity of the condition.
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A nurse provides preoperative education to a client scheduled to undergo elective surgery. The nurse includes instructions about proper skin care. Which client statement indicates the need for further education?a) "On the morning of surgery, I won't use lotions or cosmetics."b) "On the morning of the surgery, I can shave my surgical area at home to save time."c) "I should begin to use an antibacterial soap a few days before my surgical procedure."d) "I'll shower before coming to the hospital on the day of the surgery."
A nurse will provide preoperative education to a client scheduled for elective surgery. The client's statement indicating the need for further education is c) "I should begin to use an antibacterial soap a few days before my surgical procedure."
What is surgery?Surgery is all treatment actions using invasive procedures, with the stages of opening or showing the part of the body being treated.
Not only treating, but surgery is also performed to prevent a condition that is even worse. For example, surgical removal of intestinal polyps which, if left untreated, can grow into cancer. So this operation is carried out with the aim of removing a number of tissues in the body.
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quizlet cpco which one of the following federal regulations is not pertinent to billing companies? a. safe harbor rules b. patient protection and affordable care act c. health insurance portability and accountability act d. false claims act
The "safe harbor" regulations describe various payment and business practices that, while potentially infringing on the Federal anti-kickback statute, are not considered offenses under the statute.
The Code of Federal Rules (CFR) is the codification of general and permanent regulations made by the executive departments and agencies of the United States federal government. The CFR is organized into 50 titles that reflect large sectors regulated by the federal government.
The Office of the Federal Register (part of the National Archives and Records Administration) and the Government Publishing Office publish the CFR annual edition as a special issue of the Federal Register.
The CFR is also published online on the Electronic CFR (eCFR) website, which is updated daily, in addition to the annual edition.
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after assessing the patient and identifying the need for headache relief, the nurse administers acetaminophen. which action by the nurse is priority for this patient?
For this patient, the nurse's top priority is to reevaluate the patient's level of pain in 30 minutes.
What nursing procedures will the nurse carry out during the evaluation stage?Evaluation is the last stage of the nursing process. To determine whether the objectives have been achieved, it occurs after the interventions. How the goals and interventions are successful will be determined by the nurse during the evaluation phase.
What stage of the nursing process does the nurse's patient care interventions take place?Giving patients both direct and indirect nursing care interventions is part of the implementation phase of the five-step nursing approach. During the assessment stage, the nurse collects data. During the planning phase, everyone establishes goals and orders the care according to importance.
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1. which procedure would require a patient to wear a provisional prosthesis for a longer period of time than is typical?
The procedure would require a patient to wear a provisional prosthesis for a longer period of time than is typical implant or periodontal therapy.
What is periodontal therapy?For the treatment of gum related disease the periodontal therapy is a conservative(non-surgical) type treatment.
It generally takes 2-4 weeks to cure after periodontal therapy.Removal of tartar and scaling is done during the periodontal therapy.Prosthesis:To replace the missing body part a device is invented i.e. known as prosthesis.
Implant:By the means of surgery fitting or fixing some tissue or artificial body part in the human body is termed as Implant.
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a nurse is caring for a client prescribed omeprazole. what information should the nurse provide to the client regarding administration of this medication?
Information that nurse should provide to the client regarding administration of omeprazole: take medication in the morning before breakfast and take omeprazole once a day prior to eating in the morning.
What is omeprazole?Omeprazole is a medicine taken to treat heartburn and indigestion. Taking omeprazole for more than a year may increase chances of side effects such as bone fractures and gut infections.
Omeprazole is taken once a day and also first thing in the morning. It does not affect stomach, so you can take it with or without food. If you are taking omeprazole twice a day, then take 1 dose in the morning and 1 in the evening. Swallow the tablets and capsules with a drink of water.
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which of the following persons is in a state of positive energy balance? multiple choice an 89-year-old man who spends most of his day in a wheelchair or bed. a 29-year old woman who has maintained her weight for six months. a 22-year old man who consumes 1900 kcal/day and is losing weight. a 25-year-old woman who is in her 6th month of pregnancy.
The persons who is in a state of positive energy balance is a 29-year old woman who has maintained her weight for six months.
Energy balance is outlined because the state achieved once the energy intake equals energy expenditure. this idea could also be wont to demonstrate however bodyweight can modification over time in response to changes in energy intake and expenditure. once the body is in energy balance, bodyweight is stable.
When a person is in energy balance , energy intake equals energy expenditure, and weight ought to stay stable. Positive energy balance happens once energy intake is larger than energy expenditure, sometimes leading to weight gain.
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a pediatric nurse is assessing a newborn diagnosed with persistent patency of the ductus arteriosus. which assessment findings are associated with this heart defect? select all that apply.
A murmur is heard at the second intercostals space, during systole and diastole both.
What is persistent patency?
Persistent patent ductus arteriosus or PDA is an opening that is persistent between two major blood vessels leading from the heart. The ductus arteriosus is a normal part of the circulatory system of a baby in the womb that closes shortly after birth usually. It's called a patent ductus arteriosus if it remains open.
A small PDA doesn’t often cause problems and might even not need treatment. A large PDA left untreated, however, may let poorly oxygenated blood to flow in the wrong direction, which in turn weakens the heart muscles, thereby causing heart failure and other complications.
Treatments for PDA are medications, monitoring, and closure by cardiac catheterization or even surgery.
Therefore, a murmur is heard at the second intercostals space, during systole and diastole both.
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the nurse is caring for a patient who has experienced head trauma in a motor vehicle accident. the patient is having excessive output of dilute urine. the nurse will notify the provider and will anticipate administering which medication?
Vasopressin (Pitressin) will be administered in brain tumours or head injuries. The antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland (vasopressin and desmopression).
Patients who have a deficiency in antidiuretic hormone ADH, which can be brought on by brain tumours or head injuries, produce a lot of urine (diabetes insipidus). In order to prevent fluid imbalance, antidiuretic hormone ADH replacement is required. Parathyroid diseases are treated with calcifediol. Prednisone and corticotropin do not stop diuresis.
Any trauma to the scalp, skull, or brain is considered a head injury. Both closed and open head injuries are possible (penetrating). A closed head injury occurs when you strike your head against something hard, yet the skull was not broken. Typical reasons for head injuries include:
Accidents at work, home, outdoors, or at athletic eventsa physical attacktraffic collisionsBecause the skull shields the brain, the majority of these wounds are small. Some injuries are serious enough to necessitate a hospital stay.Learn more about ADH
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after several months of being unable to sleep well, wayne ladner visited his doctor about this problem. his doctor recorded this condition as being
Insomnia is a problem when Wayne Ladner spoke to his doctor about this issue after struggling with poor sleep for several months.
Which condition is characterized by an acute anxiety of gaining weight brought on by a misleading assessment of one's body's appearance?Starvation is a factor in the physical manifestations of anorexia nervosa. An inaccurate perception of body weight and an extraordinarily potent fear of gaining weight or being fat are additional emotional and behavioral problems associated with anorexia.
What medicine commonly induces sleep by slowing the central nervous system?Ativan, Xanax, and Valium are typical benzos. Due to its calming, muscle-relaxing, and sleep-inducing effects, benzodiazepines are quite helpful in treating anxiety and insomnia.
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a nurse is applying a vaginal cream to a client with a fungal infection. which guideline is recommended for this application?
This may cause the medicine to not work as well. Do not use latex (rubber) contraceptive products such as condoms, diaphragms, or cervical caps for 72 hours after stopping treatment with vaginal clindamycin cream. The cream contains oils that weaken or harm the latex products, causing them to not work properly to prevent pregnancy.
A vaginal yeast infection is a fungal infection that causes irritation, discharge and intense itchiness of the vagina and the vulva — the tissues at the vaginal opening.
Also called vaginal candidiasis, vaginal yeast infection affects up to 3 out of 4 women at some point in their lifetimes. Many women experience at least two episodes.
A vaginal yeast infection isn't considered a sexually transmitted infection. But there's an increased risk of vaginal yeast infection at the time of first regular sexual activity. There's also some evidence that infections may be linked to mouth to genital contact (oral-genital sex).
Medications can effectively treat vaginal yeast infections. If you have recurrent yeast infections — four or more within a year — you may need a longer treatment course and a maintenance plan.
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