Which phase occurs directly after S phase? O A. Cytokinesis O B. G1 O C. M phase D. G2​

Answers

Answer 1

The phase that occurs directly after S phase is G2.

Answer 2

Answer: The phase that occurs directly after S phase is G2 phase.


Related Questions

the study of life is called . because life takes on such a wide array of forms, scientists have devised a hierarchy of levels of biological organization. the basic units of matter are ; when they combine, they form . various molecules group together to form , the basic units of all living things. some organisms, such as bacteria, are , while others, such as humans, are . among organisms, groups of with similar functions make up . groups of combine to form , which work together to form . these each carry out specific functions within an individual.

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Biology,atoms,molecules,compounds,cells,unicellular,multicellular,cells,tissues,organs,body systems

Biology is the study of living organisms. Scientists or specifically biologists studied the hierarchies of life forms to come to conclusions of classification. The basic units of matter are atoms which can combine to form molecules. Molecules result in compounds. The fundamental unit of life are cells. Cells are formed with different compounds. Cells combine to form tissues. Tissues combine to form organs. The organs combine to form organ systems. There are two kinds of organisms unicellular with one cell. Multiple cells form multicellular organism. Multicellular organisms have organ systems or tissue systems in them. Thus each tissue and organ carry out specific function, allowing an individual to exist

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the start of the prometaphase stage of mitosis is indicated by which of these? please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices the chromosomes arrive at spindle poles. the chromosomes condense. the chromosomes line up on the metaphase plate. the nuclear membrane disintegrates.

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Prometaphase is the stage of mitosis between prophase and metaphase. The main event that takes place during metaphase is the disintegration of the nuclear membrane.

Prometaphase is an important phase during cell division. In prophase two sister chromatids are formed inside the nucleus. To bring about cell division and separation of the sister chromatids, the nuclear membrane must disintegrate. This happens during the prometaphase.

During this phase kinetochores are also produced, which are proteins that bind to the centromeres and enables in separation of sister chromatids. This stage is also known as late prophase. Here the chromosome condensation is also completed.

So the main indication of the prometaphase is that the nuclear membrane disintegrates.

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how many total grams of protein and fiber are in the meal? how much iron, potassium, and calcium are in the meal? remember that when you are asked to provide a set of two or more numeric answers, separate them with commas. round to the nearest whole number.

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The group advises adults to get 10% to 35% of their energy from protein, 45% to 65% from carbohydrates, as well as 20% to 35% from fat.

2 Additionally, they advise taking less saturated fat than 10% of total calories. It is generally advised to eat 15 to 30 grammes of protein with each meal. According to studies, greater intakes—those of more than 40 grams—in a single session are no more advantageous than the advised 15–30 grammes at a time. In general, most adults would aim for a diet that has 20–35% fat, 10–35% protein, and 45–65% carbohydrates. As a general rule, a lunch portion should be around the size of your palm, or 70 to 100 grammes cooked, and an evening meal amount should be about the size of your hand, or 150 to 200 grammes cooked.

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The following sequence is the coding DNA strand of the collagen gene: 5' ATG GCG TTC GAA 3' What is the sequence of the corresponding mRNA?
a. 3' ATG GCG TTC GAA 5'
b. 5' AUG GCG UUC CUU 3'
c. 5' AUG GCG UUC GAA 3'
d. 5' UTG GCG TTC GUU 3'

Answers

The sequence of the corresponding mRNA is 5' AUG GCG UUC GAA 3' (Option C)

During transcription, the enzyme RNA polymerase recognizes the start codon (ATG in this case) on the DNA template strand and creates a complementary RNA molecule by adding nucleotides that are complementary to the DNA strand. The process of transcription is called transcription, and the enzyme responsible for it is RNA polymerase.

The mRNA sequence is formed by replacing thymine (T) with uracil (U) and then reading the template strand in the 5' to 3' direction.

In this case, the DNA sequence is 5' ATG GCG TTC GAA 3', and the corresponding mRNA sequence would be 5' AUG GCG UUC GAA 3', which is option C.

Option A is the same as the DNA sequence, but the direction is wrong. Option B and D are not a possible mRNA sequence because they contain errors in the base pairing or in the start codon.

how does the structure of amino acids allow this one type of polymer to perform so many functions? match the terms in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right. not all terms will be used. resethelp the linear order of amino acids (blank structure), with the varying properties of their side chains (or blank groups), determines what blank and blank structures will form to produce a protein. the resulting unique blank shapes of proteins are key to their specific and diverse functions.target 1 of 5target 2 of 5target 3 of 5target 4 of 5target 5 of 5

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1. structure

2. side chains

3. function

4. 3D

5. unique

The linear order of amino acids (structure), with the varying properties of their side chains (or groups), determines what 3D and function structures will form to produce a protein.

The resulting unique shapes of proteins are key to their specific and diverse functions. Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, which are long chains of amino acids that are joined together by peptide bonds. The structure of a protein is determined by the sequence of amino acids in the chain, as well as the properties of the side chains of each amino acid. The side chains, also called R groups, are different for each amino acid and can be hydrophobic, hydrophilic, acidic, basic, or neutral. This diversity allows the side chains to interact with each other and the environment in different ways, leading to the formation of different 3D structures of proteins. The unique 3D structure of a protein determines its function. For example, enzymes catalyze reactions by bringing reactant molecules close together in a specific orientation, while structural proteins like collagen and keratin provide support and strength to tissues. Additionally, proteins can also have multiple functions depending on the context, such as enzymes that can act as signaling molecules. This is why one type of polymer (protein) can perform so many functions, the sequence of amino acids and the properties of the side chains allow for a diverse range of structures and function.

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it's the most diverse, abundant, widely distributed, and structurally it varies it's the glue of the body; includes tendons, ligaments, fat, bones, cartilage, blood. called is connective?

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Connective tissue is the most plentiful and generally disseminated of the essential tissues. Connective tissue has three fundamental parts: cells, filaments, and ground substance.

Connective tissue is the most plentiful tissue type in the body. As a general rule, connective tissue comprises cells and an extracellular framework.

Versatile filaments are fundamental extracellular framework (ECM) macromolecules containing an elastin center encompassed by a mantle of fibrillin-rich microfibrils. They enrich connective tissues like lungs, supply routes, and skin with the basic properties of versatility and flexibility.

Collagen is the stringy underlying protein that makes up the white filaments (collagen strands) of skin, ligaments, bones, ligaments, and any remaining connective tissues.

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Connective Tissue, it links tissues the four tissue types with the most structural variety, abundance, and distribution One structure is "connected" to another structure through function. The body's "glue" and "filler" are CT.

Loose connective tissue and dense connective tissue make up connective tissue in its right form (which is further subdivided into dense regular and dense irregular connective tissues.) The proportion of ground substance to fibrous tissue distinguishes between loose and thick connective tissue. In contrast to dense connective tissue, loose connective tissue contains a greater amount of ground substance and a lesser amount of fibrous tissue. Collagen fibres are placed in an orderly parallel pattern in dense regular connective tissue, which is present in tissues like tendons and ligaments. This arrangement gives the tissue its dense appearance.

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The Dietary Guidelines stresses the importance of adhering to key recommenations for preventing non-communicable diseases. Which of the following are modifiable lifestyle behaviors that improve health outcomes?Multiple ChoiceAiming to eat the recommended amounts of fruits and vegetables daily.Obtaining a minimum of 150 minutes of vigorous exercise daily.Reducing sodium intake to 2400 milligrams per day.Limiting intake of monunsaturated fats.

Answers

Aiming to eat the recommended amounts of fruits and vegetables daily and obtain a minimum of 150 minutes of vigorous exercise daily. Here options A and B are the correct answer.

Modifiable lifestyle behaviors that improve health outcomes refer to behaviors that can be changed by individuals and can have a positive impact on their health. Eating the recommended amounts of fruits and vegetables daily is a good way to get essential nutrients and vitamins, reduce the risk of chronic diseases and improve overall health outcomes. Obtaining a minimum of 150 minutes of vigorous exercise daily is another way to improve health outcomes by reducing the risk of chronic diseases, promoting a healthy weight, and maintaining physical and mental well-being. Reducing sodium intake to 2400 milligrams per day is also important for improving health outcomes, as high sodium intake is associated with hypertension, which increases the risk of heart disease and stroke.

(The Dietary Guidelines stress the importance of adhering to key recommendations for preventing non-communicable diseases. Which of the following are modifiable lifestyle behaviors that improve health outcomes?

A - Aim to eat the recommended amounts of fruits and vegetables daily.

B - Obtaining a minimum of 150 minutes of vigorous exercise daily.

C - Reducing sodium intake to 2400 milligrams per day.

D - Limiting intake of monounsaturated fats.)

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Aiming to eat the recommended amounts of fruits and vegetables daily and obtain a minimum of 150 minutes of vigorous exercise daily. Here options A and B are the correct answer.

Modifiable lifestyle behaviors that improve health outcomes refer to behaviors that can be changed by individuals and can have a positive impact on their health.

Eating the recommended amounts of fruits and vegetables daily is a good way to get essential nutrients and vitamins, reduce the risk of chronic diseases and improve overall health outcomes.

Obtaining a minimum of 150 minutes of vigorous exercise daily is another way to improve health outcomes by reducing the risk of chronic diseases, promoting a healthy weight, and maintaining physical and mental well-being.

Reducing sodium intake to 2400 milligrams per day is also important for improving health outcomes, as high sodium intake is associated with hypertension, which increases the risk of heart disease and stroke.

Complete question:

The Dietary Guidelines stress the importance of adhering to key recommendations for preventing non-communicable diseases. Which of the following are modifiable lifestyle behaviors that improve health outcomes? Multiple Choice

A - Aim to eat the recommended amounts of fruits and vegetables daily.

B - Obtaining a minimum of 150 minutes of vigorous exercise daily.

C - Reducing sodium intake to 2400 milligrams per day.

D - Limiting intake of monounsaturated fats.

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the ____ of the hamster does not have lymphatic drainage and is often used for studies of carcinogenic agent testing.

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The hamster's cheek pouches, which are frequently employed in studies of carcinogenic chemical testing because they lack lymphatic drainage, are utilised.

What does lymphatic drainage do?

Reduces edema brought by by illnesses or medical treatments that restrict your lymphatic system. Another name is lymphatic drainage massage. An location with functional lymph veins is the target of a lymphatic drainage massage, which gently manipulates certain body areas to promote lymph flow there. It is soothing and therapeutic, and it is not painful. The lymphatic system is located very near the skin, or the body's surface. Your massage will also most gently move & stimulate the skin in order to increase its flow.

How can I do lymphatic drainage at home?

Lanini advises starting the drainage by pressing on the area immediately below your collarbones while you're standing in front of the mirror. Then, using your right hand and vice versa, press the armpit three times. Clients are urged by Lanini to consistently move their strokes upward or in the direction of the lymph node.

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label the thyroid gland and surrounding structures (anterior view) by clicking and dragging the labels to the correct location.

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Two capsules entirely cover the thyroid gland. The gland is surrounded by a thin fibro-elastic (true) capsule.

Define thyroid gland ?

The thyroid gland is a vital hormone gland: It plays a major role in the metabolism, growth and development of the human body. It helps to regulate many body functions by constantly releasing a steady amount of thyroid hormones into the bloodstream.It's a part of your endocrine system and controls many of your body's important functions by producing and releasing (secreting) certain hormones. Your thyroid's main job is to control the speed of your metabolism (metabolic rate), which is the process of how your body transforms the food you consume into energy.

Thyroid disorders can range from a harmless goiter (or enlarged gland) that needs no treatment at all to life-threatening thyroid cancer. However, the two most common thyroid problems involve the abnormal production of thyroid hormones. Both conditions are serious and require medical attention.

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The spinal cord is the only structure in the central nervous system necessary for which of the following body functions?Coordinated muscle movementTemperature regulationSimple reflexRespiration

Answers

Answer: Simple Reflex

Which of the following properties of life was the Viking Labeled Release experiment designed to detect?A HomeostasisB. GrowthC.Obtain and use energyD.Sense and Respond to SumadiE Reproduction

Answers

The correct option is C ; Obtain and use energy , Physiology is the scientific study of the activities and mechanisms of biological systems.

Physiology is the study of how animals, organ systems, different organs, single cells, and biomolecules accomplish chemical and physical activities in living systems.

In terms of chemistry and physics, it involves everything from how molecules act in cells to how organ systems work together. Viking 1 was a Mars-bound interplanetary mission that included an orbiter and a lander. The lander was scheduled to conduct experiments on Martian soil to determine whether or not life existed on Mars. Soil samples were examined for metabolic remnants of former life on the planet.

As a result, the right answer is C, get and use energy.

In this experiment, homeostasis was not measured.

As a result, option A is inaccurate.

Growth cannot be measured on Mars since there is no life.

As a result, option B is inaccurate.

Living things respond to and detect stimuli, yet Mars is devoid of life.

As a result, option D is inaccurate.

On a lifeless world, reproduction cannot be quantified.

As a result, option E is erroneous.

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thanks to , we can distinguish sweet, salty, bitter, sour, and umami tastes. group of answer choices locations on the tongue where each taste is processed a high concentration of salty and sweet receptors the presence of five categories of taste buds specialized taste receptors

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Thanks to specialized taste receptors, we can distinguish sweet, salty, bitter, sour, and umami tastes.

These taste receptors are nerve terminals surrounded by specific cells. Taste receptor cells within a bud are organized in such a way that their tips form a small taste pore, and microvilli from the taste cells extend through this pore. Each taste bud has 50-100 taste cells.

Taste receptor proteins are responsible for detecting items in your mouth, such as food particles. Taste receptor proteins are classified into five types, each of which recognizes particles with one of five basic tastes: sweet, sour, salty, bitter, and savory (the "meaty" characteristic of foods like soup broth).

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The tip of the tongue is the region most sensitive to sweet,  swab, and umami tastes. The sides are most sensitive to sour, and the reverse of the tongue to bitter tastes.

Although all tastes can be perceived across the tongue,  perceptivity situations vary for each taste.   Each taste cub contains 50 to 100 taste receptor cells. Taste receptors in the mouth since the five taste modalities agreeableness, sourness,  saltness, bitterness, and tastiness( also known as savory or umami).

Scientific trials have demonstrated that these five tastes live and are distinct.   Taste receptors are on microvilli of taste cub in papillae, which are on the rough side of the tongue. Taste kids are small sensitive organs composed of several taste cells that react to taste stimulants.

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what is the complementary sequence of rna nucleotides that would match the strand of dna? enter your letters without spaces. serleuala

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The complementary sequence of RNA nucleotides that would match the strand of DNA would be UCAGUACU.

RNA is synthesized by copying a specific strand of DNA, a process called transcription. During transcription, the enzyme RNA polymerase reads the DNA sequence and synthesizes a complementary RNA molecule, using the base pairing rules of A-U and G-C.

In this case, the given strand of DNA is "serleuala".

Here are the complementary RNA nucleotides that match the strand of DNA:

S-U

E-C

R-A

L-G

E-U

U-A

A-U

L-C

A-U

So the RNA strand would be UCAGUACU.

The process of transcription is the first step of protein synthesis in which the genetic information encoded in DNA is transcribed into a single-stranded RNA molecule using the base pairing rules of A-U and G-C

Where A in the DNA is complementary to U in the RNA, and G in the DNA is complementary to C in the RNA. This RNA molecule will then be used as a template for translation in order to produce a protein.

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Antibodies directed against granulocyte antigens have been implicated for all of the following EXCEPT?
A. Febrile transfusion reactions
B. Acute hemolytic transfusion reactions
C. Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)
D. Neonatal alloimmune neutropenia (NAN)

Answers

Antibodies directed against granulocyte antigens have not been implicated for B: "acute hemolytic transfusion reactions".

Antibodies are proteins produced by the immune system that help the body identify and neutralize foreign substances, such as bacteria, viruses, and toxins. They do this by binding to specific molecules, called antigens, on the surface of these foreign substances. Once an antibody has bound to an antigen, it can trigger a cascade of events that ultimately lead to the destruction or removal of the foreign substance.

Antibodies have been implicated for all of the following febrile transfusion reactions, transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI)D, and neonatal alloimmune neutropenia (NAN), but not for acute hemolytic transfusion reactions.

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After teaching a group of students about the structure of the skin, the nursing instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies which of the following as the true skin?1- Epidermis2- Dermis3- Papillary layer4- Stratum corneum

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The structure of the skin, the nursing instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies Dermis is referred to the true structure skin. So, the correct option is 2.

It is sometimes considered as an important organ because it contains several types of membrane and tissues which covers the body. The structure skin consists the two layers that is dermis and the epidermis.It's main functions is feeling of sensation, regulation and protection.

Skin structure based on three layers such as epidermis which referred to an elastic layer on the outside that is continually being regenerated. Epithelial tissue is referred to the kind of skin which provides a covering or protection to the skin that is the linings of the various passages inside the body.

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sars-cov-2 spike conformation determines plasma neutralizing activity elicited by a wide panel of human vaccines

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It is true to say that SARS-COV-2 spike conformation determines plasma neutralizing activity elicited by a wide panel of human vaccines.

The extreme intense respiratory  syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) spike (S) glycoprotein advances viral passage into have cells and is the fundamental objective of killing antibodies . S contains two useful subunits, assigned S1 and S2, that interface noncovalently after furin cleavage during union .

The receptor restricting space (RBD), which connects with the angiotensin-changing over compound 2 receptor , and the N-terminal area (NTD) that perceives connection factors are parts of the S1 subunit. The S2 subunit contains the combination hardware and goes through huge scope primary modifications from a high-energy spring-stacked prefusion conformity to a postfusion state, driving combination of the infection and host layers and starting disease . Antibodies that tight spot to explicit destinations on the RBD , the NTD , or the combination hardware kill SARS-CoV-2, and serum killing immune response titers are a relate of insurance .

Hence, given statement is true.

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(Complete question) is:

sars-cov-2 spike conformation determines plasma neutralizing activity elicited by a wide panel of human vaccines.Select true or false.

anxiety, shortness of breath, tachypnea, jvd (jugular venous distension), and tracheal deviation towards one side describes which of the following? . Aortic aneurism

B. Asthma exacerbation

C. Pulmonary embolism

D. Tension pneumothorax - Correct Answer

Answers

Anxiety, shortness of breath, tachypnea, JVD (jugular venous distension), and tracheal deviation towards one side describes tension pneumothorax.

A pneumothorax occurs when air gathers inside the chest between the parietal and visceral pleura, causes the lung to collapse. Although it is inside the thoracic cavity, the air is outside the lung. This puts strain on the lung and may cause it to collapse, shifting the structures close by in the process. Pneumothoraces can either be traumatic or not. Uncommon tension pneumothorax has a malignant course and has the potential to be fatal if addressed. When air becomes trapped in the pleural space under positive pressure, it causes mediastinal structures to shift and compromises cardiac function, resulting in a severe condition.

Patients with pneumothoraxes may or may not exhibit symptoms. Many patients may not exhibit any symptoms when they have a minor pneumothorax. However, tension pneumothorax usually has symptoms and has more striking characteristics than spontaneous pneumothorax. It can also occasionally reveal itself subtly.

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in her studies of chimpanzee behavior, jane goodall collected both qualitative and quantitative data. what of the example of quantitative data?

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Mothers and their infants typically nap for two to three hours each afternoon is an example of quantitative data that Jane Goodall collected in her studies of chimpanzee behavior.

Jane Goodall's groundbreaking research on chimpanzees revealed that mothers and their infants typically nap for two to three hours each afternoon, providing a glimpse into the quantitative data of their behavior.

With this insight, Goodall was able to gain a better understanding of the social dynamics of these primates, providing invaluable insight into their behavior and habits.

Quantitative data can be used to compare and contrast different variables, to analyze patterns in data sets, and to make predictions based on the data analysis.

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The anatomical term for the central-most anterior region of the pelvis is ______

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The anatomical term for the central-most anterior region of the pelvis is Pubic.

The pubic symphysis is a joint located between your left and right pelvic bones. It allows your pelvis to absorb some of your upper body's weight before it gets to your lower body. It also aids in the separation of your pelvic bones in preparation for vaginal birthing.

The pubic symphysis connects the left and right pelvic bones. Unlike elbow and knee joints, your pubic symphysis does not move significantly. Its primary function is to keep the right and left pelvic bones in place. Nonetheless, it makes little motions that assist your pelvis in absorbing weight from your upper body. When you're pregnant, your joint movements become even more pronounced. During pregnancy, the joint becomes more flexible, allowing your pelvic bones to stretch sufficiently.

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Which of the following cellular organelles is the site where sugar groups are added onto formed proteins in the final processing of surface glycoproteins?
A. ribosomes
B. Golgi apparatus
C. centromere
D. nucleus
E. lysosomes

Answers

B. Golgi apparatus is the cellular organelles site where sugar groups are included onto formed proteins in the final processing of surface glycoproteins.

The oolgi apparatus, also known as the Golgi complex or simply the Golgi, is a collection of flattened, stacked membranes that is found in most eukaryotic cells. It is responsible for sorting and modifying proteins and lipids that have been synthesized in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and directing them to their final destinations, such as the plasma membrane, lysosomes, or secretory vesicles.

Thus, it is the golgi apparatus is the cellular organelles site where in the final  processing of surface glycoproteins sugar groups are included onto formed proteins.

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Two traits segregate independently and follow the rules for independent assortment. This indicates that these traits are
A. Found on separate chromosomes
B. Located close together on the same chromosome
C. Inherited together more often than is typical
D. Evolutionary is favourable for the organism.

Answers

This indicates that these traits are found on separate chromosomes

According to Mendel's law of independent assortment, during the inheritance of two or more characters, the assortment of individual traits takes place independently during gamete formation. Thus each allele of a pair segregates independently and each gamete formed contains one allele of that trait.

The separation of characteristics occurs independently during gamete formation. German-speaking parents gave birth to scientist Gregor Johann Mendel. He is credited with founding the field of modern genetics.

Mendel chose the pea plant for his experiment and took into account seven traits of pea plants. The seven traits include seed form and colour, plant height, flower position and colour, pod shape and colour, and pod colour. Three principles of inheritance were discovered by Mendel as a result of his experiment.There were three of them: the "Law of Dominance," "Law of Uniformity," and "Laws of Segregation and Independent Assortment." According to the "Law of Dominance" and uniformity, some alleles are dominant and others are recessive; if an organism carries at least one dominant allele, the dominant allele's effects will be seen. According to the "law of segregation," each gene's alleles segregate during gamete production to produce gametes that have just one copy of each gene. According to the "Law of Independent Assortment," genes for various qualities might segregate on their own during the development of gametes. Thus, one allele of that trait is present in the gamete that is created. The features are therefore located on different chromosomes, according to the law of independent assortment.

So, Option A is correct.

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diffuse input to the cortex relaying through the thalamus, from what area, keeps the cortex active during wakefulness

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While implicit attitudes stimulate the amygdala, explicit attitudes stimulate the orbitofrontal cortex.

Those attitudes that are simple to self-report at the level of conscious awareness are referred to be explicit attitudes. They are easy to detect and report, and they are shaped with purpose. They are the deliberate activities that a person chooses to carry out in their relationships with other people. These attitudes result in the behaviors that other people see.

Implicit attitudes, on the other hand, are those that emerge unintentionally, against our choice, and are typically unknown to us. The amygdala is involved in the automatic processing of socially relevant inputs, while the anterior cingulate and dorsolateral prefrontal cortices are involved in the detection and regulation, respectively, of implicit attitudes.

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Six white-tailed deer and six sika deer were enclosed in a pasture for observation during an eight-year study in central Texas. White-tailed deer are a native species to central Texas, while sika deer are a nonnative species to central Texas. White-tailed deer feed on flowering plants and the tips of trees and shrubs but do not eat grass. Sika deer feed on flowering plants, the tips of trees and shrubs, and grass. All other grazing animals were kept out of the pasture during the study. The number of sika deer more than doubled after the eight years, while the population of white-tailed deer decreased by 50 percent. Which of the following statements best supports the results from the study?

Answers

The sika deer out competed the white-tailed deer in consuming flowering plants and shrubs.

This statement best supports the results from the study.

In an ecosystem, organisms need homes and resources like nutrients to develop, reproduce, and survive. In a habitat, there are scarce resources for which all organisms contend. An ecosystem supports a wide range of species and holds thousands of them.

Competition can be divided into two primary categories: intraspecific and interspecific. While intraspecific competition refers to competition inside a species, interspecific competition is the competition for resources among individuals of different species. Similar species fight for resources and have similar needs.

When two species fight for the same resources, interspecific competition results in one of two outcomes: either the weaker species becomes extinct or occupies a different niche.

Specialists are what?

Animals classified as specialists are those that efficiently utilise their resources and have few rivals as a result.

Except for option (b), none of the other possibilities are true.

White-tailed deer are not specialists since their diets are nearly identical to that of sika deer.

The white-tailed deer population will be impacted if parasites had an impact on the sika deer population.

All animals will be impacted if local climate changes have an impact on plant resources.

Therefore, choice b is the right choice.

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Six white-tailed deer and six sika deer were enclosed in a pasture for observation during an eight-year study in central Texas. White-tailed deer are a native species to central Texas, while sika deer are a nonnative species to central Texas. White-tailed deer feed on flowering plants and the tips of trees and shrubs but do not eat grass. Sika deer feed on flowering plants, the tips of trees and shrubs, and grass. All other grazing animals were kept out of the pasture during the study. The number of sika deer more than doubled after the eight years, while the population of white-tailed deer decreased by 50 percent.

a. The sika deer are generalists, while the white-tailed deer are specialists.

b. The sika deer out competed the white-tailed deer in consuming flowering plants and shrubs.

c. Parasites infected the sika deer population but did not infect the white-tailed deer population.

d. Change in the local climate reduced the availability of food resources for the white-tailed deer population

Which one of the following is least likely to cause a species to become
extinct?
A new disease
B new predator
C new food source

Answers

Answer:

C) new food source

Explanation:

Hope it helps! =D

What do bees do with the pollen that they
take from flowers?

Answers

Explanation:

Bees have a layer of fur that lets pollen get caught on the bees. The bees then move on from flower to flower to pollinate other plants to give them more nutrients and help them grow. Bees take pollen, nectar, and other nutrients from flowers.

Answer: Transfer it from plant to plant

Explanation:

Bees transfer pollen from plant to plant so they can be providing the pollination services needed by plants and nature as a whole. :)

Neuroscientists have discovered that the _____ is not completely connected to the rest of the brain until about age 25.
A) hippocampus
B) prefrontal cortex
C) amygdala
D) brain stem

Answers

Neuroscientists have discovered that the prefrontal cortex is not completely connected to the rest of the brain until about age 25.

The prefrontal cortex is responsible for many of the brain's "executive functions" such as decision-making, problem-solving, and impulse control. It is also responsible for regulating emotions and social behavior. Recent studies have found that the prefrontal cortex is not fully developed until around age 25. This is because the prefrontal cortex is one of the last areas of the brain to mature. The brain continues to develop and change throughout life but the development of the prefrontal cortex is particularly prolonged.

This research has important implications for understanding adolescent behavior and decision-making. It suggests that young people may be more prone to impulsive behavior and poor decision-making because their prefrontal cortex is not yet fully developed. This is important for parents, educators, and policymakers to understand as it can influence how we approach education, discipline, and justice for young people.

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select the steps in the process of bicarbonate ion production in the pancreas. select all that apply.

Answers

By following the stages in the right order, you may understand how the pancreas produces bicarbonate ions: Carbonic acid dissociates into H+ and HCO3-.

Digestive enzymes and bicarbonates are two secretions found in pancreatic juice that are crucial for healthy digestion. Exocrine acinar cells produce and secrete the enzyme, whereas the epithelial cells lining the tiny pancreatic ducts secrete bicarbonate. The pancreas secretes bicarbonate, which the small intestine uses to neutralize chyme.

In order for the digestive enzymes to function, the mixture has to be neutralized. An enzyme- and bicarbonate-rich fluid is secreted by the pancreas. Alkaline secretions are crucial for activating enzymes and buffering acidic chyme as it enters the duodenum. Ingestion, propulsion, mechanical digestion, chemical digestion, absorption, and feces are all examples of digestive processes.

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A scientist is testing whether light color affects plant
growth. She places three groups of plants in boxes, each
with only one color of light: red, blue, or green. She places
a fourth group of plants in natural light. Each day she
measures the plants and records their growth.
What is the independent variable in this experiment?
OA. The type of plants she used
B. The color of light the plants received
C. The plants in natural light
OD. The growth of the plants

Answers

B. The color of light the plants received  is the independent variable in this experiment.

What was the experiment's independent variable?

The cause is the independent variable.

Its value is unaffected by the other factors in your research. The effect is the dependent variable. Its value fluctuates as the independent variable changes.

The independent variable in the plant experiment might be fertilizer—some plants will receive fertilizer, while others will not. The scientists experiment with different amounts of the independent variable (fertilizer) to see how it affects the dependent variable (plant growth).

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Which of the following processes exhibit saturation (transport rate plateaus at high concentration)?
A. Simple diffusion
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Ion channel
D. Secondary active transport

Answers

The following process which exhibits saturation of the horizontal transport rate at high concentrations is active secondary transport.

The correct answer is D.

Secondary active transport is the transport of molecules across the cell membrane by utilizing energy in a form other than ATP. This energy comes from an electrochemical gradient created by ions leaving the cell.

Two types of molecules are transported at the same time in secondary active transport. The concentration gradient of the ion driver provides the energy to transport the ion/molecule pushed against its concentration gradient in secondary active transport.

Ions function as driving molecules, while ions or other molecules function as driven molecules. Glucose-sodium pumps, Na+/Ca2+ exchangers, and sodium/phosphate cotransporters are examples of secondary active transport.

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What views and beliefs were held, regarding the shape of the earth, in ancient times?

Answers

Planes frequently travel around the planet, and no one has ever claimed to have discovered the 'edge' of the Earth.

The early Greeks, Sumerians, Babylonians, Egyptians, and Vikings all thought the Earth was a flat disc or plane surrounded by sea. This was based on what they observed around them.The ancient Chinese thought the Earth was a flat square surrounded by spherical egg-shaped sky. This was due to their belief in a heaven above the Earth.Herodotus, an ancient Greek writer, described the findings of the Phoenicians, a group of explorers and traders. They discovered that the Sun was to their right rather than above them when sailing across Africa. If the Earth is flat, the Sun should always be directly above you.Based on his views of ships with towering masts moving over the horizon, Aristotle (384-322 BC) believed the Earth was a spherical.Aristotle noticed that as ships went beyond the horizon, the hull, or bottom half of a ship, truly vanished from view. The further it proceeded, the less of the ship could be seen - this could only be a bad thing happen if the Earth was spherical.

Hence, Observations of the Earth's shadow on the Moon were used to prove that the Earth was spherical.

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