Which of the following would occur if blood volume increases
outside of the normal range (is too high)? Check all that
apply.
A. ADH secretion would be inhibited
B. More urine is produced to remove ex

Answers

Answer 1

If blood volume increases ADH secretion would not be inhibited, This statement is incorrect. More urine is produced to remove excess fluid, This statement is correct

A. ADH (antidiuretic hormone), also known as vasopressin, is released by the pituitary gland in response to high blood osmolality or low blood volume. ADH acts on the kidneys to promote water reabsorption and reduce urine production. However, when blood volume is excessively high, it would not inhibit ADH secretion. In fact, ADH secretion would typically increase in response to low blood volume or increased blood osmolality to help retain water and reduce urine output.

B.  When blood volume is too high, the kidneys respond by increasing urine production to remove the excess fluid from the body. The kidneys play a vital role in maintaining fluid balance in the body. They filter the blood and regulate the composition and volume of urine produced. Increased blood volume triggers the release of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), a hormone that promotes the excretion of sodium and water. This, in turn, increases the production of urine, helping to remove the excess fluid and restore blood volume to normal levels.

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Related Questions

15. All of the following are examples of cancer screening methods EXCEPT: a) Mammography b) Prostate-specific antigen c) Pap Smear d) Biopsy e) Colonoscopy 16. The immune system has the ability to recognize cells as being foreign or abnormal through______.
a) the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules
b) tumor-host interaction c) metastasis suppressor genes d) cytotoxic T Lymphocytes (CTL) 17. All of the following are cancer-associated infectious agents EXCEPT: a) Human Papillomavirus b) Ionizing radiation c) Helicobacter pylori d) Hepatitis B e) Hepatitis C

Answers

Cancer screening methods include mammography, prostate-specific antigen (PSA) testing, pap smear, and colonoscopy. Biopsy is not considered a screening method as it involves the removal of tissue for diagnostic purposes.

The immune system recognizes abnormal cells through various mechanisms, including the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules and cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTL). While human papillomavirus (HPV), Helicobacter pylori, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C are cancer-associated infectious agents, ionizing radiation is not considered an infectious agent.

Cancer screening methods aim to detect cancer or precancerous conditions in individuals who do not show symptoms. Mammography is a screening tool for breast cancer, PSA testing is used for early detection of prostate cancer, pap smear is performed to screen for cervical cancer, and colonoscopy is used to detect colorectal cancer. These methods allow for early diagnosis and intervention, improving treatment outcomes.

The immune system plays a crucial role in recognizing and eliminating abnormal cells, including cancer cells. The major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecules present antigens derived from abnormal cells to immune cells, triggering an immune response. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes (CTLs) are immune cells that can directly recognize and destroy cancer cells, contributing to immune surveillance and tumor control.

While human papillomavirus (HPV), Helicobacter pylori, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C are known to be associated with an increased risk of developing certain types of cancer, ionizing radiation is not an infectious agent but rather a known risk factor for cancer development. Ionizing radiation can damage DNA and increase the likelihood of genetic mutations, potentially leading to the development of cancer.

In summary, cancer screening methods focus on early detection, while the immune system employs various mechanisms to recognize abnormal cells. Cancer-associated infectious agents include HPV, Helicobacter pylori, hepatitis B, and hepatitis C, while ionizing radiation is a risk factor for cancer but not an infectious agent.

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Exposure of yeast cells to 2,3,5 triphenyl tetrazolium chloride (TTC) can lead to interaction of the colourless compound with mitochondria where it can be converted to a red form (pigment).
What statement best describes the process in which TTC is converted from its initially colourless form to a red pigment?
A. Initially TTC is colourless however TTC interaction with ATP synthase leads to the ATP-dependent conversion of TTC to TTC-phosphate (where ATP breakdown is coupled to TTC phosphorylation). TTC-P is a red pigment that accumulates in mitochondria.
B. Initially TTC is colourless however TTC interaction with a component of the mitochondrial electron transport system (ETS) leads to transfer of electrons from TTC to the ETS converting TTC to a red pigment.
C. Initially TTC is colourless however TTC interaction with the plasma membrane electron transport system (mETS) in yeast leads to transfer of electrons from the TTC to the mETS converting TTC to a red pigment.
D. The initially the TTC solution used in the method only contains dilute TTC which appears colourless, however TTC becomes concentrated in cells and mitochondria which makes the cells stain red.
E. Initially TTC is colourless however TTC interaction with a component of the mitochondrial electron transport system (ETS) leads to transfer of electrons from the ETS to TTC converting TTC to a red pigment.

Answers

The best statement describing the conversion of 2,3,5 triphenyl tetrazolium chloride (TTC) from its initially colorless form to a red pigment in yeast cells is option B.

Initially colorless TTC interacts with a component of the mitochondrial electron transport system (ETS), resulting in the transfer of electrons from TTC to the ETS and the conversion of TTC to a red pigment.

When yeast cells are exposed to TTC, the colorless compound interacts with a component of the mitochondrial electron transport system (ETS). During this interaction, electrons are transferred from TTC to the ETS, leading to the conversion of TTC to a red pigment. This process occurs within the mitochondria of the yeast cells. Option B accurately describes this mechanism of conversion, highlighting the involvement of the ETS in the electron transfer and the resulting formation of the red pigment.

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If the attack rate for a given organism (disease) is 25% and the case fatality rate is 3%, this suggests that
Group of answer choices
a. this organism has high infectivity and low virulence
b. this organism has low infectivity and high virulence

Answers

If the attack rate for a given organism (disease) is 25% and the case fatality rate is 3%, this suggests that the organism has low infectivity and high virulence.Therefore, the correct option is (b) this organism has low infectivity and high virulence.

In epidemiology, the term attack rate refers to the proportion of people who are affected by a disease in a given time period within a particular population. The case fatality rate, on the other hand, refers to the proportion of people who die due to a disease after contracting it. So, in this case, the attack rate is 25%, which means that out of the total population, 25% of people are affected by the disease in a given time period.The case fatality rate is 3%, which means that out of the total number of infected people, 3% of people die because of the disease. Since the case fatality rate is low, this suggests that the disease is not very deadly. However, since the attack rate is high, this suggests that the disease spreads quickly in the population. Therefore, the organism has low infectivity and high virulence.

So, the attack rate for a given organism is the proportion of people who are affected by a disease in a given time period within a particular population. The case fatality rate refers to the proportion of people who die due to a disease after contracting it. In this case, the attack rate is high (25%), indicating that the disease spreads quickly in the population. The case fatality rate is low (3%), indicating that the disease is not very deadly. Thus, the organism has low infectivity and high virulence. It is essential to know the infectivity and virulence of a disease to control its spread. Epidemiologists use various measures to study the patterns of diseases and their spread to prevent or manage outbreaks.

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Bio 123 double cross quiz Complete the following problems. 1. The ability to taste a chemical called PTC is dominant in humans. People that cannot taste it are recessive. The ability to roll your tongue is also dominant vs. a person who cannot roll their tongue. a. Cross the following two individuals AND give me the phenotypic ratio of the offspring. TtRr ×. TTRr 2. Brown eyes are dominant over blue eyes in humans. Right handedness is also dominant over left handedness. Cross a man and woman homozygous for blue eyes and heterozygous for right handedness. List the phenotypes of the offspring.

Answers

a)The phenotypic ratio of the given cross is 9:3:3:1. The cross for the given two individuals is given below in the image. b) The phenotypes of the offspring produced are-Blue eyed, right handed : blue eyed, left handed.

The ability to roll your tongue is determined by the dominant allele of your gene. If an individual has one or both copies of the dominant allele, he can roll the tongue. If he has both recessive alleles, he is not be able to roll the tongue.

The dominant gene in the brown-eye lineage is the brown-eye gene. The blue-eye gene is the dominant gene in the blue-eye lineage. Therefore, all the children will have brown eyes.

However, if the father has blue-eye genes and the child inherits one of the blue-eye genes from each of the parents, then the child will be blue-eyed.

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The image for the cross is given below.

Function and Evolution of Membrane-Enclosed Organelles The endomembrane system consists of the Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER), the Golgi apparatus, Lysosomes, Peroxisomes and Endosomes. The ER membrane is continuous with the nuclear envelope and the ER lumen directly communicates with the space between the outer and inner nuclear envelope membranes. . Additionally, for each of the components of the endo membrane system listed above the luminal facing lipid monolayer (See Ch 11, pages 367-368; Fig. 11-17] is different in composition from the cytosolic facing layer and the contents of the organelle (the lumen) is treated by the cell as something extracellular." a) How are these observations explained by the endomembrane origin story (the theory of how endomembrane compartments evolved through cl toplasmic membrane invaginations) depicted in Figure 15-3, page 491, b) The theory specifically refers to the formation of the nuclear envelope but it is thought that the Golgi complex arose in a similar fashion What might that have looked like? Draw a sketch (or series of sketches) depicting a possible scenario.

Answers

Therefore, all of these organelles are composed of phospholipid bilayers, and the lumen of these organelles is treated by the cell as something extracellular due to differences in composition from the cytosolic facing layer. b) Thus, the evolution of the Golgi complex through the endomembrane origin story is likely to have involved multiple rounds of plasma membrane invagination, leading to the formation of the ER, followed by ER invagination and formation of the Golgi complex

a) Explanation of observations by endomembrane origin story:

The endomembrane system consists of the Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER), the Golgi apparatus, Lysosomes, Peroxisomes and Endosomes.

The ER membrane is continuous with the nuclear envelope and the ER lumen directly communicates with the space between the outer and inner nuclear envelope membranes.

Additionally, for each of the components of the endo membrane system listed above the luminal facing lipid monolayer (See Ch 11, pages 367-368; Fig. 11-17] is different in composition from the cytosolic facing layer and the contents of the organelle (the lumen) is treated by the cell as something extracellular.

These observations can be explained by the endomembrane origin story (the theory of how endomembrane compartments evolved through cl toplasmic membrane invaginations) depicted in Figure 15-3, page 491.

The endomembrane system is thought to have originated from the plasma membrane. It happened by invagination of the plasma membrane, which separated the cytosol and extracellular environment.

The invagination formed vesicles that pinch off and then fused to form the ER, the Golgi complex, and lysosomes, in addition to other organelles like peroxisomes and endosomes.

b) Sketch depicting a possible scenario of the Golgi complex evolution through the endomembrane origin story:

The Golgi complex arose in a similar fashion to the formation of the nuclear envelope through the endomembrane origin story. This is shown in Figure 15-3, page 491.

As per this theory, it is thought that the Golgi complex evolved through cl toplasmic membrane invaginations, which subsequently developed into the complex membranous system.

The Golgi complex likely started as a series of flattened sacs derived from the plasma membrane by invagination.

As depicted in the figure, the first step involved the invagination of the plasma membrane, which then led to the formation of vesicles that fuse together to form the ER.

Then the invagination of the ER gave rise to the Golgi complex.

The vesicles formed by this process fuse together to form the Golgi cisternae, which mature into the Golgi complex.

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A positive control group is one in which the independent variable is not applied ✔ the independent variable is applied ✔a variable with a known effect is applied What must be true of a hypothesis in order for the scientific method to be applied? It must be able to be proven or negated □ It must describe a phenomenon that can be controlled ✔It must describe a phenomenon that can be measured ✔ it must be able to be supported or negated

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For the scientific method to be applied to a hypothesis, it must describe a phenomenon that can be controlled and measured. A positive control group is one in which a variable with a known effect is applied.

To apply the scientific method to a hypothesis, it must describe a phenomenon that can be controlled and measured. In other words, it must be testable and falsifiable.

Therefore, the correct options are "It must describe a phenomenon that can be controlled" and "It must describe a phenomenon that can be measured".

In a scientific experiment, a positive control group is one in which a variable with a known effect is applied. In other words, the independent variable is applied and it's known that this will produce a specific result.

This allows the researcher to compare the results of the experimental group to the results of the positive control group and determine if the changes observed in the experimental group are due to the independent variable or not.

In summary, for the scientific method to be applied to a hypothesis, it must describe a phenomenon that can be controlled and measured. A positive control group is one in which a variable with a known effect is applied.

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Which of these things are normally found in the filtrate produced at the renal corpuscle? Select all correct answers White blood cells Amino acids Red blood cells Large proteins Sodium ions

Answers

The correct answers are: Amino acids, Sodium ions The intricate network of blood vessels allows blood to reach all tissues, ensuring the proper functioning of organs and systems.

White blood cells, red blood cells, and large proteins are normally not found in the filtrate produced at the renal corpuscle. The filtration process at the renal corpuscle allows small molecules such as water, ions (including sodium ions), glucose, amino acids, and small proteins to pass through into the filtrate. Larger molecules, including red blood cells, white blood cells, and large proteins, are typically retained in the blood and not filtered into the renal tubules.

Blood is a vital fluid that circulates throughout the human body, delivering essential substances and removing waste products. Composed of plasma and various types of cells, blood performs critical functions to maintain homeostasis. Red blood cells, or erythrocytes, carry oxygen from the lungs to tissues and remove carbon dioxide. White blood cells, or leukocytes, defend the body against infections and foreign invaders. Platelets, cell fragments, aid in blood clotting to prevent excessive bleeding. Additionally, blood transports hormones, nutrients, and waste products, regulates body temperature, and maintains pH balance.

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23-24
In the film The Great Dictator, Charles Chaplin impersonates Adolf Hitler and creates a satire. True False QUESTION 24 In Cellini's gold and enamel sculpture made for French king Francis I, a personif

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The statement that is true about The Great Dictator and the personification in Cellini's gold and enamel sculpture is: In the film The Great Dictator, Charles Chaplin impersonates Adolf Hitler and creates a satire.

The personification in Cellini's gold and enamel sculpture made for French king Francis I is of the Goddess of the Earth.

To further elaborate, The Great Dictator is a 1940 American political satire film, written, directed, produced, and scored by Charles Chaplin.

The movie is Chaplin's most commercially successful film and one of his most critically acclaimed films.

The film's primary theme is the avoidance of war.

In the film, Chaplin portrays two characters: a poor Jewish barber and Adenoid Hynkel, the dictator of Tomainia (a parody of Adolf Hitler).

On the other hand, The Cellini's gold and enamel sculpture made for French king Francis I, which was created by Benvenuto Cellini, was a salt cellar that contained salt and pepper shakers.

The salt cellar was created between 1540 and 1543, with work starting on it in 1539.

The personification in Cellini's gold and enamel sculpture made for French king Francis I is of the Goddess of the Earth.

The Great Dictator is a satirical movie that impersonates Adolf Hitler, while the personification in Cellini's gold and enamel sculpture made for French king Francis I is the Goddess of the Earth.

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Define Coevolution Give a specific example of Coevolution from your slides or textbook. Describe the situation, name the two species that are involved, and what each of the two species gets out of the relationship.

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Coevolution refers to the evolutionary process whereby two species exert selective pressures on each other that can lead to adaptations over time. It is an integral part of the ecological community, and it can result in a mutualistic, commensalism, or even parasitic relationship between two species.

A classic example of coevolution is the relationship between bees and flowers. Flowers produce nectar as a reward for bees visiting and pollinating them, which in turn ensures the plant's reproduction by spreading pollen. Bees have adapted to detect the flower's UV patterns to detect nectar from flowers, while flowers have evolved to produce bright colors to attract bees. Bees receive nectar as a food source from flowers. Meanwhile, flowers get to spread their pollen, leading to successful reproduction. The two species thus rely on each other for survival and reproduction.

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please help correct and I will rate
PAGE 3 16. A contraction that generates force without movement is , whereas that generates force and moves a load is known as _ a) isotropic/isometric b) isometric stic tones tropic on sometric tropio

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A contraction that generates force without movement is called isometric, whereas that generates force and moves a load is known as isotropic. Isotonic is the term used to describe a muscle contraction where the tension produced by the muscle is constant throughout the entire range of motion.

Contraction of the muscles is essential to move loads and produce force. The body needs to generate force when moving something, and in the human body, there are two types of contractions that are used to generate force, isotonic and isometric. Isometric contractions produce force without movement and isotonic contractions generate force and move a load. It is essential to understand these types of contractions to help increase muscle strength and avoid injuries.Isometric contraction is the type of contraction that does not involve movement.

In an isometric contraction, the muscle contracts, generating force, but there is no movement in the joint. An example of an isometric contraction is a person holding an object in one position for an extended period without moving it. When a muscle contracts, it is said to generate force, but when it is able to move a load, it is said to have accomplished work, and this is called isotonic. The tension produced by the muscle is constant throughout the entire range of motion.

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11) What are the three stages are repeated sequentially for many cycles during PCR? Briefly describe each stage. (6 points each)

Answers

The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a laboratory technique for generating a large number of copies of a specific DNA sequence from a tiny sample of DNA. A single-stranded DNA segment, two primers, Taq polymerase, and nucleotides are all needed to complete the polymerase chain reaction.

The three stages that are repeated sequentially for many cycles during PCR are described below:

Denaturation This is the initial step of the PCR cycle, in which the double-stranded DNA molecule is denatured, resulting in two separate single strands. When the temperature is raised to 94-95°C, the hydrogen bonds connecting the two strands break down. It produces two single strands that serve as templates for the next stage.

This takes around 20-30 seconds.

Annealing This step is where the two primers attach to the single-stranded DNA. This stage's length is determined by the primers' annealing temperature.

The temperature is lowered to around 50-60°C, which is sufficient for the primers to bind to their complementary DNA sequences. The primers serve as starting points for the Taq polymerase. This step usually lasts around 30 seconds.ExtensionThis stage is where the Taq polymerase synthesizes a new DNA strand starting at the primer's 3' end. It follows the 5' to 3' direction to create a complementary DNA strand.

The reaction temperature is maintained between 70 and 72°C. The duration of this stage is determined by the length of the DNA fragment that is being synthesized and can last up to 2 minutes.

The three phases, denaturation, annealing, and extension, are repeated for numerous cycles, with each cycle doubling the number of copies of the original template sequence. The cycle repeats anywhere from 20 to 30 times, resulting in millions of copies of the original DNA segment in just a few hours.

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and decreased The PMF across the inner membrane of the mitochondria is increased by the action of by the action of O Complex III / Complex II O Complex II / uncoupler proteins O Complex 1 / Complex III Complex IV / Complex V(ATP synthase) O Complex III / Alt Oxidase

Answers

The correct option for the given statement is O Complex III.T he PMF (Proton Motive Force) is a proton concentration gradient that stores energy in the form of a membrane potential in mitochondria. It plays an important role in the production of ATP in mitochondria.

The PMF across the inner membrane of the mitochondria is increased by the action of the O Complex III. The PMF is a term that refers to the electrical gradient (voltage difference) and the pH gradient (concentration difference) of hydrogen ions (protons) across a biological membrane. These two gradients are interdependent since they tend to equilibrate each other, resulting in an electrochemical gradient.The mitochondrial electron transport chain is an energy conversion pathway that involves the transfer of electrons from NADH or FADH2 to O2 by a series of protein complexes that are embedded in the mitochondrial inner membrane. The energy released during the transfer of electrons is used to pump protons across the inner membrane, resulting in the generation of a proton gradient that drives the synthesis of ATP by the ATP synthase (Complex V).Complex III of the mitochondrial electron transport chain is also known as the cytochrome bc1 complex. It catalyzes the transfer of electrons from ubiquinol (QH2) to cytochrome c, a water-soluble protein that functions as an electron carrier in the intermembrane space. The transfer of electrons is coupled to the pumping of protons across the inner membrane, leading to the generation of a PMF that can be used to drive ATP synthesis.

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Detrimental effects related to health related disruptions of normal human social behavior (depression, anxiety, weight gain, subsided, domestic violence). Did anyone consider this when isolating people from one another? Or having children do distance learning? Is the cure (social isolation) going to prove to be more detrimental than beneficial?

Answers

Social isolation should be employed as a last resort and must be accompanied by efforts to maintain social connections, such as the use of technology to stay in touch with family and friends.

The COVID-19 pandemic has caused a variety of significant changes, including mandatory social distancing measures and distance learning, which have disrupted normal human social behavior. People are increasingly isolating themselves as a result of these changes. There are numerous detrimental effects linked with these disruptions of normal human social behaviour, including depression, anxiety, weight gain, subsided, and domestic violence.

The curative method of social isolation has the potential to be more harmful than beneficial. Human beings are naturally social creatures, and interactions with other people are critical to our well-being. When we're alone or isolated from others, we tend to become more vulnerable to depression and anxiety. When people are separated from their loved ones, they become lonely and depressed.

Domestic violence also increases when people are isolated, as domestic violence perpetrators frequently depend on social isolation to control their victims. Social isolation has a significant impact on mental health, particularly among children, and may have long-term impacts that we don't yet understand. In addition, a lack of social contact may lead to weight gain and an increased risk of obesity and other health issues. As a result, social isolation should be employed as a last resort and must be accompanied by efforts to maintain social connections, such as the use of technology to stay in touch with family and friends.

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Studying an interesting new unicellular organism (Cellbiology rulez (C.rulez)), you Identify a new polymer which you name Cables and discover the protein that makes up its subunits, which you name Bits. You reflect on your knowledge of actin and microtubules to try to better understand how Cables might be put together Question 6 1 pts Which of the following statement about microtubules and actin is TRUE. Choose the ONE BEST answer. O Microtubules and actin are each made up of monomer subunits that connect together in a head to tail fashion to make protofilaments which come together to form a polymer Nucleotide hydrolysis in actin and microtubule polymers is an essential component of their dynamic behaviors O Microtubules and actin polymers rely on strong bonds between subunits O Microtubules and actin preferentially add subunits to their minus ends A microtubule or actin polymer exposes the same part of its subunit on the plus and minus end You next do a turbidity assay to determine the steady state or critical concentration of Cables, which you determine to be 8UM. In another experiment, you determine that the critical concentration of the D form of Cables is 1uM. Question 7 1 pts Based on what you know for microtubules and actin, which of the following statement is TRUE. Choose the ONE BEST answer. At a subunit concentration below 1 UM. both ends of the Cable will be shrinking At a subunit concentration above 1 UM both ends of the Cable will be shrinking At a subunit concentration below 1 UM. both ends of the Cable will be growing O At a subunit concentration above 1 uM, both ends of the Cable will be growing Question 8 1 pts If Cables behave like microtubules, which of the following do you expect to occur in the presence of non-hydrolyzable GTP? Choose the ONE BEST answer. O Cables would exhibit dynamic instability Cables would increase in polymer mass O Cables would treadmill None of the above

Answers

The correct answer is "Nucleotide hydrolysis in actin and microtubule polymers is an essential component of their dynamic behaviors."

Microtubules and actin filaments are both composed of monomer subunits that connect together to form polymers. However, the arrangement and behavior of these polymers differ. Microtubules are composed of α-tubulin and β-tubulin heterodimers that assemble in a head-to-tail fashion to form protofilaments. Multiple protofilaments come together to form the microtubule polymer. Microtubules exhibit dynamic behavior and undergo constant assembly and disassembly, a process known as dynamic instability. Nucleotide hydrolysis of GTP (guanosine triphosphate) bound to β-tubulin is a crucial component of microtubule dynamics. Actin filaments, on the other hand, are composed of monomers called globular actin (G-actin) that polymerize to form filamentous actin (F-actin) in a head-to-tail manner. Actin filaments also exhibit dynamic behavior, and their assembly and disassembly are regulated by ATP (adenosine triphosphate) hydrolysis. Therefore, the correct statement is that "Nucleotide hydrolysis in actin and microtubule polymers is an essential component of their dynamic behaviors." Question 7: The correct answer is "At a subunit concentration above 1 uM, both ends of the Cable will be growing." Based on the behavior of microtubules and actin filaments, the critical concentration of a polymer corresponds to the concentration at which the polymer ends are in a dynamic equilibrium between growth and shrinkage. If the subunit concentration of Cables is below 1 uM (critical concentration), it means that the concentration is too low for the polymer to efficiently assemble, and both ends of the Cable will be shrinking.

Conversely, at a subunit concentration above 1 uM (above the critical concentration), it means that the concentration is sufficient for polymer assembly, and both ends of the Cable will be growing.

Therefore, the correct statement is that "At a subunit concentration above 1 uM, both ends of the Cable will be growing." Question 8: The correct answer is "None of the above." If Cables behave like microtubules, the presence of non-hydrolyzable GTP (guanosine triphosphate) would not cause Cables to exhibit dynamic instability, increase in polymer mass, or undergo treadmill-like movement. These behaviors are specific to microtubules and not necessarily shared by other polymers. The effects of non-hydrolyzable GTP on Cables would depend on the specific mechanisms and properties of Cables, which are currently not described in the given information. Therefore, based on the information provided, none of the given options can be determined as an accurate expectation if Cables behave like microtubules in the presence of non-hydrolyzable GTP.

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Vince Sandra two children with down syndrome. Vince brother has down syndrome and vince Sister has two kids with down Syndrome. vince and another Sandra plan to have baby, what is probability child wont have down syndrome? a.1/4 b.1/3 c.2/3 d.0
e.1

Answers

Since Vince and Sandra already have two kids with Down's syndrome and as Vince's siblings have the disease, there is a high probability of having the disease. The probability that another child will have Down's syndrome will be 1/4. Thus, the correct option is A.

Down's syndrome is an autosomal recessive disease. Lets assume the allele for the disease to be denoted by d. The dominant, unaffected allele would be denoted by D.

Since Vince and Sandra have children affected with Down's syndrome, it means both are carriers of the disease. Thus, the genotype of both Vince and Sandra would be Dd.

A cross between these two would result in genotypes DD, Dd and dd in the ratio of 1:2:1. Thus, the genotype of the affected offspring will be dd.

Therefore, probability of affected offspring = [tex]\frac{Number of affected offspring}{Total number of offspring}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{1}{4}[/tex]

Thus, the correct option is A.

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The current safety mode of a recreational pool is yellow/amber. What does yellow/amber indicate about the water and what is potentially present? How would you as a scientist test to determine this level, explain at least two tests that could be used, and what actions would you take?

Answers

Yellow/amber indicates a cautionary or warning level in a recreational pool. It suggests that the water quality may be compromised or there may be potential hazards present.

As a scientist, two tests that could be used to determine the level of water quality and potential hazards are:

1. Chlorine/Bromine Test: This test measures the concentration of chlorine or bromine in the pool water. Low levels of these disinfectants can indicate inadequate sanitation, allowing harmful bacteria and pathogens to thrive.

To conduct this test, a sample of pool water is collected and mixed with a reagent that reacts with chlorine or bromine, resulting in a color change. The intensity of the color is then compared to a color chart to determine the concentration.

2. pH Test: pH is a measure of the acidity or alkalinity of the pool water. Improper pH levels can lead to discomfort for swimmers, corrosion of pool equipment, and ineffective chlorine disinfection.

To test the pH, a sample of pool water is collected and mixed with pH indicator solution. The color change indicates the pH level, and it is compared to a color chart to determine if adjustments are needed.

Based on the results of these tests, appropriate actions can be taken:

- If the chlorine/bromine levels are low: The pool may require shock treatment or an increase in the dosage of disinfectants to ensure adequate sanitation.

The pool operator should follow proper procedures for adding chemicals and retest the water after the appropriate time has passed.

- If the pH is outside the recommended range: Adjustments can be made using pH increasers or decreasers to bring the pH within the desired range.

It is important to follow the product instructions and retest the water after making adjustments to ensure the desired pH level is achieved.

In addition to these tests, other parameters such as total alkalinity, calcium hardness, and total dissolved solids should also be monitored regularly to maintain a safe and balanced pool environment.

It is crucial to follow local regulations, industry guidelines, and best practices to ensure the safety and well-being of pool users.

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The two broad classes of cells in the nervous system
include
1. those responsible for information processing, and
2. those providing mechanical and metabolic support.
These two categories of specialized cellss called?
A. microglia and Schwann cells.
B. neurons and glial cells.
C. astrocytes and Schwann cells.
D. schwann cells and glial cells.

Answers

The two broad classes of cells in the nervous system are neurons and glial cells. So, the correct answer is B. neurons and glial cells.

Neurons are responsible for information processing in the nervous system. They receive, integrate, and transmit electrical signals, allowing for communication within the nervous system. Neurons are specialized cells that have a cell body, dendrites (which receive signals), and an axon (which transmits signals to other neurons or effector cells).

Glial cells, also known as neuroglia or simply glia, provide mechanical and metabolic support to neurons. They play crucial roles in maintaining the structural integrity of the nervous system, regulating the extracellular environment, and supporting neuronal function. Glial cells include various types, such as astrocytes, microglia, oligodendrocytes, and Schwann cells.

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Which one of the following is diploid (2N)? zygote ovum sperm

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A zygote is formed when a sperm cell fertilizes an ovum (egg) during sexual reproduction. The sperm and the ovum are both haploid (N) cells, containing half the number of chromosomes found in a diploid cell.

However, when they combine during fertilization, the resulting zygote contains a complete set of chromosomes, with two copies of each chromosome. Therefore, the zygote is diploid (2N) because it has a full complement of chromosomes from both the sperm and the ovum.

A zygote is a diploid cell that forms when a sperm cell fertilizes an ovum (egg) during sexual reproduction. It marks the beginning of the development of a new individual. The zygote contains a complete set of chromosomes, with two copies of each chromosome, one from the sperm and one from the egg. It is the first cell of an organism and has the potential to differentiate and divide to form all the cells and tissues of the body.

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when does crossing over occur?
A. following DNA replication, during the interphase prior to meiosis B.during synapsis at the beginning of prophase C. just prior to separation of homologues, during metaphase ! D. during random alignment at the beginning of prophase II

Answers

Crossing over occurs during synapsis at A. the beginning of prophase I of meiosis. During this stage, homologous chromosomes pair up and form a structure called a tetrad. Within the tetrad, non-sister chromatids from homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material through a process called crossing over.

This exchange of genetic material contributes to genetic variation and the reshuffling of genetic traits among offspring. Therefore, the correct answer is B. during synapsis at the beginning of prophase.

Crossing over is a crucial process that occurs during meiosis, specifically during prophase I. Here are some additional details about crossing over:

Occurrence: Crossing over takes place during the pachytene stage of prophase I. It is a highly coordinated event that occurs between homologous chromosomes.

Process: During crossing over, corresponding segments of non-sister chromatids from homologous chromosomes break and exchange genetic material. This exchange happens at specific points called chiasmata.

Genetic recombination: Crossing over leads to the recombination of genetic material between homologous chromosomes. It results in the formation of new combinations of alleles and increases genetic diversity among offspring.

Importance: Crossing over plays a vital role in genetic variation and evolution. It contributes to the generation of unique combinations of genetic traits in offspring, increasing genetic diversity within a population.

Location: Crossing over occurs at random locations along the chromosomes. The frequency and location of crossing over can vary between different regions of chromosomes, leading to different rates of recombination.

Regulation: The process of crossing over is regulated by specific proteins and enzymes, including recombinases. These proteins help in the precise breakage and rejoining of DNA strands during the exchange of genetic material.

Overall, crossing over is a fundamental mechanism in sexual reproduction that promotes genetic diversity and contributes to the adaptability of species.

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For an affinity-driven agonist, what direction will the response curve shift if a noncompetitive inhibitor is added to the system? (b) Why will it shift this direction? This may not have been discussed in the lecture. If not, think about what the ultimate effect of a noncompetitive inhibitor is.

Answers

When a noncompetitive inhibitor is introduced to a system involving an affinity-driven agonist, it causes a shift in the response curve to the right. This occurs because the noncompetitive inhibitor binds to a receptor site that is different from the site where the agonist binds.

By doing so, it changes the conformation of the receptor.

Consequently, the receptor's affinity for the agonist is altered, leading to a reduction in the maximum response.

As a result, the dose-response curve is shifted to the right, indicating that higher concentrations of the agonist are required to achieve the same effect as before.

In summary, the presence of a noncompetitive inhibitor in a system with an affinity-driven agonist causes the response curve to shift to the right.

This shift is a consequence of the noncompetitive inhibitor binding to a distinct receptor site and modifying the receptor's conformation, ultimately reducing the maximum response and necessitating higher concentrations of the agonist for the desired effect.

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Your 4 year old tells you that bats and bees are related because they both have wings. How would you explain homologous and analogous structures?

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Homologous and analogous structures are two different types of structures in living organisms. Homologous structures are defined as the structures that share the same evolutionary origins. On the other hand, analogous structures refer to structures that perform the same function, but they do not share the same evolutionary origin.

Bats and bees share a common structure - wings - but it is important to explain that they have different origins for their wings. Bat wings are homologous structures because they share the same evolutionary origin with the wings of other mammals, such as birds. In other words, bats are mammals that evolved wings over time, and their wings have the same basic skeletal structure as the wings of other mammals, including humans. Bees, on the other hand, have wings that are analogous structures because they do not share a common evolutionary origin with the wings of mammals, but rather with other insects. Their wings evolved separately, and have a different structure than bat wings. Bats and bees are not related to each other in terms of evolutionary history, but their wings have a similar function - the ability to fly.

It is important to explain that organisms can develop similar structures for a variety of reasons, including environmental pressures or random chance, but this does not necessarily mean that they are related in an evolutionary sense.

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Homologous structures are organs, bones, or other body parts of organisms that have a similar anatomy or morphology but have different functions. The limbs of a human, cat, whale, and bat, for example, are homologous structures because they all have the same basic arrangement of bones despite having different functions.

Analogous structures, on the other hand, are body parts that have a similar function but are not derived from a common ancestor or do not have a similar structure. Wings, for example, are analogous structures because they serve a similar function (flying) in bats, birds, and insects, but they are not structurally similar and do not share a common ancestor.

Using this explanation, we can clarify to the 4-year-old that bats and bees are different in their structures. Even though they both have wings, the wings of a bat are homologous structures because they are made up of the same bones as the arms and fingers of a human. On the other hand, the wings of a bee are analogous structures because they are not made up of bones but instead are made up of chitin.

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How many amino acid residues long is the FMR1 protein?
a. 154
b. 537
c. 1480
d. 348
e. 147
What are the first 10 amino acid residues of the CFTR protein?
(using the 1-letter amino acid abbreviations)
a. meelvvevrg
b. marsplekas
c. matkavcvlk
d. mgprarpall

Answers

The FMR1 protein is 586 amino acids long, with parts of it cleaved post-translationally. 1) So the correct answer is 537- option B. The first 10 amino acid residues of the CFTR protein are meelvvevrg. so the correct option is option A.

The function of the FMR1 gene is to direct the production of a protein known as FMRP. FMRP is found in many tissues, such as the brain, the testes, and the ovaries.

FMRP may be involved in the formation of nerve cell connections (synapses) in the brain, where communication between nerve cells takes place.

FMR1 is found on chromosome X and codes for the X-linked protein FMRP. FMRP binds to mRNA and controls the translation of certain synaptic proteins.

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III. Essay Questions (15′×2=30′)
1. When Clampping or Draging the common carotid artery on one
side of the rabbit, what kind of changes will occur in the blood
pressure of the rabbit, why?
2. Wha

Answers

Clamping or dragging the common carotid artery on one side of the rabbit will result in a decrease in blood pressure on the affected side due to reduced blood flow to the brain and other tissues supplied by the artery.

The carotid artery plays a crucial role in supplying oxygenated blood to the brain and other structures in the head and neck region. When the artery is clamped or dragged, blood flow to the affected side is significantly restricted, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. The reduced blood flow means that less oxygen and nutrients reach the brain and surrounding tissues, resulting in a drop in blood pressure.

Additionally, the carotid artery also contains baroreceptors, which are specialized sensory receptors that monitor blood pressure. When the artery is manipulated, the stimulation of these baroreceptors can trigger compensatory mechanisms to regulate blood pressure, such as activation of the sympathetic nervous system and release of vasoactive substances.

Overall, the clamping or dragging of the common carotid artery on one side of the rabbit leads to reduced blood flow and subsequent decrease in blood pressure due to compromised oxygen and nutrient supply to the affected tissues.

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6) in a nucleotide, to which carbons of the ribose, or deoxyribose sugar, are the phosphate and nitrogenous base attached?
a. phosphate: 3' carbon; base: 5' carbon
b. phosphate: 5' carbon; base: 3' carbon
c. phosphate: 1' carbon; base: 5' carbon
d. phosphate: 5' carbon; base: 1' carbon

Answers

The correct answer is d. phosphate: 5' carbon; base: 1' carbon.In a nucleotide, the phosphate group is attached to the 5' carbon of the ribose or deoxyribose sugar.

The sugar molecule has carbon atoms numbered from 1' to 5'. The base (which can be adenine, guanine, cytosine, or thymine/uracil) is attached to the 1' carbon of the sugar.The linkage between the phosphate group and the 5' carbon of the sugar forms the backbone of the DNA or RNA molecule. The nitrogenous base is then attached to the 1' carbon, extending from the sugar molecule. This structure forms a single nucleotide, which can further connect with other nucleotides through phosphodiester bonds to create a DNA or RNA strand.

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You know these hormones play major roles in integrating
cardiovascular function. What impact do these hormones have on
heart rate?
They decrease heart rate by binding to beta 1 receptors on the

Answers

The hormones that play major roles in integrating cardiovascular function include the epinephrine, norepinephrine, and acetylcholine.

These hormones have different effects on the heart rate.For instance, epinephrine and norepinephrine increase heart rate by binding to beta 1 receptors on the cardiac muscle cell membrane. On the other hand, acetylcholine decreases heart rate by binding to the muscarinic receptors on the cardiac muscle cell membrane.What are beta 1 receptors?Beta 1 receptors are adrenergic receptors found in the cardiac muscle cells. These receptors are G protein-coupled receptors that bind to catecholamines like epinephrine and norepinephrine,

which increase the activity of adenylate cyclase. Adenylate cyclase, in turn, converts ATP to cyclic AMP (cAMP).cAMP acts as a second messenger that activates protein kinase A (PKA). PKA phosphorylates Ca2+ channels and ryanodine receptors, which increases the flow of Ca2+ into the cardiac muscle cells. This increased Ca2+ causes a stronger contraction of the heart muscles, which leads to an increased heart rate. Hence, the main answer is that epinephrine and norepinephrine increase heart rate by binding to beta 1 receptors on the cardiac muscle cell membrane.

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1) Mention the reactions catalyzed by Ribulose 1, 5 bis phosphate carboxylase /oxygenase (Rubisco) mentioning the chemical structures of the end products of both reactions. Regulation of the Calvin Cycle: Iodoacetate reacts irreversibly with the free -SH groups of cysteine (Cys) residues in proteins. Predict which Calvin cycle enzymes would be inhibited by iodoacetate & name them. Discuss with diagram the regulation of any one of the above mentioned enzymes.
2) Discuss with diagram the roles of the triose phosphate-phosphate translocator of chloroplast.

Answers

1) Ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate carboxylase/oxygenase (Rubisco) is a key enzyme involved in the Calvin cycle, which is the primary pathway for carbon fixation in photosynthesis.

2) The triose phosphate-phosphate translocator (TPT) is an essential protein located in the chloroplast inner membrane. It plays a crucial role in the transport of triose phosphates, specifically dihydroxyacetone phosphate (DHAP) and glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P), between the chloroplast stroma and the cytosol of plant cells.

1) Rubisco catalyzes two distinct reactions:

Carboxylation: Rubisco catalyzes the addition of carbon dioxide (CO2) to ribulose 1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP), resulting in the formation of two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate (3-PGA). This reaction is crucial for carbon fixation and the subsequent synthesis of carbohydrates.Oxygenation: Rubisco can also react with oxygen (O2) instead of CO2, leading to the production of one molecule of 3-phosphoglycerate and one molecule of 2-phosphoglycolate. This reaction is known as photorespiration and can result in the loss of fixed carbon.

The end products of the carboxylation reaction are two molecules of 3-phosphoglycerate, which are subsequently converted to other compounds through the Calvin cycle.

Inhibition of enzymes in the Calvin cycle by iodoacetate:

Iodoacetate irreversibly inhibits enzymes that contain free sulfhydryl (SH) groups, such as cysteine residues. In the Calvin cycle, several enzymes can be inhibited by iodoacetate, including glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase (GAPDH) and phosphoribulokinase (PRK). Both of these enzymes contain cysteine residues in their active sites.

Regulation of GAPDH by iodoacetate:

GAPDH is an important enzyme in the Calvin cycle that catalyzes the conversion of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P) to 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate (1,3-BPG). The active site of GAPDH contains a cysteine residue that plays a critical role in its catalytic function.

When iodoacetate reacts with the free SH group of the cysteine residue in GAPDH, it forms a covalent bond, inhibiting the enzyme's activity. This leads to the disruption of the Calvin cycle and reduces the production of carbohydrates.

2) The roles of the TPT are as follows:

Export of triose phosphates from the chloroplast: The TPT facilitates the export of DHAP and G3P, which are the products of the Calvin cycle, from the chloroplast stroma to the cytosol. These triose phosphates serve as substrates for various metabolic pathways outside the chloroplast, including the synthesis of sugars, lipids, and amino acids.Import of inorganic phosphate (Pi) into the chloroplast: The TPT also facilitates the import of inorganic phosphate into the chloroplast in exchange for triose phosphates. This is important for maintaining the supply of phosphate required for ATP synthesis and other cellular processes within the chloroplast.

Diagrammatically, the TPT is represented as a protein embedded in the chloroplast inner membrane. It spans the membrane and contains binding sites for triose phosphates and inorganic phosphate.

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Epigenetic mechanisms control the expression of genes (Chapter 27828). a. Explain how DNA mothylation is inherited mitotically (specify the onzyme involved)? b. What is dosage compensation? c. Describe the process of X inactivation. Ensure you specify the name and type of epigonotic molecules involved in this and what they do

Answers

The above question is asked in three sections from the chapter Epigenetic mechanisms control the expression of genes - 272828.

a. DNA methylation is inherited mitotically through maintenance methylation, which is carried out by the enzyme DNA methyltransferase 1 (DNMT1). During DNA replication, DNMT1 recognizes hemimethylated DNA, which has one methylated and one unmethylated strand, and adds methyl groups to the newly synthesized unmethylated strand. This process ensures that the methylation pattern is faithfully replicated and inherited by daughter cells during cell division.

b. Dosage compensation is a mechanism that equalizes gene expression between males and females, particularly for genes located on sex chromosomes. In mammals, females have two X chromosomes while males have one X and one Y chromosome. To balance gene dosage, one of the X chromosomes in females undergoes X inactivation. This process is mediated by non-coding RNA molecules such as Xist, which coats the inactive X chromosome and leads to its transcriptional silencing. By equalizing gene expression between the sexes, dosage compensation ensures proper development and functioning of cells and organisms.

c. X inactivation is the process of inactivating one of the two X chromosomes in female mammals. It is initiated by the long non-coding RNA Xist, which is transcribed from the X chromosome to be inactivated. Xist spreads along the chromosome and recruits chromatin modifiers that lead to gene silencing and structural changes, forming a condensed structure called a Barr body. Another non-coding RNA called Tsix regulates Xist expression and prevents X inactivation on the active X chromosome.

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SELECT ALL THAT APPLY​​​​​​​
What is true regarding neurotransmitter release in inhibitory cells? The inhibitory cell must be hyperpolarized in order to release NT. ONT release from inhibitory cells requires an action potential i

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Inhibitory cell neurotransmitter release includes the following: A) The inhibitory cell must be hyperpolarized in order to release NT and B) NT release from inhibitory cells does not require an action potential.  the correct answer is: A) The inhibitory cell must be hyperpolarized in order to release NT and B).

NT release from inhibitory cells does not require an action potential. What is an inhibitory cell?An inhibitory cell is a type of neuron that is characterized by the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters, which reduces or halts the excitation of other neurons. These cells are important for balancing the activity of the brain and nervous system, preventing overexcitation, and allowing for normal brain function.

How is a neurotransmitter released in inhibitory cells? Inhibitory cells release neurotransmitters in response to certain stimuli, and this process is regulated by changes in the membrane potential of the cell. For example, the inhibitory cell must be hyperpolarized, meaning that the membrane potential is more negative than the resting potential, in order to release neurotransmitter. When the cell is depolarized, or becomes more positive than the resting potential, neurotransmitter release is reduced or stopped.

In addition, unlike excitatory neurons, which require an action potential to release neurotransmitter, inhibitory cells can release neurotransmitter without an action potential. This is because the release of inhibitory neurotransmitters is regulated by the opening and closing of ion channels, rather than the propagation of an action potential down the axon.

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Consider the two samples of DNA shown below - single strands are shown for simplicity Sample #1 5'CAGTGATCTC GAATTCGCTAGTAACGT T-3' Sample #2 5'T CATGAATTCCTG GAATCAGCAAATG C A-3' If both samples are digested with EcoRI restriction endonuclease ( recognition sequence 5-GAATTC-3') how many fragments are generated in each sample and what is the length of longer fragments (bp) O A. Both samples will generate two fragments with sample 1 17bp larger fragment while sample 2 generates 23 bp larger fragment ов. Sample 1 two gragments with 17 bp large frament while sample 2 3 fragments with 19 bp large fragments C. Sample 1 two fragments with 19 bp large fragment while sample 2 three fragments with 21 bp large fragment OD. Both sample 1 and 2 produced two framents and one larger frament of 17 bp each 1. Bands higher on the gel (closer to the wells where they started) will relative to the bands lower on the gel. A. be more positive OB. have more base pairs C. be more negative OD. Have fewer base pairs

Answers

Both samples will generate two fragments with sample 1 17bp larger fragment while sample 2 generates 23 bp larger fragment. Restriction endonucleases are enzymes that cleave DNA at certain points.

They are used as a molecular scissor to cut DNA. EcoRI is one of the most often used restriction endonucleases, which cuts DNA at a specific sequence, .How many fragments are generated in each sample?The recognition sequence  in both samples is digested with EcoRI restriction endonuclease. So, both samples will generate two fragments as EcoRI recognizes the same sequence in both of them. In Sample #1, two fragments are generated.

Among those two fragments, one is 17bp longer than the other. In Sample #2, two fragments are generated, and one is 23bp longer than the other.What is the length of longer fragments (bp)?In Sample #1, the recognition sequence occurs only once, at the center of the sequence, resulting in two fragments, one of which is 17bp longer than the other. Thus, the longer fragment's length is 51bp (34bp + 17bp).In Sample #2, the recognition sequence appears twice, resulting in three fragments, one of which is 23bp larger than the other. Thus, the longer fragment's length is 68bp (45bp + 23bp).So, Option A is correct: Both samples will generate two fragments, with Sample 1 producing a 17bp larger fragment while Sample 2 generates a 23bp larger fragment.

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iral capsids are composed of... proteins. O lipids. nucleic acids. polysaccharides. 0/1 pts

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Viral capsids are composed of protein. The correct answer is option a.

Viral capsids are protein structures that enclose and protect the viral genetic material, such as DNA or RNA. These capsids are made up of repeating subunits called capsomeres, which are composed of proteins.

The proteins in the capsid provide structural stability and allow the virus to withstand environmental conditions and host immune responses. The arrangement and composition of these proteins determine the shape and symmetry of the capsid, which can vary among different viruses.

The proteins in the viral capsid play a crucial role in facilitating viral attachment, entry into host cells, and release of the viral genetic material for replication. Overall, proteins are the primary component of viral capsids, enabling the virus to infect and replicate within host organisms.

The correct answer is option a.

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Complete Question

viral capsids are composed of...

a. proteins.

b. lipids.

c. nucleic acids.

d. polysaccharides.

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