Body temprature 97 F is vital signs would be abnormally elevated, or increased, in a resting adult patient.
The amount of heat in the body is measured by its temperature. Healthy adults typically have body temperatures around 98.6°F (37°C), however this varies a little bit from person to person and during the day. A temperature reading that is higher than this range is regarded as elevated or increased and may signify an infection or underlying sickness. The significance of keeping an eye on body temperature comes from the fact that it is one of the most essential indicators of one's health and can give valuable information on the operation of one's body's metabolic processes.
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2. A researcher is interested in a relationship between aggression on schoolyards and video games. She asks parents to fill out a survey that reports the number of hours each week their child plays video games. She then observes each child on the playground at their school and counts the number of aggressive acts (eg. kicking, punching, hair pulling) during 30 minutes of recess time at school. (4 points) The correlational coefficient for this relationship was +0.6 a) Again, what are the variables of interest that produced this correlational coefficient number?
The variables of interest that produced this correlational coefficient number are the number of hours each week a child plays video games and the number of aggressive acts during 30 minutes of recess time at school.
What do you mean by the term aggressive?
Aggressive is a term used to describe a type of behavior that is hostile, violent, and domineering. It is often used to describe someone who is behaving in an intimidating or threatening manner. This type of behavior can be both physical and verbal, and is often seen as an attempt to gain power or control over another person.
This correlation coefficient indicates that there is a positive relationship between the number of hours a child plays video games each week and the number of aggressive acts they display during 30 minutes of recess. This suggests that the more hours a child plays video games each week, the more aggressive they are likely to be during recess.
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which nursing intervention should a nurse perform when caring for a client who is prescribed opiate therapy for pain?
Nursing interventions that must be carried out by nurses when caring for clients who are prescribed opiate therapy for pain are not to give it if breathing is less than 12 breaths per minute.
Opiates are one of the pain relievers that are often used in medicine. However, like other drugs, opioids cannot be used carelessly.
The normal respiration rate for adults at rest is 12 to 20 breaths per minute. A breathing rate under 12 or more than 25 breaths per minute at rest is considered abnormal.
So, don't give opiates if your breathing is less than 12 breaths per minute because it's not recommended.
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which measures would the nurse take to prevent skin breakdown for a confused client experiencing bowel incontinence?
The measures which the nurse would take to prevent skin breakdown for a confused client experiencing bowel incontinence are Immediately after urinating or having a bowel movement, wash and dry the spot.
Skin could be injured and form ulcers whenever it is restricted of blood flow. "Skin Breakdown" refers to surface-level skin damage. On light or tan skin, skin breakdown first appears as an area that is glossy, violet, bluish, or darker in colour and does not fade or disappear after 20 minutes.
A "typical" bowel movement takes place approximately two to three times each day or once every other day. Any deviation from this range could be deemed abnormal.
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which statements by the mother of a toddler would lead the nurse to suspect that the child has iron-deficiency anemia? select all that apply.
The following remarks by a toddler's mother might prompt a nurse to think that the kid has iron deficiency anemia:
A. He drinks over 3 cups of milk per day
B. I cant keep enough apple juice in the house; he must drink over 10 ounces per day
Toddlers should have 2 to 3 cups of milk per day, as well as 8 ounces of juice each day. If they have more, they are most likely not consuming enough other foods, especially iron-rich meals that include the necessary elements. Iron deficiency anemia is a frequent kind of anemia, defined as a shortage of functional red blood cells in the blood. Red blood cells carry oxygen to the body's tissues.
As the name implies, iron deficiency anemia is triggered by a shortage of iron. If you don't get enough iron, your body can't generate sufficient amounts of a component within red blood cells that permits them to carry oxygen. As just a result, iron deficiency can cause fatigue and shortness of breath.
The complete Question is:
Which statements by the mother of a toddler would lead the nurse to suspect that the child has iron-deficiency anemia? Select all that apply.
A. “He drinks over 3 cups of milk per day.”
B. “I can’t keep enough apple juice in the house; he must drink over 10 ounces per day.”
C. “He refuses to eat more than 2 different kinds of vegetables.”
D. “He doesn’t like meat. but he will eat small amounts of it.”
E. “He sleeps 12 hours every night and take a 2-hour nap.”
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which are indicators of nutritional risk in a pregnant client who is of normal weight? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Smoker, pregnant with twins, hemoglobin 12 g/dL, delivered 2 years ago, fasting blood sugar 80 mg/dL. These are nutritional risks for pregnant clients.
Smokers generally have poorer diets and are at risk of staying on the same diet during pregnancy. Multiple pregnancies require more food than is needed for a normal pregnancy. A hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL and a fasting blood glucose level of 80 mg/dL is normal. 180 mg/day of caffeine intake is below the recommended daily intake. During pregnancy, a poor diet deficient in key nutrients such as iodine, iron, folic acid, calcium, and zinc can lead to maternal anemia, preeclampsia, bleeding, and death. It can also lead to weight gain, wasting, and developmental delay in children.
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sally was admitted with a mass on her left ovary. after workup it was determined that the mass was a benign neoplasm. the correct code for the principal diagnosis is .
The correct code for the principal diagnosis of a benign neoplasm of the left ovary would likely be ICDA-10 code D27.0 "Benign neoplasm of ovary."
A tumour is a mass or lump of abnormally growing cells, which is referred to as a neoplasm. Malignant or benign neoplasms are both possible (cancerous). Malignant neoplasms can enter nearby tissues and spread to other regions of the body via the bloodstream or lymphatic system, whereas benign neoplasms do not infect surrounding tissues and do not transfer to other areas of the body. Neoplasm and tumour are terms that are frequently used interchangeably. To create a suitable treatment strategy, it is crucial to appropriately diagnose neoplasms and distinguish between benign and malignant growths.
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a client diagnosed with a hemorrhagic stroke is being transferred to the medical unit from the intensive care unit. which nursing intervention should the nurse initially implement?
a. Administer PRN stool softeners daily. c. Implement seizure precautions. d. Keep client NPO until swallow screen is performed. e. Perform frequent neurological assessments.
In addition to monitoring blood glucose and doing a bedside dysphagia screen or assessment, the initial nursing assessment of the stroke patient following admission to the hospital should include assessing the patient's vital signs, including oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and temperature. Even though there is a slight chance of developing an allergic reaction, intravenous phytonadione is advised for life-threatening bleeding, such as intracerebral haemorrhage complicating warfarin therapy. Intravenous thrombolytic therapy, which is delivered as a one-minute intravenous bolus of alteplase followed by a 60-minute infusion, is the first line of treatment for those who have had an ischemic stroke.
The complete question is:
A hospitalized client develops acute hemorrhagic stroke and is transferred to the intensive care unit. Which nursing interventions should be included in the plan of care? Select all that apply.
a. Administer PRN stool softeners daily
b. Administer scheduled enoxaparin injection
c. Implement seizure precautions
d. Keep client NPO until swallow screen is performed
e. Perform frequent neurological assessments.
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which instructions would the nurse give the mother of a newborn boy who is being discharged 4 hours after having had a circumcision?
The nurse will tell the mother of the a newborn boy who has been discharged to use a loose diaper for many days.
The glans stays sore for 2 to 3 days, the diaper is worn loosely to reduce pressure on the circumcised region. Because of its association with Reye syndrome, aspirin may prolong clotting so it is contraindicated in children. Acetaminophen & many other pain relievers may be recommended. For the first 12 hours following the circumcision, the career should check for blood every hour.
The presence of whitish fluid surrounding the glans is normal and does not suggest an infected condition. Rinse the affected area with water. Commercial diaper wipes should be avoided. Give your infant sponge baths after surgery if his umbilical chord is still intact.
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a nurse is teaching a client about the beneficial effects of exercise on his body. which education point would the nurse include in the plan? select all that apply.
A nurse teaches a client about the beneficial effects exercise has on the body. The training items nurses that should include in their plans are: Exercise increases bowel tone. Exercise increases the efficiency of your metabolic system. Exercise increases blood flow to the kidneys.
What are the benefits of exercise?Adults who engage in moderate-to-vigorous physical activity and are not sedentary may enjoy health benefits.
Benefits of Physical Activity (exercise) include: Improves memory and brain function (all ages). Protects against many chronic diseases. weight management support. Lowers blood pressure and improves heart health. Improve sleep quality. Reduces feelings of anxiety and depression. Combat cancer-related fatigue. strengthen bones and muscles, and improve the ability to perform daily activities.
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it is november and you are working in a small, rural, emergency department serving a community who is currently going through a flu epidemic. your next patient is a 4-year-old boy who was brought in by his mother for a sore throat and fever that started two nights ago. she says he has a mild cough, and is complaining of headaches as well. since last night, he has had a decreased appetite and has not been his normal, active self. she also wants you to know that he is allergic to eggs and latex, and uses an inhaler once a month for asthma like symptoms. on physical exam you note an erythematous throat, clear rhinorrhea, and rhonchi on auscultation. a rapid strep test was performed in the office and is negative. his last well child check was 14 months ago, and his mother says she knows he is due for another but her schedule has been too busy. What is the next best step in management?
A. Zanamavir
B. Aspirin
C. Ibuprofen
D. Amantadine
E. Albuterol
In areas where there is a known flu outbreak, Tamiflu can be recommended to patients who exhibit flu-like symptoms without further testing.
What does Tamiflu actually do?
An antiviral medication is tamiflu (oseltamivir phosphate). It functions by fighting the influenza virus to prevent it from proliferating in your system and so by lessening flu symptoms. If you take tamiflu before being sick, it may occasionally prevent you from getting swine flu.
What risks are associated with taking Tamiflu?
Nausea and vomiting are frequent side effects of the Tamiflu drug. Infants taking this medicine may also frequently have diarrhoea. Children's mental health issues and severe skin problems are examples of serious adverse effects. Despite being uncommon, these side effects could call for immediate medical attention.
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a team of nurses are evaluating some current practices on the unit to see if changes are warranted. which guideline should the nurses prioritize as they implement ebp?
The standard guidelines that a nursing team can implement (as they implement EBP) to ensure that they provide better health services to their clients are identifying knowledge gaps, applying evidence rules that validate nursing qualifications, and formulating relevant questions.
EBP (Evidence-Based Practice) requires that decisions about health care be based on the best available, current, valid, and relevant evidence. Within the context of available resources, these decisions should be made by those receiving care, informed by the tacit and explicit knowledge of those providing care. Steps in EBP include : Identification of problem, collection of most relevant evidence, critical appraisal of evidence, combination of study findings, evaluation of change in practice. The standard guidelines that a nursing team can implement (in EBP) to ensure that they provide better health services to their clients are identifying knowledge gaps, applying evidence rules that validate nursing qualifications, and formulating relevant questions. EBP assists people in continuing to improve patient outcomes while weighing the preferences and experiences of each patient, which is one of the main tenets of nursing. Improved patient care decisions that save nurses time.
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an adolescent is seen in the emergency department following an athletic injury, and it is suspected that the child sprained an ankle. x-rays are taken, and a fracture has been ruled out. the nurse reinforces instructions to the adolescent regarding home care for treatment of the sprain and provides the adolescent with which information?
After taking X-rays at the emergency room, a fracture has already been ruled out. The nurse tells the adolescent how to care for their sprain at home and gives guidelines.
What of the following evaluation methods should be used to identify whether an increase is intracranial pressure is present?
The response is C. In order to measure ICP, a catheter is inserted near the lateral ventricle and is known as a ventriculostomy. When pressure readings rise and ICP is measured, it will aid in draining CSF. ICP values over 20 mmHg must be watched monitored by the nurse, who must then inform the doctor.
Suction equipment is required after tonsillectomy, but due to the danger of damage to the surgical site, suctioning is not done until there is a airway obstruction. Following any kind of surgery, it's crucial for nurses to keep an eye out for bleeding.
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after the nurse obtains patient data during the assessment phase, a nursing diagnosis would be selected from an approved nanda list. the nursing diagnosis contains which of the following? select all that apply. attention to the differences in human need fulfillment or alteration occurring listing of cues, clues, evidence, signs, symptoms, or other data to support human need statement of human need medical diagnosis
the nursing diagnosis contains the following Listing of cues, clues, evidence, signs, symptoms, or other data to support human need, Attention to the differences in human need fulfillment or alteration occurring, and a Statement of human need.
A Nanda accepted nursing diagnosis is what?A formal definition of nursing diagnosis was established by the organization in 1990 at its 9th conference. It reads as follows: "Nursing diagnosis is a clinical judgment concerning individual, family, or community responses to present or potential health problems/life processes.
What stage of the nursing procedure follows the assessment phase?With 5 consecutive steps, the nursing process serves as a structured manual for client-centered care. These include evaluation, planning, implementation, diagnosis, and assessment. The first step is assessment, which calls for the use of critical thinking abilities and the gathering of both subjective and objective facts.
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a client is meeting with the nurse to discuss options for smoking cessation. which statement by the nurse is most appropriate for this client?
"What do you see as your biggest hurdle to stopping?" would be the nurse's statement for this client..
To assess the efficacy of smoking cessation program administered by nurses in adults. To determine whether nursing delivered smoking cessation interventions are much more effective than the no intervention; are much more effective if the intervention is much more intensive; differ in effectiveness depending on the participants' health status and setting; are more effective if follow ups are included; and are more effective if aids that demonstrate this same pathophysiological effect of smoking are included.
Tobacco-related fatalities and disabilities are increasing globally as a result of ongoing tobacco usage (mainly cigarettes). Tobacco use reached epidemic levels in many low and middle income countries, while steady consumption persists in high income ones such as the United States. Most smokers desire to stop and may benefit from expert counsel and assistance.
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which is an appropriate response to a pregnant client who reports that she is always tired and feels sick to her stomach, especially in the morning?
"Let's discuss ways to resolve these common problems." is the appropriate response.
Pregnancy complications are health issues that arise as a result of the pregnancy. Obstetric labour difficulties are issues that occur mostly during childbirth, while puerperal abnormalities occur primarily after childbirth. Gestational diabetes is a pregnancy problem, and the growing trend of female obesity makes this a risk factor for its development.
Obesity is a risk factor for pre-eclampsia as well. There is no obvious distinction between pregnancy problems and pregnant symptoms and discomforts. However, the latter do not considerably interfere with everyday activities or constitute a serious hazard to the mother's or baby's health. Gestational diabetes occurs when a woman has excessive blood sugar levels during pregnancy without having previously been diagnosed with diabetes.
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the registered nurse is educating a student nurse about critical thinking when caring for clients. which action made by the student nurse indicates the use of critical thinking?
A student nurse is being taught by a registered nurse how to use critical thinking when treating patients. By asking the client to confirm his or her name and date of birth before administering medicine, the nursing student demonstrated the application of critical thinking.
A decision to take action is reached through the mental process of actively and carefully perceiving, analyzing, synthesizing, and evaluating the information that has been gathered through observation, experience, and conversation. Critical-thinking and its importance in routine clinical nursing practices and treatments that are frequently discussed in nursing education. Clinical nursing teachers are aware that making judgements for clinical practice can be challenging for students. Nursing students should use the following critical thinking skills throughout their studies: critical analysis, introduction and conclusion justification, valid conclusion, differentiation of facts and opinions, assessment of the reliability of information sources, clarification of concepts, and recognition of conditions.
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The complete question is:
The registered nurse is educating a student nurse about critical thinking when caring for clients. Which action made by the student nurse indicates the use of critical thinking?
Analyzing a client's temperature changes and assessing for signs of infection.Filling out food selections on the menu with the client to determine food preferences.Ensuring the bed is in a low and locked position and the call light is in reach prior to leaving the client's room.Asking the client to verify his or her name and date of birth prior to medication administrationThe most common type of cancer among men (and rare among women) is ___________, whereas __________ cancer is the most common type among women (and rare among men).
Prostate cancer is the most prevalent type of cancer in men (and the rarest in women), while breast cancer is the most prevalent type in women (and rare among men).
Prostate cancer is individual of the ultimate low types of cancer. Many prostate cancers evolve moderately and are enclosed to the prostate gland, the place they concede the possibility of not causing weighty harm. However, while some types of prostate tumors evolve moderately and grant permission in need the littlest or even no situation, other types are hostile and can spread fast.
Substantial support for bosom malignancy knowledge and research capital has helped forge advances in the disease and situation of conscience malignancy. Breast tumor survival rates have raised, and the number of deaths guiding this ailment is firmly lessening, largely on account of determinants to a degree former discovery, a new embodied approach to treatment, and a better understanding of the affliction.
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Psychology is considered a science because it uses a systematic method of asking and answering questions. Please select the best answer from the choices provided T F
It is true that psychology has been considered as the science because it has so many uses the systematic method of the asking as well as the answering questions.
What is psychology?The scientific has the basically sense of the how individuals will behave, as it assume, and feel which is known as the psychology. Experiences shape has everything that about the human existence.
Essentially, psychology benefits people since it can explain how people behave the way they do and just from basic brain functions to the consciousness, recollection, reasoning, and dialect, as well as personality and mental health.
Therefore, It is true that psychology has been considered as the science because it has so many uses the systematic method of the asking as well as the answering questions.
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Answer:
true
Explanation:
on edg
what group of patients have a greater burden of illness and frailty?
The group of patients that have a greater burden of illness and frailty are immune compromised patients.
What patients have a greater burden of illness?We have to note that a patient would be ill most often and have a more severe illness when the immunity of the patient have ben compromised. This is very important especially when a person is suffering from a severe disease.
The chances of frailty and susceptibility to illness is going to be much higher when the immune system of the patient is no longer working so well such that he or she is open to infections.
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1. previously used screening recommendations including cvd risk assessment and risk classification tended to (over? or under?) refer individuals to seek out medical clearance before exercising.
Currently, treatment decisions are based on stratifying individual risk using methods like the Pooled Cohort Equations or the Framingham Risk Score to assess CVD risk in order to inform treatment for preventing CVD occurrences by changing risk variables.
Individuals to seek out medical clearance before exercising:
People with known high blood pressure, high cholesterol, joint issues (such as arthritis, degenerated discs), neurologic issues, poor circulation, lung disease, or any other significant chronic medical condition may benefit from medical consultation before beginning an exercise program, regardless of age or diabetes.You can construct an activity from scratch or modify one to fit your needs with the aid of several different specialists. They consist of: Physiatrists are board-certified medical professionals who focus on treating nerve, muscular, and bone problems that impair movement. They are also referred to as rehabilitation physicians.Before beginning a new fitness regimen, consult your doctor if you're unsure of your health status, have a number of health issues, or are pregnant.To learn more about CVD Risk refer to:
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the provider prescribes 1000 ml of dextrose 5% 0.45%nacl over the next 12 hours. the intravenous delivery system is a microdrip system delivering 60 drops/ml. the nurse should set the infusion to run at which rate? (record your answer as a whole number.)
The nurse should set the infusion to run at 83 gtts/minute if the intravenous delivery device is a microdrip system that delivers 60 drops/ml.
How are drugs for critical care prescribed in drops per minute?There are several different ways to order medications in the critical care unit, including milliliters per hour (mL/hr), drops per minute (gtt/min) (using a microdrop set), micrograms per kilogram per minute (mcg/kg/min), and milligrams per hour (mg/hr). These drugs are often given using infusion pumps and volume control equipment.
What are the three measurement systems used in pharmacology, and which one is most frequently employed?The apothecary, metric, and home systems are used to measure medications. To give medications safely, nurses should be skilled in using various systems of pharmaceutical measure.
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Which pharmacology related nursing activities are part of the evaluation step of the nursing process? Select all that apply.*Monitoring for adverse drug effects.*Offering the patient's favorite drink while taking medications.*Organizing how the medications are going to be administered.*Determining patient known medication allergies.*Assessing the patient's response to pain medication.
All are part of the evaluation step in pharmacology related nursing activities: (1) Monitoring for adverse drug effects; (2) Offering the patient's favorite drink while taking medications; (3) Organizing how the medications are going to be administered; (4) Determining patient known medication allergies; (5) Assessing the patient's response to pain medication.
Pharmacology is the branch of medical science that deals with the use, effect as well as mode of action of the drugs inside the living organisms. It involves studying the physiological and biochemical effect of drugs.
Allergies are defined as the damaging immune responses of the body to any foreign substances. The substances that cause allergy are called allergens. The examples include pollens, dust, fur, etc.
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A client with an acute kidney injury has peritoneal dialysis (PD) prescribed and asks why the procedure is necessary. Which response statement would the nurse use?
1 "PD prevents the development of serious heart problems by removing the damaged tissues."
2 "PD helps perform some of the work usually performed by your kidneys."
3 "PD stabilizes the kidney damage and may 'restart' your kidneys to perform better than before."
4 "PD speeds recovery because the kidneys are not responding to regulating hormones."
A client with an acute kidney injury has peritoneal dialysis (PD) prescribed and asks why the procedure is necessary, "PD helps perform some of the work usually performed by your kidneys" this response statement would the nurse use.
Correct option: 2
What is peritoneal dialysis?The kidneys typically eliminate toxins, pollutants, and fluids from the body. The mention of cardiac issues is a threatening reaction and may raise dread or anxiety. It is deceptive to inform the patient having PD may "restart" their kidneys and improve their functionality. Since the nephrons are damaged in acute kidney injury, PD may or may not hasten healing. PD helps regulate fluid and electrolytes.
Thus, correct option is: 2
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a nurse has applied restraints to a client as ordered at 9 p.m. the nurse adheres to the guidelines for restraint use by removing them at which time?
At nine o'clock in the evening, a nurse restrained a client as directed. By taking them off at 11 p.m., the nurse follows the regulations for using restraints.
The nurse must do the following before applying restraints-
1. Examine the patient's demeanour for indications of confusion, disorientation, restlessness, or combativeness; frequent removal of dressings, tubes, or other therapeutic devices; and a lack of ability to follow instructions.
2. Examine the restraints policies of the organisation. Verify the purpose, type, location, and time or duration on the prescription. Identify whether a signed consent is required.
3. Examine the manufacturer's application guidelines for restraints to determine the best size restraint.
4. Examine the area where the restraint is to be applied, paying attention to the skin's condition, the presence of sensation, the range of motion, and the quality of the blood flow and skin.
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the nurse is interviewing a client with a history of physical aggression. which should the nurse avoid?
While interviewing a client with history of physical aggression, the nurse should avoid: (B) Explaining the consequences the client will face if control is lost.
Physical aggression is the resultant of anger where a person tends to harm the other person physically that may include beating, biting, hitting, kicking, etc. The physical aggression is usually due to fear, anxiety or stress.
Anger is the emotional state of an individual that emerges due to dislike or annoyance. It is the expression of negative feelings towards a person or situation. Anger is further divided into various forms like: passive, open and assertive.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
The nurse is interviewing a client with a history of physical aggression. Which should the nurse avoid?
A) Anticipating that a loss of control is possible and planning accordingly
B) Explaining the consequences the client will face if control is lost
C) Interviewing the client with another staff member present
D) Responding to verbal threats by terminating the interview and obtaining assistance
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which action would the nurse be responsible for during a lumbar puncture procedure for an 18-month-old toddler?
Answer:
Explanation:
During a lumbar puncture procedure (also known as a spinal tap), the nurse would be responsible for several actions to ensure the safety and comfort of the 18-month-old toddler, including:
Preparing the equipment and supplies needed for the procedure, such as sterile needles, tubing, and local anesthetic.
Assessing the toddler's vital signs, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and oxygen saturation, to ensure they are stable before and after the procedure.
Positioning the toddler correctly on the examination table to access the lumbar area, usually on their side with their knees flexed up towards the abdomen.
Administering local anesthetic to the area where the needle will be inserted to minimize pain and discomfort for the toddler.
Assisting the healthcare provider during the procedure by holding the toddler still and providing emotional support.
Monitoring the toddler for any signs of adverse reactions or complications during and after the procedure.
Documenting the procedure, including the date, time, and any observations made during the procedure.
Educating the parents and caregivers on how to care for the toddler after the procedure and what to expect.
It's important to mention that the nurse must be knowledgeable about the procedure, the indications, and the potential complications that may arise during the procedure.
to ensure a safe environment for a child admitted to the hospital for a craniotomy to remove a brain tumor, the nurse would include which in the plan of care?
Initiating the seizure precautions is the plan to care for a child who is having a brain tumor.
A brain tumor is an abnormal mass or growth of cells in the brain. There are different types of the brain tumors. Some brain tumors are noncancerous (benign) and some brain tumors are cancerous. Surgery in which a small hole is made in the skull or a piece of bone is removed from the skull to expose part of the brain. A craniotomy can be done to remove the brain tumor or a sample of brain tissue. After craniotomy, the bone flap heals over time and partially heals back into the rest of the skull within 2-3 months. Full recovery may take several months and depends on the underlying disease being treated
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the nurse is caring for a patient who sustained a major burn. what serious gastrointestinal disturbance should the nurse monitor for that frequently occurs with a major burn?
The patient being cared for by the nurse has suffered severe burns. Paralytic ileus is a dangerous gastrointestinal disorder that nurses should keep an eye out for because it commonly coexists with a large burn.
A frequent side effect of severe burns is gastrointestinal problems. Injury to GI function, particularly to GI barrier function, is a significant initiator as well as a stimulant for the incidence of sepsis, multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS), and systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) after severe burns. A number of innovative therapies, such as fluid resuscitation, early escharotomy, continuous renal replacement therapy, and administration of glutamine and growth factor, have been adopted in the treatment of severe burns as a result of advances in our understanding of GI function and changes in clinical treatment patterns over the past 30 years. The novel treatments are effective in preventing and treating GI dysfunction after severe burns.
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a sports magazine reports that the mean number of hot dogs sold by hot dog vendors at a certain sporting event is equal to 150. a random sample of 50 hot dog vendors was selected, and the mean number of hot dogs sold by the vendors at the sporting event was 140. for samples of size 50, which of the following is true about the sampling distribution of the sample mean number of hot dogs sold by hot dog vendors at the sporting event?
Answer:
The sampling distribution of the sample means the number of hot dogs sold by hot dog vendors at the sporting event is approximately average, with a mean of 150 and a standard deviation of (standard deviation of the population/square root of sample size). The sample means of 140 falls within this normal distribution, and since the sample size is 50, it is likely that the sample mean is not equal to the population means.
Explanation:
the anticholinesterase medication pyridostigmine is prescribed for the client with myasthenia gravis. when providing medication teaching, the nurse explains that the client should expect a decrease in which function?
The immune system blocks or harms these acetylcholine receptors in the majority of myasthenic gravis patients.
What is Myasthenic gravis?
Myasthenia gravis is characterized by weakness and quick exhaustion of any of the muscles you can control voluntarily. It results from a breakdown in the regular transmission of information between neurons and muscles.The signs and symptoms of myasthenia gravis, which include muscle weakness in the arms or legs, double vision, drooping eyelids, and issues speaking, chewing, swallowing, and breathing, can be lessened with treatment, while there is no known cure for the condition.A few symptoms of Bell's palsy and myasthenia gravis (MG) are similar. But each of them has a unique set of underlying conditions. MG is an autoimmune condition that causes the muscles you can freely control to weaken.To learn more about myasthenic gravis refer to:
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