Which of the following is not an application of PCR?
O I. Amplifying DNA molecules
O II. Amplifying RNA molecules
O III. Synthesis of protein
O IV. Genome sequencing

Answers

Answer 1

Synthesis of protein is not an application of PCR. So, option III is appropriate.

PCR, or Polymerase Chain Reaction, is a widely used technique in molecular biology that allows for the amplification of specific DNA sequences. It is a powerful tool that enables researchers to generate millions or even billions of copies of a target DNA segment, making it easier to analyze and study.

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) is a powerful molecular biology technique used for amplifying DNA molecules. It is not used for directly amplifying RNA molecules or synthesizing proteins. PCR allows for the selective amplification of specific DNA sequences, making it valuable in applications such as DNA cloning, genetic testing, forensic analysis, and diagnostic assays. Genome sequencing, on the other hand, involves determining the complete DNA sequence of an organism's genome and is a separate process from PCR.

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Related Questions

what are the likely applications of both immunochromatography and Latex agglutination?
what are 1 limitation of each method?

Answers

Immunochromatography is a technique that is used for detecting the presence of proteins and other substances in biological samples. Some likely applications of immunochromatography are:1. Pregnancy test.

This test utilizes immunochromatography to detect the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (h CG) in urine samples to confirm pregnancy.2. Diagnosis of infectious diseases: Immunochromatography is used to detect specific antigens or antibodies in patient samples to diagnose diseases like HIV, malaria, and streptococcal infections.3. Drug testing: Immunochromatography is also used for drug screening in forensic and clinical laboratories. One limitation of immunochromatography is that it is not as sensitive as other methods such as enzyme-linked immunosorbent assays (ELISA) and polymerase chain reaction (PCR).Latex agglutination is a diagnostic technique that is used to detect the presence of antigens and antibodies in biological samples. Some likely applications of latex agglutination are:1. Blood typing: Latex agglutination is used to identify different blood groups by detecting specific antigens present on red blood cells.2. Diagnosis of infectious diseases: Latex agglutination is used to diagnose bacterial and viral infections by detecting specific antigens in patient samples.3. Detection of autoimmune diseases: Latex agglutination is used to detect autoantibodies in patient samples to diagnose autoimmune diseases like rheumatoid arthritis.One limitation of latex agglutination is that it requires the preparation of specific latex beads for each antigen or antibody being detected, which can be time-consuming and expensive.

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signal transduction- yeast genetics
In one sentence, what is the URA3- to URA3+ conversion with plasmid transformation? Why is it necessary to do this first?

Answers

In yeast genetics, the URA3-to-URA3+ conversion is the use of plasmid transformation to introduce a plasmid containing the URA3+ gene into a strain lacking the URA3 gene that allows yeast to grow on media lacking uracil, which is necessary to do first to select for yeast containing the plasmid due to its ability to grow on media lacking uracil.

URA3 is a gene present in the yeast cell and involved in the synthesis of uracil and pyrimidine nucleotides. It encodes or produces or codes for or creates an enzyme or protein that converts or changes or turns uracil into an essential nucleotide for the cell's growth.URA3 gene deletion has been used extensively in genetic manipulations in yeast for the following reasons:

It is a simple method of introducing targeted gene deletions or modifications.It can be used to knock out or remove or delete any gene from the yeast genome, provided that the strain is URA3-positive.Its utilization allows for the creation of new strains or mutants with specific properties or features.It serves as a selective marker for the transformation of plasmids into yeast cells.

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Which is FALSE about the structure of DNA? DNA is a double helix structure. A and U pair together, C and G pair together. DNA consists of a sugar backbone and nucleotide bases. Strands run in an anti-parallel direction.

Answers

The statement which is FALSE about the structure of DNA is: A and U pair together. DNA is composed of two strands that intertwine to form a double helix structure.

It consists of nucleotides which are made up of a sugar molecule (deoxyribose), a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base (adenine, guanine, cytosine, or thymine).The nitrogenous bases always pair together in a specific way, with adenine always bonding with thymine and guanine always bonding with cytosine. This is known as complementary base pairing and is responsible for maintaining the stability and accuracy of DNA replication.In RNA, the nitrogenous base uracil replaces thymine and binds with adenine instead. Therefore, the statement "A and U pair together" is false about the structure of DNA. A and U pair together only in RNA instead of DNA. Hence, this is the false statement regarding the structure of DNA.

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In their famous experiment, Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase concluded that DNA, not protein, is the genetic material. This conclusion was drawn from two complementary experiments: one with radioactive sulphur (S) and one with radioactive phosphorus (P). a) What conclusion could have been drawn if only radioactive P was used (not also radioactive S)? b) What conclusion could have been drawn if only radioactive S was used (not also radioactive P)? [2 marks]

Answers

The results of the two experiments, they were able to definitively show that DNA was responsible for the transmission of genetic information.

a) If only radioactive phosphorus (P) was used and not radioactive sulfur (S), the conclusion that could have been drawn is that DNA, which contains phosphorus, is the genetic material. This is because radioactive phosphorus would label the DNA molecules, allowing the researchers to track the location of the radioactive material. If the radioactive phosphorus was found in the progeny of the infected bacteria, it would suggest that DNA was passed on and therefore is the genetic material.

b) If only radioactive sulfur (S) was used and not radioactive phosphorus (P), the conclusion that could have been drawn is that proteins, which contain sulfur but not phosphorus, are the genetic material. This is because the radioactive sulfur would label the protein molecules, allowing the researchers to track their location. If the radioactive sulfur was found in the progeny of the infected bacteria, it would suggest that proteins were passed on and therefore are the genetic material.

However, it's important to note that Hershey and Chase's experiment used both radioactive phosphorus and radioactive sulfur to demonstrate that DNA, not protein, is the genetic material. By comparing the results of the two experiments, they were able to definitively show that DNA was responsible for the transmission of genetic information.

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describe lysogenic conversion and its significance
[10]

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Lysogenic conversion is a phenomenon in which a bacteriophage integrates its genetic material into the genome of its bacterial host, resulting in the transfer of new genes and traits to the bacterium.

Lysogenic conversion occurs when a temperate bacteriophage infects a bacterial cell and integrates its genetic material, called a prophage, into the bacterial genome. Unlike the lytic cycle, where the bacteriophage immediately lyses the host cell to release new viral particles, the prophage remains dormant within the bacterial chromosome. During this latent phase, the prophage is replicated along with the bacterial DNA during cell division.

Lysogenic conversion is significant because it allows for the transfer of new genetic material to the bacterial host. The integrated prophage can carry genes that encode for specific virulence factors or other advantageous traits. These genes can alter the behavior, metabolism, or pathogenicity of the bacterial host, enabling it to adapt to new environments, evade the host immune system, or enhance its ability to cause disease. Lysogenic conversion has been observed in various pathogenic bacteria, such as Vibrio cholerae, which acquires genes encoding cholera toxin through lysogeny, contributing to the severity of cholera infections.

Overall, lysogenic conversion plays a crucial role in bacterial evolution and the acquisition of virulence factors, providing a mechanism for bacteria to acquire new traits that can enhance their survival and pathogenic potential.

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1) What are the three stages/processes of a typical cell cycle (including all the events within each stage)? From beginning (prep), to completion (splitting into new identical cells) Answer: 2) What are the three stages of interphase? What happens in each stage? Answer: 3) What happens with DNA (chromatid) during S phase? Answer: 4) During prophase how many replicated chromosomes are in the cell? Answer: 5) During anaphase how many chromosomes are in the cell? Answer: 6) What is a chromatid? Answer: 7) In cell division, you start with one parent cell, what is produced at the end of cytokinesis? Answer: 8) What are the major differences between animal and plant mitosis? Answer:

Answers

1) The three stages/processes of a typical cell cycle (including all the events within each stage) are as follows:i. Interphase- During this stage, the cell prepares for the division. The interphase is further divided into G1, S, and G2 phases.ii. Mitosis - In this stage, the cell divides into two identical daughter cells. Mitosis is also divided into different sub-stages such as prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase.iii. Cytokinesis - In this stage, the cell divides into two identical daughter cells completely.2) The three stages of interphase are as follows:G1 Phase - This phase is responsible for cell growth and metabolic activitiesS Phase - In this phase, DNA replication occursG2 Phase - This phase ensures the cell is ready for mitosis3) During S-phase, the DNA or chromatid replicates, resulting in the formation of identical chromatids or sister chromatids.

4) During prophase, there are replicated chromosomes in the cell.5) During anaphase, the cell has twice as many chromosomes as there are in G1 phase, and the chromosomes move towards opposite poles.6) A chromatid is one-half of the replicated chromosome that is joined to another chromatid at the centromere.7) At the end of cytokinesis, two identical daughter cells are produced.8) The major differences between animal and plant mitosis are as follows:Animal mitosis - In animal mitosis, the cell membrane constricts inwards, forming a cleavage furrow that separates the two daughter cells.Plant mitosis - In plant mitosis, the cell plate forms at the center of the cell and divides the cell into two equal halves.

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Teacher mentioned William James (the father of modern psychology) who defined ‘Attention’ by stating ‘Every one knows what attention is, ….’. What is his definition? Why did we (psychologists) still use the definition now?

Answers

William James defined attention as "the taking possession by the mind, in clear and vivid form, of one out of what seem several simultaneously possible objects or trains of thought."

William James' definition of attention emphasizes the selective nature of our focus, where the mind chooses to concentrate on a specific object or train of thought while disregarding others. This definition is still used by psychologists today because it captures the fundamental aspects of attention, such as the ability to filter and prioritize information.

James' definition highlights the cognitive process of actively directing our mental resources, enhancing our awareness and perception of the selected stimuli. It also recognizes the limited capacity of attention and the need for conscious control to allocate attentional resources effectively.

Despite advancements in our understanding of attention and its underlying neural mechanisms, James' definition remains relevant because it captures the subjective experience of attention and provides a conceptual framework for studying attentional processes. It serves as a foundation for further research and theoretical developments in the field of psychology.

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a) Compare the mechanisms of nucleotide excision repair in E.coli and human cells. Discuss the mechanistic differences between transcription coupled repair and global genome repair in both organisms.

Answers

In both organisms, E.coli and human cells, NER involves the recognition and removal of damaged DNA segments followed by DNA synthesis and ligation. However, the key difference lies in the additional process called transcription-coupled repair (TCR) that occurs in human cells.

In E. coli, NER operates globally throughout the genome to repair DNA damage. It involves the recognition of lesions by UvrA and UvrB proteins, followed by the recruitment of UvrC and UvrD for excision and DNA synthesis.

However, in human cells, in addition to global genome repair (GGR), TCR is employed to specifically repair DNA lesions that obstruct the progression of RNA polymerase during transcription.

TCR involves the recruitment of additional proteins such as CSA, CSB, and XAB2, which facilitate the removal of the stalled RNA polymerase and subsequent repair.

These mechanistic differences reflect the need for efficient repair of transcription-blocking DNA lesions in human cells, which is not observed in E. coli. TCR allows for the preferential repair of lesions in transcribed regions, ensuring the maintenance of genomic integrity during active transcription.

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Why do many diseases caused by bacteria and viruses last only 7-10 days?

Answers

Many diseases caused by bacteria and viruses last only 7-10 days due to various factors related to the immune response and the life cycle of the pathogens.

Firstly, the immune system plays a crucial role in fighting off infections. When the body is exposed to a pathogen, the immune system activates an immune response, including the production of specific antibodies and immune cells, such as T cells and B cells. These immune components work together to eliminate the invading pathogens and clear the infection. This coordinated immune response typically takes several days to effectively control and eliminate the pathogens from the body.

Secondly, bacteria and viruses have their own life cycles. During an infection, these pathogens replicate and spread within the host's body. However, their replication is not unlimited, and they eventually reach a peak level of infection. At this point, the immune response, along with other defense mechanisms in the body, starts to effectively control the infection and reduce the pathogen load. As a result, the symptoms of the disease start to improve, and the infection begins to resolve.

It is important to note that the duration of an infection can vary depending on several factors, including the specific pathogen, the individual's immune response, and the overall health of the person. In some cases, certain infections may last longer than 7-10 days or become chronic if the immune response is unable to completely eliminate the pathogen.

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Answer these discussion questions.
Topic # 1: Plant growth hormone and chemical complementation: Plant scientists postulate that a new class of plant growth hormones may control Arabidopsis growth. To confirm their idea, the scientists knock out a gene in Arabidopsis wildtype Ler-0 (Landsberg erecta) and succeed in generating a stunted mutant they call de-etiolated2 (det2). Using a purified form of the hormone "brassinosteroid," they rescue the mutant’s phenotype such that it is indistinguishable from Ler-0. What are the geneticists to make of their observations?
Topic #2: Plant flowering time control: Plants sense day length to determine the appropriate time for flowering. This is controlled mainly be phytochrome and its conversion from one for to another. Describe how this process works.

Answers

Plant growth hormone and chemical complementation: In the research, scientists discovered that a new class of plant growth hormones may control Arabidopsis growth. To confirm their idea, the scientists knocked out a gene in Arabidopsis wildtype Ler-0 (Landsberg erecta) and generated a stunted mutant called de-etiolated2 (det2).

Topic #1: The researchers applied a purified form of the hormone "brassinosteroid" and succeeded in rescuing the phenotype of the mutant to the point where it was indistinguishable from Ler-0.The researchers were able to confirm that the hormone “brassinosteroid” controls Arabidopsis growth and development, as well as serving as a chemical complement. The hormone helped to rescue the mutant’s phenotype, which was significantly stunted when compared to the wildtype Ler-0. The scientists were able to make observations about the control and growth of Arabidopsis, showing that plant growth hormones can control the growth of Arabidopsis and complement the function of genes.

Topic #2: Plant flowering time control:Plants sense day length in order to determine when it is appropriate to flower. This is mostly regulated by phytochrome and its conversion from one form to another.Phytochromes are photoreceptors that plants use to detect light. They exist in two different interconvertible forms, Pr and Pfr. The Pr form absorbs red light at around 660 nm, whereas the Pfr form absorbs far-red light at around 730 nm. When a plant is exposed to light, the phytochromes absorb either red or far-red light, and then they are interconverted from one form to the other, depending on the type of light absorbed.

Photoperiodism involves a complex signaling pathway that detects changes in day length, which is ultimately translated into the appropriate developmental response. The duration of the night is sensed by the phytochrome pigments, which can then control the production of flowering hormones in the plant.

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Is a Ventricular Assist Device or VAD is the most recommended
way to treat heart diseases, if not, then what is the most
recommended way to treat heart disease?

Answers

A Ventricular Assist Device (VAD) is indeed a recommended treatment option for certain heart conditions, but it is not the most commonly recommended treatment for all heart diseases.

The most appropriate treatment for heart disease depends on the specific diagnosis, severity of the condition, and individual patient factors.

Here are some commonly recommended treatment approaches for various heart diseases:

Lifestyle modifications: For milder forms of heart disease, lifestyle changes may be the initial approach. This can include adopting a heart-healthy diet, regular exercise, smoking cessation, stress management, and weight management.

Medications: Medications are commonly prescribed to manage heart disease. The specific drugs prescribed will depend on the type of heart disease and its underlying causes. Common medications include beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, statins, antiplatelet drugs, and diuretics, among others.

Percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI): PCI is a minimally invasive procedure used to treat blocked or narrowed coronary arteries. It involves the use of a catheter to place stents in the arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. PCI is commonly performed in cases of coronary artery disease or heart attacks.

Coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG): CABG is a surgical procedure that involves bypassing blocked or narrowed coronary arteries using grafts taken from other blood vessels in the body. It is typically recommended for more severe cases of coronary artery disease.

Cardiac rehabilitation: Cardiac rehabilitation programs help individuals with heart disease improve their overall cardiovascular health through supervised exercise, education, and lifestyle counseling.

Heart transplantation: In cases where heart disease is severe and cannot be effectively managed by other treatments, heart transplantation may be considered. This involves replacing the diseased heart with a healthy heart from a donor.

It's important to note that the best treatment approach for a specific individual should be determined by a qualified healthcare professional who considers the patient's unique circumstances and medical history.

Treatment recommendations may vary based on the type and stage of heart disease, overall health, and individual preferences.

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The official sequencing of the human genome began in 1990 and took 13 years to finish. The composition of the genome was a big surprise regarding the percentage of the human genome containing coding genes. What was the surprise and provide three different types of non-coding DNA that were found in the human genome?

Answers

The surprise was that coding genes constitute only a small fraction of the human genome. It was found that only around 2% of the human genome encodes proteins.

The rest of the genome is composed of non-coding DNA. Some examples of non-coding DNA found in the human genome are as follows:1. Introns: These are the segments of DNA that lie between coding regions in a gene and are transcribed into RNA but are ultimately spliced out during RNA processing.2. Regulatory DNA: These sequences control when and how genes are expressed.

They include promoter regions, enhancers, and silencers.3. Transposable Elements: These are DNA sequences that can move around the genome.

They were once thought to be "junk DNA" but are now known to have important functions in gene regulation and evolution.

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Hi there. I'm having some difficulty wrapping my head around this question and some help would be great!
a) How is it possible that an mRNA in a cell can be found throughout the cytoplasm but the protein it encodes for is only found in a few specific regions? What type of regulation would this be?

Answers

There are various ways that the location of a protein can be regulated. One such way is post-transcriptional regulation which allows for the regulation of protein levels by regulating mRNA stability, translation initiation and mRNA localization throughout the cytoplasm.

The mRNA molecules are not the only molecules to be regulated post-transcriptionally. Small non-coding RNAs and microRNAs may also regulate gene expression by binding to specific mRNA targets. This mechanism provides another level of regulation, which may be exploited to develop novel therapies for genetic diseases.

Once an mRNA molecule is produced, it can be regulated through various mechanisms, such as alternative splicing, which is the process of making different transcripts from the same gene.

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You can use your understanding of the nature of science to evaluate ongoing environmental issues. For example, the Montreal Protocol's phase-out of CFCs was made possible by the availability of working alternatives, But do these alternatives come with unacceptable trade-offs? The hydrocholorfluorocharbons (HCFCs) and hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs) that have largely replaced CFCs for industrial purposes don't damage stratospheric ozone, but it turns out they do have a negative impact on the environment. Should they now be phased out, too? Search the library or Intemet for information about the drawbacks of HCFCs and HFCs. 1. Are HCFCs and HFCs good altematives to CFCs with regard to stratospheric ozone depletion? 2. What environmental problems are associated with the use of HCFCs and HFCs? 3. What is your position on a possible ban of both of these chemicals? Support your answer and Cite your source(s) of information. We are a non-science majors class so any citation format is fine. just list it.

Answers

1) HCFCs and HFCs are considered better alternatives to CFCs in terms of stratospheric ozone depletion.

2)  Both HCFCs and HFCs are potent greenhouse gases (GHGs) that contribute to global warming.

3) Transitioning to more environmentally friendly alternatives with lower GWPs and improved energy efficiency would be a prudent step to mitigate these issues.

What are the HCFCs?

Strong greenhouse gases (GHGs) that contribute to global warming include HCFCs and HFCs. In comparison to carbon dioxide (CO2), HFCs have a higher warming effect per unit of mass due to their high global warming potential (GWP) values. The usage of these substances in more applications has accelerated climate change and global warming.

Considering the harmful effects HCFCs and HFCs have on the environment, I believe a phase-out of these chemicals would be an acceptable course of action. Even if they have been essential in halting ozone depletion, their impact on global warming and climate change cannot be disregarded.

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HCFCs and HFCs are considered better alternatives to CFCs with regard to stratospheric ozone depletion, as they do not contain chlorine atoms. However, they have negative environmental impacts as potent greenhouse gases, contributing to global warming and climate change. Therefore, a phased-out ban on HCFCs and HFCs, with a transition to more environmentally friendly alternatives, is necessary to address these concerns and promote a sustainable future.

1. HCFCs (hydrochlorofluorocarbons) and HFCs (hydrofluorocarbons) are considered better alternatives to CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons) with regard to stratospheric ozone depletion. Unlike CFCs, HCFCs and HFCs do not contain chlorine atoms, which are the main contributors to ozone depletion. Therefore, the use of HCFCs and HFCs has helped in reducing the damage to the ozone layer.

2. However, HCFCs and HFCs do have negative environmental impacts. They are potent greenhouse gases that contribute to global warming and climate change.

Their emissions have a high global warming potential, meaning they trap heat in the atmosphere more effectively than carbon dioxide. This can lead to increased temperatures, altered weather patterns, and other adverse effects on ecosystems and human health.

3. Considering the negative environmental impact of HCFCs and HFCs, there is growing support for their phased-out and replacement with more environmentally friendly alternatives.

Many countries and international agreements are already taking steps to reduce and eventually eliminate the use of these substances. The Kigali Amendment to the Montreal Protocol, for example, aims to phase down the production and consumption of HFCs worldwide.

My position is in favor of a ban on HCFCs and HFCs in the long run, in order to mitigate their negative environmental impact and address climate change concerns. The transition to safer alternatives and technologies that have lower or no impact on the ozone layer and contribute less to global warming is essential for the sustainable future of our planet.

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Listen In an organism that reproduces asexually, offspring are genetically identical to the parent reflect combinations of genes from both par are unlikely to ever reproduce themselves will always reproduce sexually

Answers

In an organism that reproduces asexually is option 1. Offspring are genetically identical to the parent.

1. Offspring are genetically identical to the parent: This statement is correct. Asexual reproduction is a method of reproduction that does not involve the fusion of gametes. It results in the production of offspring that are genetically identical or clones of the parent, as they inherit an identical set of genes.

2. Reflect combinations of genes from both parents: This statement is incorrect. Asexual reproduction does not involve the contribution of genetic material from two parents. Unlike sexual reproduction, there is no recombination of genes, and the offspring do not reflect combinations of genes from both parents.

3. Are unlikely to ever reproduce themselves:   This statement is incorrect. Many asexual organisms are capable of reproducing asexually and can generate offspring of their own without the need for sexual reproduction. Asexual reproduction can be a successful and prevalent reproductive strategy in certain organisms.

4. Will always reproduce sexually: This statement is incorrect. Asexual reproduction can occur independently of sexual reproduction and does not involve the fusion of gametes from different individuals.

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The complete question is:

In an organism that reproduces asexually,

1. offspring are genetically identical to the parent

2. reflect combinations of genes from both parents

3. are unlikely to ever reproduce themselves

4. will always reproduce sexually

Muscle cells need ATP to function. Briefly explain why muscle cells use different metabolic fuels for different levels of activity (10 marks)

Answers

Muscle cells utilize various metabolic fuels for different levels of activity due to the varying demands of energy production.

Muscle cells require a constant supply of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) to carry out their functions. ATP serves as the energy currency for cellular processes, including muscle contraction. However, the amount of ATP required by muscle cells can vary depending on the level of activity.

During low-intensity activities such as resting or light exercise, muscle cells primarily rely on oxidative metabolism. This process involves the breakdown of glucose or fatty acids through aerobic respiration, resulting in the production of ATP. This fuel choice is efficient and allows for sustained energy production.

On the other hand, during high-intensity activities such as intense exercise or rapid movements, muscle cells require a rapid and substantial energy supply. To meet this demand, muscle cells switch to anaerobic metabolism.

This metabolic pathway involves the breakdown of glucose in the absence of oxygen, leading to the production of ATP through glycolysis. While anaerobic metabolism generates ATP quickly, it is less efficient and can only sustain energy production for short durations.

The utilization of different metabolic fuels by muscle cells ensures that they can adapt to varying energy requirements. By employing oxidative metabolism during low-intensity activities, muscle cells can efficiently produce ATP and maintain sustained energy production.

In contrast, the shift to anaerobic metabolism during high-intensity activities allows for rapid ATP production, although it is less efficient and suitable for short bursts of energy. This metabolic flexibility enables muscle cells to meet the demands of different levels of activity.

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Which organisms would be the most closely related? OTwo that share the same Family Two that share the same Class Two that share the same Kingdom OTwo that share the same genus

Answers

The organisms that would be the most closely related are two that share the same genus. Genus is the second last level of classification. This is why it is more specific than the previous classifications which are Kingdom, Phylum, Class, and Order.

These levels group organisms based on their similarities in the general sense, and the categories get more and more specific as the classifications continue. Each genus consists of a group of species that are closely related and share a common ancestor. The organisms that share the same genus have the same fundamental characteristics such as morphology and genetics. For instance, lions and tigers belong to the same genus which is Panthera.

The organisms that share the same family, class, and kingdom, but not the same genus, will still share common features and traits, but their differences will be more pronounced compared to those organisms that share the same genus. For instance, humans and apes belong to the same family (Hominidae), class (Mammalia), and kingdom (Animalia), but they are in different genera, and therefore are different species.

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Module 6.3: Bone Formation: Ossification The formation of bone, known as ossification, is discussed in this module. When you complete it, you should be able to do the following: 1. Explain the differences between primary and secondary bone. 2. Describe the process of intramembranous ossification. 3. Describe the process of endochondral ossification.

Answers

Primary bone differs from secondary bone due to its structure (1), intramembranous ossification implies an aggregation of osteoblast and ossification (2), while endochondral ossification implies the formation of cartilage first (3).

How does ossification occur?

Part 1:

Primary bone forms during fetal development or after a bone lesion occurs. It is made of collagen fibers.Secondary bone replaces primary bone and it has organized collagen fibers making it much more resistant.

Part 2: this process includes:

Mesenchymal cell aggregate and differentiation into osteoblastThe osteoid which is a framework is formed and minerals such as calcium deposit.Blood vessels develop and calcification continues

Part 3:

Mesenchymal cells change to chondroblast and from hyaline cartilageThe cartilage grows and calcification beginsBlood vessels developThe marrow cavity is formed and osteoblast deposit bone tissue.

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Which of the following cancer chemotherapeutic agents is
produced by a fungus? Group of answer choices
a. psilocybe
b. taxol
c. iturine
d. penicillin

Answers

Taxol is the cancer chemotherapeutic agent that is produced by a fungus. It is also known as paclitaxel.

Taxol is an anti-cancer chemotherapy drug used in the treatment of breast, ovarian, lung, bladder, prostate, and pancreatic cancers. It was originally derived from the bark of the Pacific yew tree.

Later on, the fungus Taxomyces andreanae, which grows on the Pacific yew tree, was discovered to be the actual source of taxol.Fungal metabolites have played a major role in developing drugs used in chemotherapy.

Other chemotherapeutic agents produced by fungi include iturine and griseofulvin. Penicillin is an antibiotic produced by the fungus Penicillium.

Psilocybe is a genus of fungi that contains species known for their hallucinogenic properties. However, it does not produce cancer chemotherapeutic agents.

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Why can gene duplication lead to so much important variation in gene families such as the globin genes? A.because any time a duplication occurs "good things" happen
B. because the duplicated copy is now free to evolve a new function
C. it can't.gene duplication is always bad D.this can only happen in genes that are not very important to the survival of the organism

Answers

Gene duplication can lead to significant variation in gene families, such as globin genes, as the duplicated copy is free to evolve new functions, increasing genetic diversity and  providing new adaptive advantages.

Gene duplication is a crucial mechanism in the evolution of gene families and the generation of genetic diversity. When a gene is duplicated, an extra copy of the gene is created in the genome. This duplicated copy is not subjected to the same selective pressures as the original gene and is therefore free to accumulate mutations and evolve new functions.

The duplicated gene copy can undergo various evolutionary processes, such as neofunctionalization or subfunctionalization. Neofunctionalization occurs when the duplicated copy acquires a completely new function that was not present in the original gene. This can result in the evolution of novel traits or biochemical activities.

On the other hand, subfunctionalization occurs when the duplicated copies divide the functions of the original gene between them. Each copy retains only a subset of the original functions, and this division of labor allows for functional specialization and potentially increased efficiency.

In the case of gene families like the globin genes, which play crucial roles in oxygen transport and storage, gene duplication has led to the evolution of multiple globin genes with specialized functions. Different globin genes have diversified to adapt to specific physiological conditions, such as oxygenation at different levels, in different tissues or developmental stages, or under different environmental conditions.

In summary, gene duplication provides opportunities for genetic variation and innovation by allowing duplicated gene copies to acquire new functions or divide existing functions. This process is crucial in the evolution of gene families like the globin genes, leading to the diversification and specialization of genes within the family, ultimately contributing to the adaptability and evolutionary success of organisms.

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True mendelian traits in humans mostly involve protein and enzyme production, blood types, etc., which are difficult to measure in a classroom setting. There are, however, certain easily observable characteristics that have long been used as examples of simple Mendelian traits. Most of these are actually polygenic, meaning they are controlled by more than one gene locus. The traits below are such polygenic traits. Each is affected by more than one gene locus. The different genes affect how strong or distinctive the trait appears, causing a continuous range of variation. However, the presence or absence of the trait often follows a Mendelian pattern. The difference is that among true Mendelian traits, two parents with a recessive trait cannot possibly have a child with a dominant trait. For the traits below, this is entirely possible, though not common. For each trait, circle Y if you express the trait, N if you do not. Cleft chin: acts as dominant-affected by up to 38 genes Y N Cheek Dimples: acts as dominant-affected by at least 9 genes Attached earlobes: acts as recessive-affected by up to 34 genes Freckles (face); acts as dominant-affected by up to 34 genes "Hitchhiker" thumb: acts as recessive-affected by at least 2 genes Widow's peak acts as dominant-affected by at least 2 genes

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Cleft chin: N, Cheek dimples: N, Attached earlobes: N, Freckles (face): N, "Hitchhiker" thumb: N and Widow's peak: Y

Among the listed polygenic traits, the presence or absence of certain characteristics follows a Mendelian pattern.

However, these traits are actually controlled by multiple gene loci, resulting in a continuous range of variation.

For cleft chin, cheek dimples, attached earlobes, freckles (face), "hitchhiker" thumb, and widow's peak, the expression of the trait can vary. In the case of cleft chin, cheek dimples, freckles, and widow's peak, the trait acts as dominant and is influenced by multiple genes.

Attached earlobes and "hitchhiker" thumb, on the other hand, act as recessive traits and are affected by multiple genes as well. Therefore, the presence or absence of these traits can vary among individuals.

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Arrange these parts of a neuron in an order that would receive, integrate, and transmit a signal to another cell. Dendrite Cell Body Synapse Axon Collateral

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Neurons are the building blocks of the nervous system, and the parts of a neuron are responsible for carrying out various functions. The dendrite, cell body, axon, collateral, and synapse are the five main components of a neuron. The dendrites are responsible for receiving signals from other neurons and transmitting them to the cell body.

The cell body, also known as the soma, integrates incoming signals and generates an output signal that travels along the axon. The axon is responsible for transmitting the signal to other cells, either neurons or muscle cells. The collateral is a branch of the axon that can transmit signals to multiple cells, allowing for the coordination of complex movements or behaviors. Finally, the synapse is the point at which the axon terminal of one neuron communicates with another neuron or muscle cell.

The order in which these parts of a neuron are arranged to receive, integrate, and transmit a signal to another cell is: dendrite, cell body, axon, collateral, synapse.

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Question 5 1 pts What is the effect of tryptophan and allolactose binding on the function of the trpR protein and the lacl protein respectively? The trpR protein binds the DNA when it is bound to tryptophan, but the lack protein binds the DNA when it is NOT bound to allolactose. The trpR protein binds the DNA when it is NOT bound to tryptophan, and the lacl protein binds the DNA when it is NOT bound to allolactose. The trpR protein does NOT bind the DNA when it is bound to tryptophan, but the lacl protein binds the DNA when it is bound to allolactose. The trpR protein binds the DNA when it is bound to tryptophan, and the lacl protein binds the DNA when it is bound to allolactose.

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The effects of tryptophan and allolactose binding on the function of the trpR protein and the lacI protein are that they both undergo structural changes that enable them to carry out their regulatory functions.

Tryptophan and allolactose are effector molecules that bind to the regulatory proteins trpR and lacI, respectively. These effector molecules cause conformational changes in their regulatory proteins which allow them to bind to DNA. The trpR protein undergoes an allosteric change when it binds to tryptophan, allowing it to bind to the operator site on the trp operon and thereby repressing transcription.

This process is called repression. The lacI protein undergoes an allosteric change when it binds to allolactose, which prevents it from binding to the operator site on the lac operon. As a result, the transcription of genes that are involved in lactose metabolism is induced. This process is called induction.

Therefore, the correct option is "The trpR protein binds the DNA when it is bound to tryptophan, and the lacl protein binds the DNA when it is bound to allolactose."

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Describe the morphology of the cells the will give the following results in the following Osmotic Fragility tests: Inital Hemolysis Final hemolysis Cell Morphology a. 0.65 0.45 b. 0.35 0.20 c. 0.45 0.35 10. Performing a platelet estimate in a smear the results per field: 20, 22, 19, 18, 21, 17, 20, 19, 23, 21 The expected platelet count is:_ 11. If you have to perform a WBC count of a leukemic patient that his count usually runs approximately 200,000/ul. If you count the standard WBC area, which dilution should you use in order to get approximately 40 cells /square ?

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Osmotic fragility test is a type of lab test that evaluates how much hemolysis occurs to red blood cells when subjected to hypotonic salt solutions. The morphology of cells is essential for the osmotic fragility test. Therefore, this article discusses the morphology of cells that will give the following outcomes in the osmotic fragility test. a. 0.65 0.45The cell morphology of this test result is spherocytosis.

The cells are more spherical and less flexible than normal cells and are susceptible to early destruction.b. 0.35 0.20The cell morphology of this test result is normal cells. The cells are resilient and maintain their structure in the hypotonic salt solutions.c. 0.45 0.35The cell morphology of this test result is elliptocytosis. The cells are more oval-shaped than the standard cells, and they tend to lyse early and are more susceptible to early destruction.10. Performing a platelet estimate in a smear the results per field: 20, 22, 19, 18, 21, 17, 20, 19, 23, 21 The expected platelet count is:The formula for estimating the platelet count is:Average number of platelets in 10 fields x 15,000Example:Average number of platelets per 10 fields = 20+22+19+18+21+17+20+19+23+21/10 = 199/10 = 19.9(0.9 is less than half, so we round it off to the lower number)Expected platelet count = 19 x 15,000= 285,00011. If you have to perform a WBC count of a leukemic patient that his count usually runs approximately 200,000/ul.

Therefore, to calculate the final volume,Total number of cells required = (Final volume x 40) / 200,000Final volume = (Total number of cells required x 200,000)/40Final volume = 5000 uL or 5 mL.

Therefore, the required dilution is 1:5 (0.1 mL of blood + 0.4 mL of diluent) which gives the required number of cells at 40 cells /square.

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Which procedure quantifies viable but not culturable bacterial cells? O Spectrophotometry readings O Direct light microscopy counts O Streaking for isolation Fluorescence microscopy with a live/dead stain O Dilution plating and CFU counts

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The procedure that quantifies viable but not culturable bacterial cells is fluorescence microscopy with a live/dead stain.

A viable bacterial cell is defined as one that is metabolically active and can maintain cellular integrity. A culturable bacterial cell, on the other hand, is one that is capable of growing and dividing on a solid culture medium. For a bacterial cell to be considered culturable, it must be able to form colonies on a solid growth medium.

The fluorescence microscopy technique with a live/dead stain is used to quantify viable but not culturable bacterial cells. This technique involves staining the cells with a fluorescent dye, which can differentiate between live and dead cells based on their metabolic activity. The live cells will fluoresce green, while the dead cells will fluoresce red or orange. The stained cells are then viewed under a fluorescence microscope, and the number of viable cells is counted based on their green fluorescence. This technique is useful for assessing the viability of bacteria in a variety of environments, including soil, water, and food products.

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A virus that has entered the lysogenic cycle: Cannot replicate its genome Can only replicate its genome when environmental conditions are favorable Replicates its genome when its host cell replicates Can only replicate its genome when it exits the lysogenic cycle and enters the lytic cycle

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A virus that has entered the lysogenic cycle: Cannot replicate its genome Can only replicate its genome when environmental conditions are favorable Replicates its genome when its host cell replicates Can only replicate its genome when it exits A virus that has entered the lysogenic cycle replicates its genome when its host cell replicates.

In the lysogenic cycle, a virus integrates its genetic material into the host cell's genome and remains dormant. During this phase, the virus does not immediately replicate its genome but instead relies on the host cell's replication machinery to replicate its genetic material along with the host's DNA. When the host cell undergoes replication, the viral genome is also replicated, allowing it to be passed on to daughter cells. Therefore, a virus in the lysogenic cycle replicates its genome when its host cell replicates.

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Describe the steps in meiosis and mitosis using the following terms: chromosome, chromatid, sister chromatid, homologous chromosomes, centromere, kinetochore, centrosome, centriole, tubulin, nuclear membrane, chiasmata, recombinant chromosomes, non recombinant chromosomes, haploid, diploid.

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Mitosis and meiosis are two distinct ways in which cells divide. Both mitosis and meiosis consist of several steps that are essential for the successful division of cells. Mitosis is the division of somatic cells that have been duplicated, while meiosis is the division of gamete cells. The mitosis process is a simple and straightforward process that comprises several steps.

During meiosis, a diploid cell divides into four haploid cells. Meiosis includes the following steps: prophase I, metaphase I, anaphase I, telophase I, cytokinesis I, prophase II, metaphase II, anaphase II, telophase II, and cytokinesis II. Prophase I is characterized by the formation of homologous pairs of chromosomes that line up together. The chromosomes intertwine and exchange genetic information through a process called crossing over, which creates recombinant chromosomes. The non-recombinant chromosomes, which have not undergone the crossing over process, are known as parental chromosomes. In metaphase I, the homologous chromosomes align at the center of the cell, while the spindle fibers attach to the kinetochore located at the centromere of each chromosome. In anaphase I, the spindle fibers shorten, and the homologous chromosomes separate and migrate towards the poles. Telophase I results in the formation of two nuclei, each containing a single chromosome of the homologous pair.

Cytokinesis results in the division of the cytoplasm, which gives rise to two daughter cells. The second round of meiosis is similar to mitosis, resulting in the formation of four haploid daughter cells. In summary, both mitosis and meiosis are essential processes that allow cells to divide and ensure the proper development and growth of an organism.

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A. Explain why it is important that an energy producing pathway contains at least one regulatory enzyme, you can use either glycolysis or TCA enzymes to discuss this answer B. The first step in glycolysis involves the conversion of glucose to glucose-6- phosphate. Briefly explain how this reaction occurs as it is an endergonic reaction. C. Why is it important that the cell has a number of different high-energy biomolecules?

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The presence of at least one regulatory enzyme in an energy producing pathway is crucial to ensure proper control and regulation of the pathway's activity. In glycolysis, the first step involves an endergonic reaction requiring the input of energy.

A. Regulatory enzymes play a vital role in energy producing pathways by controlling the rate of reactions and ensuring energy balance within the cell. These enzymes act as checkpoints, responding to signals and modulating the pathway's activity accordingly. By having at least one regulatory enzyme, the pathway can be fine-tuned, preventing excessive energy production or depletion. This regulation is crucial for maintaining cellular homeostasis and avoiding detrimental consequences such as energy wastage or energy deficiency.

B. In glycolysis, the initial step involves the conversion of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate. This reaction is considered endergonic because it requires the input of energy. Specifically, it utilizes one molecule of ATP to phosphorylate glucose, resulting in the formation of glucose-6-phosphate. This phosphorylation reaction requires the transfer of a phosphate group from ATP to glucose, and the breaking and formation of chemical bonds. The input of energy in the form of ATP allows this reaction to occur and drives the subsequent steps of glycolysis.

C. Having a variety of different high-energy biomolecules is essential for the cell's energy metabolism. It provides flexibility and diversity in energy sources, allowing the cell to adapt to varying conditions. Different biomolecules, such as glucose, fatty acids, and amino acids, can be metabolized to generate ATP through various pathways.

This diversity ensures that the cell can efficiently meet its energy demands under different physiological or environmental circumstances. Additionally, utilizing different energy sources helps prevent over-reliance on a single molecule, minimizing the risk of depletion or energy imbalance. Therefore, the presence of multiple high-energy biomolecules is vital for the cell's energy metabolism and overall functioning.

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cements ents ons During meiosis, chromosome 1 from mom and chromosome 1 from dad align as a pair because they are. a.homologous chromosomes b.soul-mate chromosomes
c. sister chromatids
d. centromeres

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During meiosis, chromosome 1 from mom and chromosome 1 from dad align as a pair because they are homologous chromosomes.  Option (A)

Homologous chromosomes are a pair of chromosomes that have similar genes in the same loci, one inherited from each parent. They have the same size, shape, and carry genes for the same traits, although they may have different alleles.

During meiosis, homologous chromosomes undergo synapsis, where they come together and align precisely to allow for crossing over and genetic recombination. This alignment and pairing of homologous chromosomes facilitate the exchange of genetic material and contribute to genetic diversity in offspring. Thus the correct option (a)

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A recording electrode inserted perpendicularly into the primary visual cortex finds that neurons within the same cortical column likely respond preferentially to: a. Cortical neurons at the surface respond to near objects and cortical neurons deep in the cortex respond to far objects b. cortical neurons arranged in columns do not typically respond similarly to the same stimulus c. a similar orientation of a light bar d. a similar color intensity of a light stimulus

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Option C is the correct answer.The recording electrode inserted perpendicularly into the primary visual cortex will likely find that neurons within the same cortical column respond preferentially to a similar orientation of a light bar.

The human visual cortex is organized into columns that respond selectively to the orientation and direction of stimuli in the visual field. Neurons within a column have a similar orientation selectivity and are arranged in an orderly fashion.The specific orientation of the light bar that a neuron responds to is determined by the organization of receptive fields of neurons in the visual cortex. These neurons have receptive fields that are specific to certain orientations and can detect edges and contours of objects in the visual field. Therefore, neurons within the same cortical column are likely to respond preferentially to a similar orientation of a light bar.Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

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