Which of the following is NOT a product of the light reaction?

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

all but the last one

Explanation:

Answer 2

NADH is not a product of the light reaction of photosynthesis.

 • The role of NAD+ is that it acts as an electron carrier.

 • NADH is formed from NAD when it oxidizes the compound by accepting electrons and adding hydrogen ions to the compound.

What do NADH mean?

 NADH stands for "Nicotinamide Adenine Dinucleotide (NAD) + Hydrogen (H)." This chemical occurs naturally in the body and plays a role in the chemical process that produces energy.People use NADH supplements as medicine.

Learn more about NADH here.

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Related Questions

During which phase of the cell cycle do chromatids form?

Answers

During the S phase hope that helped

The process of succession is necessary to maintain and establish stable communities. T or F

Answers

Answer: True it is necessary

Answer:

True

Explanation:

-Lab-
"Why are cells so small"​

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Because we need a lot of cells and if they were big only a small about would fit.

If it is accepted that the information for how a protein is intended to fold lies within its primary sequence, explain why a purified protein denatured in vitro might not be able to renature accurately.

Answers

Answer:

Denaturation and renaturation are properties of protein but in some cases denaturation is irreversible and protein is unable to renature.

The primary sequence of a protein determines which portion of protein fold closely together in order to form three-dimensional conformation and the conformations are held by hydrogen bonds.

Denaturation of protein in-vitro is generally obtained by increasing temperature. Heat or high temperature disrupts hydrogen bonds that held between protein folds because high temperature increases the kinetic energy and the bonds are disrupted due to rapid heating. Disruption of hydrogen bonds will change the 3D structure of the protein and denatured proteins lose its function.

Chemicals are also used to disrupt hydrogen bonds such as alcohol.

So, high temperature and chemicals denature protein by affecting the hydrogen bonds holding 3D shape of primary sequence in protein and the change in protein becomes irreversible.

How are lysosomes pro-nuclear dense bodies?

Answers

Answer:i hope this answers ur question

Explanation:

A single point mutation in a gene results in a nonfunctional protein. Individuals heterozygous for this mutation were identified using a Southern blot. Which pair of wild-type (WT) and mutant alleles most likely contains the mutation?
A. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTCGATGCTTAGGCATCT-3
B. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATAT-3
C. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTTGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
D. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3
Mutant 5-TAGTCCAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3

Answers

Answer:

C. WT 5-TAGTCGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3

Mutant 5-TAGTTGAAGCTTAGGCATCT-3

Explanation:

In the wild type, the DNA sequence encodes the following aminoacidic segment: SRSLGI; while the mutant form has a stop codon in the second codon (TGA). A stop codon is a trinucleotide sequence in the messenger RNA (mRNA) that indicates a stop signal in protein synthesis. There are three types of stop codons: UGA, UAG and UAA, where U represents Uracile in the mRNA instead of Thymine in the DNA sequence.

Representation:  

C. WT 5-T AGT CGA AGC TTA GGC ATC T-3 >> 5'3' Frame 1 = SRSLGI

Mutant 5-T AGT TGA AGC TTA GGC ATC T-3 >> 5'3' Frame 1 = S-, where - represents a stop codon (TGA) and therefore it is the end of the protein.

Some present-day bacteria use a system of anaerobic respiration characterized by an electron transport chain analogous to that found in aerobic organisms. Which of the following correctly characterizes the anaerobic electron transport chain?

a. It uses oxygen as a final electron acceptor.
b. It is embedded in the outer mitochondrial membrane rather than the inner mitochondrial membrane.
c. It establishes a proton gradient between the cytoplasm and the extracellular fluid.
d. It establishes a proton gradient between the intermembrane space and the cytoplasm.
e. None of these answer options accurately characterizes the anaerobic electron transport chain.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer would be:

Neither of these response options accurately features the anaerobic electron transport chain.

Explanation:

The anaerobic respiration system vibrated by an electron transport chain is a mechanism that anaerobic bacteria have to maintain their respiration.

This mechanism does not require oxygen in the atmosphere, that is why it is said to be an anaerobic mechanism.

Bacteria do not all need oxygen in the environment to live, some need that oxygen is not exactly present (strict anaerobes) or that it is at low partial pressures (facultative anaerobes).

This mechanism is very characteristic in its location since it is located in the inner membrane of the mitochondria, that is why it will decide to indicate that option as the correct one.

in humans unattached earlobes are dominant over attached earlobes. which could be the genotybe for someone with attached earlobs/Answer/a is Ee/b is e/c is ee/D is E

Answers

Answer:

C. ee

Explanation:

attached earlobes isn't the dominant trait, if it isn't dominant then it'll have lower case letters to represent it

Answer:

C

Explanation

hopes this helps :]

Rutherford tracked the motion of tiny, positively charged particles shot through a thin sheet of gold foil. Some particles traveled in a straight line and some were deflected at different angles. Which statement best describes what Rutherford concluded from the motion of the particles? Some particles traveled through empty spaces between atoms and some particles were deflected by electrons. Some particles traveled through empty parts of the atom and some particles were deflected by electrons. Some particles traveled through empty spaces between atoms and some particles were deflected by small areas of high-density positive charge in atoms. Some particles traveled through empty parts of the atom and some particles were deflected by small areas of high-density positive charge in atoms.

Answers

Answer:

Some particles traveled through empty parts of the atom and some particles were deflected by small areas of high-density positive charge in atoms.

Explanation:

Rutherford concluded from his experiment that there are empty spaces present in most parts of the atom while a heavy positive charge is present in the nucleus of an atom due to which the tiny positively charged particles deflects because of positive-positive charge repulsion. Most of positively charged particles passes undeflected which indicated the presence of empty spaces in the atoms. The electrons revolve around the nucleus have no effect on the deflection of positively charged particles.

Rutherford conducted a legendary experiment to determine atomic structure in which he bombarded a thin gold foil with alpha particles. In the aftermath of the experiment he concluded that; Some particles traveled through empty parts of the atom and some particles were deflected by small areas of high-density positive charge in atoms.

The gold foil experiment showed that the atom is composed of a massive core which contains positively charged particles.

This massive core is at the center of the atom surrounded by electrons that move in orbits. Hence, the resulting model of the atom was called the planetary model.

The deflected positively charged particles were deflected by this small area of high-density positive charge in atoms.  

Learn more: https://brainly.com/question/730256

The women has had two miscarriages. What is the chance that she could have a normal child? a. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in four; however, all of the normal children will be translocation carriers.b. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in two; however, all of the normal children will be translocation carriers.c. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in four; however, half of the normal children will be translocation carriers.d. The chance of a normal child is approximately one in two; however, half of the normal children will be translocation carriers

Answers

Dududjdudbdudjdbbrud

During which phase of mitosis do the nuclear membrane, nucleoli, nucleus dissolve

Answers

Answer:

Prophase stage

Hope this helps

a strand of mRNA has the bases adenine- cytosine- uracil which amino acid corresponds to these bases?

Answers

Answer:

Threonine

Explanation:

Using the amino acid chart, the mRNA strand ACU corresponds to the amino acid Threonine.

Answer:

thr

Explanation:

i did test

Colistin is an antibiotic used to treat infections in the bloodstream. Some bacteria are resistant to Colistin. Explain how these bacteria have become resistant to Colistin.

Answers

Answer:

They have adapted to it

Explanation:

The currently accepted model of the coeur laboratory you are observing skin cells labeled 'defective' to determine what is wrong with them. After careful observation you notice that the cytoskeleton is there, but the cell is still having trouble maintaining its shape. Infer what could be damaged.l membrane was discovered by

Answers

Answer:

Cell membrane

Explanation:

The cytoskeleton is known to be a kind of proteinous filaments which is found in the cytoplasm of organism but grow out to the cell membrane to give shape to the organism and likewise help in movement.

In the case highlighted above, the organism might still not be able to get a shape especially when the cell membrane is affected or being damaged.


Please describe the regulation of the blood glucose 6 hours after a meal?
Please include all relevant organs, hormones, and actions.

Answers

Answer:

Find the description below in the explanation section

Explanation:

The body system regulates the blood sugar level via the hand-in-hand working of insulin and glucagon hormones, both produced by the Pancreas. After a meal, the food undergoes digestion and is broken down into glucose, which is absorbed into the bloodstream. Insulin hormone is released by the pancreas (stimulated by a negative feedback) when the sugar level of the blood increases. This secretion of insulin causes cells to absorb glucose as source of energy, while liver and muscle cells store some of the excess blood glucose as GLYCOGEN.

However, after about 6 hours of taking the meal, the blood sugar (glucose) level must have decreased. This triggers the secretion of Glucagon hormone by the Pancreas. Glucagon hormone, acts in an opposite manner as Insulin hormone, by causing the stored GLYCOGEN in the liver and muscle cells to be converted back to Glucose in order for cells to make use of it.

This continuous process occurs and it is how the body regulates the blood glucose levels.

In 1668 Francesco Redi did a series of experiments on spontaneous generation. He began by putting similar pieces of meat into eight identical jars. Four jars were left open to the air, and four were sealed. He then did the same experiment with one variation: instead of sealing four of the jars completely, he covered them with gauze (the gauze will exclude the flies while allowing the meat to be exposed to air). In both experiments, he monitored the jars and recorded whether or not maggots (young flies) appeared in the meat.
Refer to the paragraph on Redi's experiments. In both experiments, fies appeared in all of the open jars and only in the open jars. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. The experiment was inconclusive because it did not nun long enough
B. The experiment supports the hypothesis that spontaneous generation occurs in rotting meat.
C. The expertment supports the hwpothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by adult flhes
D. The experiment was inconclusive because Redi used only one kind of meat

Answers

Answer:

The experiment supports the hypothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by adult flies; that is  only from reproduction and development.

Explanation:

The objective of this experimental set up by Francesco Radi  was to demonstrate the concept of spontaneous generation. He concluded that, Maggots are not spontaneous generated from rotten meats, rather they are products of eggs laid by houseflies who visited the rotten meat to lay eggs. The maggots (larva) are products of complete metamorphosis, from egg to larva to pupa and adult. This is an indication that, new organisms are not formed form spontaneously, but are products of well-defined process of reproduction and development which in this case is a  complete metamorphosis.

Based on this premise he concluded that, if maggots were products of  laid eggs, then they should appear only  when rotten meat is exposed to  open air.However,if they are f products of spontaneous generation they should appear irrespective of  the meat exposure to air or not.

At the neuromuscular junction, _______ must enter the synaptic end bulb to stimulate the release of ____________, which binds to ligand gates so ________ can enter the muscle fiber.

Answers

Answer:

At the neuromuscular junction, calcium must enter the synaptic end bulb to stimulate the release of acetylcholine, which binds to ligand gates so sodium ions can enter the muscle fiber.      

Explanation:

Skeletal fiber contractions are based on different physiological and biochemical phenomena that happen in every cell. These phenomena are due to stimulation produced by somatic motor neurons, which axons get in contact with muscle fibers through a neuromuscular synapse.  In rest, attraction strengths between myosin and actin filaments are inhibited by the tropomyosin. When an action potential is originated in the central nervous system, it travels to the somatic motor neuron membrane: the muscle fiber, and activates the calcium channels releasing it in the neuron. Calcium makes vesicles to fuse with the membrane and release the neurotransmitter named acetylcholine (Ach) into the synaptic space in the juncture. Then, Ach binds to its receptors on the skeletal muscle fiber. This causes the ion channels to open, and positively charged sodium ions cross the membrane to get into the muscle fiber (sarcoplasm) and potassium get out. The difference in charges caused by the migration of sodium and potassium makes the muscle fiber membrane to become more positively charged (depolarized). The action potential caused by this depolarization enters the t-tubules depolarizing the inner portion of the muscle fiber. This activates calcium channels in the T tubules membrane, that make the calcium be released into the sarcolemma. At this point, tropomyosin is obstructing binding sites for myosin on the thin filament. When calcium binds to the troponin C, the troponin T alters the tropomyosin by moving it and then unblocks the binding sites. Myosin binds to the uncovered actin-binding sites, and while doing it ATP is transformed into ADP and inorganic phosphate. Z-bands are then pulled toward each other, thus shortening the sarcomere and the I-band, and producing muscle fiber contraction.

Which type of mutation results in a frame shift mutation? Check all that apply? Substitute Insertion Deletion Point mutation

Answers

Answer: Insertion, Deletion

Explanation:

The frameshift mutation can be defined as a genetic mutation that is caused by the deletion or insertion of the DNA sequence or base pairs that shifts the sequence to be read. As a result of this the abnormal proteins are produced along with incorrect amino acid sequence that either shorter or longer than the normal protein.

maggots feed on dead and decaying organisms for energy. what are maggots

Answers

Answer:

Decomposers, or as they're alternatively known, detritovores.

Explanation:

Their job is to break down decaying/dead organic matter to recycle it into the soil for plants (mainly). Fungi and bacteria make up the vast majority of decomposers.

Suppose a plant breeder wants to isolate mutants in tomatoes that are defective in DNA repair. However, this breeder does not have the expertise or equipment to study enzymes in DNA repair systems.
Which methods would best allow the breeder to identify tomato plants that are deficient in DNA repair?
A) Expose putative DNA repair mutant plants to ionizing radiation L and see if they survive less well than wild-type plants.
B) Measure the amount of post-translational processing that occurs in the putative DNA repair mutant plants. Measure the somatic mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.
C) Expose the putative DNA repair mutant plants to a deaminating agent and select those that have a decreased mutation rate.
D) Measure the germ line spontaneous and induced mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.

Answers

The provided question has marked options incorrectely the correct order as follows:

A) Expose putative DNA repair mutant plants to ionizing radiation L and see if they survive less well than wild-type plants.

B) Measure the amount of post-translational processing that occurs in the putative DNA repair mutant plants.

C) Measure the somatic mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.

D) Expose the putative DNA repair mutant plants to a deaminating agent and select those that have a decreased mutation rate.

E) Measure the germline spontaneous and induced mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.

Answer:

The correct answer is: A), C) and E)

Explanation:

The breeder wants to isolate the mutants in tomatoes that are defective in DNA repair, to identify such plants breeder should follow these methods as they will allow best to identifying the defective tomatoes-

Measure the somatic mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.

Measure the germline spontaneous and induced mutation rates for the putative DNA repair mutant plants.

Expose putative DNA repair mutant plants to ionizing radiation L and see if they survive less well than wild-type plants.  This will allow the breeder to see and analyze the ability of DNA repair in tomatoes

Where does most of the phosphorus cycle take place?

Answers

It is mainly cycling through water, soil and sediments. In the atmosphere phosphorus can mainly be found as very small dust particles. Phosphorus moves slowly from deposits on land and in sediments, to living organisms, and than much more slowly back into the soil and water sediment.

What are the 5 steps of the phosphorus cycle?
Terms in this set (5)
1Weathering.
2Fertilizer. -Soil. -Direct Runoff.
3Excretion and Decomposition.
4Dissolved Phosphates (generally in ocean)
5Geologic Uplift.

Which gas is a major contributor to ocean acidification? A. oxygen B. sulfur dioxide C. carbon dioxide D. nitrogen

Answers

Answer:C, carbon dioxide.

Explanation:Carbon Dioxide reacts with water forming Carbonic acid. This acid increases the acidity of the ocean.

Answer:

Explanation: got it correct

3. Mutations that occur in the BPG binding cavity on deoxyhemoglobin can at times result in the substitution of lysine and histidine residues present with aspartic acid and phenylalanine residues. Explain how these changes would impact BPG binding to deoxyhemoglobin along with the impact it would have on oxygen transport with hemoglobin

Answers

Answer:

It affects the oxygenation of the tissues in a negative way, that is, causing tissue hypoxias.

Explanation:

What will happen is that BPG, having a different relationship with deoxyhemoglobin, hemoglobin will not give oxygen to organs or tissues during glycolysis at times when the sympathetic nervous system is activated or even in the maintenance of physiological tissue vitality, therefore it will trigger a drop in the partial pressure of the gas both in the blood and in the tissues since they will be retained in the hemoglobin structure without being able to release it.

How Can Regulation be Accomplished? Chemotaxis by Pseudomonas aeruginosa requires regulation of macromolecules in response to signals. Protein regulation is very important and can be grouped into two categories: those that are based on protein activity and those that are based on the amount of protein present ,write the type of regulation described that does not affect the amount of protein present.
1. regulating amount of mRNA made
2. catabolite repression
3. post-translational modification small RNA (sRNA) regulation regulation of transcription
4. attenuation controlling whether mRNA is translated

Answers

Answer:

3. post-translational modification small RNA (sRNA) regulation regulation of transcription

Explanation:

The post-translational modification does not affect the amount of protein present because this type of change is only done to the protein when the translation process has finished, and there is a protein as a result. After the translation, the final product can suffer modifications such as the addition of different components, or enzymatic modifications. In other words, they are chemical changes that the protein experiences that do not affect the amount of protein present.

Why would damage to the nervous tissue in the spinal cord lead to paralysis?
Damage results in the loss of signals to muscles to produce movement.
Damage results in the inability of the body to differentiate between voluntary and involuntary movement.
Damage results in the inability of the body to produce connective tissue to support movement.
Damage results in the decreased production of actin and myosin for contraction

Answers

Answer:

B. Damage results in the inability of the body to differentiate between voluntary and involuntary movement

Explanation:

Answer:

b

Explanation:

The function of the plasma membrane is....

Answers

Answer:

to protect the cell from it's surroundings

Explanation:

the plasma membrane is selectively permeable to ions and organic molecules and regulates the movement of substances in and out of cells

Explanation:

The primary function of the plasma membrane is to protect the cell from its surroundings.

Sorry if the ans is wrong

Which of the following is a known limiting factor for good nutrition

Answers

Answer:  

seems you forgot the "followings" but here are some known limiting factors

Explanation:

   Exercise,Physiology, Mindset, Nutrition and Genetics.

The largest taxon and consists of all the other taxis called

Answers

Answer:

Domain

Explanation:

who is Charles darwin​

Answers

Answer:

Charles Darwin came up with the theory of evolution.

Charles Darwin is a writer who wrote the book Orgin of species . He is the one that gave the idea of evolution . his proposition that all species of life have decended over time from common ancestors. He is a english naturalist, geologist and biologist

Which of these is an organism?

Answers

Answer:

A wolf...........

.......................

Answer:

I believe the answer is heart

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