Which of the following example(s) does NOT cause bias in a research study.
A) Measuring body temperature with an oral thermometer in half of subjects and an ear thermometer in others
B) Counting the number of firefighters at your house to predict if it will be destroyed
C) Using a set of standardized questions to measure food intake in children
D) Studying workers to see the effects of a new health care law on unemployed

Answers

Answer 1
(A) The internal body temperature can be taken from any area of the body without a difference in the type of temperature, resulting in NO bias. Of course this is completely reliant on the type of illness, but out of all options this is correct.

Illnesses affect the throat/mouth and ear.
checking the thermometer underneath a tongue will result in the same temperature as the ear, in an ill individual.

Related Questions

Which of the following statements is correct?
a) Insulin suppresses the activity of glycogen synthase
b) Insulin mediates glucose uptake in the brain
c) "Prediabetes" is a condition characterized by an increased risk for the future development of type 2 diabetes
d) The rise in insulin concentration after meal ingestion is reduced in type 1 but not in type 2 diabetes

Answers

Answer:

C) Prediabetes is a condition characterized by an increased risk for the future development of type 2 diabetes.

Explanation:

Prediabetes is a condition where there's a higher than normal blood sugar level but not high enough to be classified as type 2 diabetes. It is most likely to progress to type 2 diabetes if there are no lifestyle changes to mitigate the risk.

This progression can be stopped if the necessary lifestyle changes such as physical exercise, eating a healthy diet, weight control etc, are implemented.

Prediabetes doesn't usually present with any signs and symptoms though one possible sign is the darkening of the skin on the neck, armpit and elbows.

When signs like frequent urination, excessive thirst and fatigue are noticed, it is most likely the onset of type 2 diabetes.

22. What are the properties of an efficient gas exchange system, assuming it has a good blood supply?

Answers

Answer:

There's good oxygen supply and good carbon dioxide eradicator.

Explanation:

Hope it helps.

The diagram below shows some ocean floor features. (4 points) Which of these statements is correct about the feature labeled A in the diagram? a. It is an underwater basin caused by subduction. b. It is a deep trench located on both sides of a mid-ocean ridge. c. It is an area where sea floor spreading occurs. d. It is the portion of the ocean floor where old crusts are eroded.

Answers

Answer:

it is a deep trench located on both sides of a mid_ocean ridge

What is an advantage of nuclear power plant over coal power plant?

Answers

cost and lack of nuclear waste

Explanation:

Which activity involves a chemical change?
A. Ice melting into liquid water
B. A metal rod being bent into a ring
C. Colorless egg becoming a white solid
D. Salt dissolving in water
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Need help now pls!!

Answers

option C is correct........

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What was the population density of the original sample? What would have happened if you had inoculated an agar plate with 1 mL of the original sample?

Answers

Answer:

The sample was at a population density of 8.75x10^4 CFU/mL originally.

Explanation:

Had it been inoculated in the way as described in the question statement, the bacterial growth would have covered all of the agar plate and we would not have been able to distinguish individual colonies of bacteria. 1 mL is too much of a sample volume to use in cases like these.

What best describes the behavior of nonconservative elements in seawater?

Answers

The given question is incomplete due to missing options, however, the options for the question as follows:

A. Nonconservative elements are reactive in seawater and have a long residence time.

B. Nonconservative elements are reactive in seawater and have a short residence time.

C. Nonconservative elements are non-reactive in seawater and have a short residence time.

D. Nonconservative elements are non-reactive in seawater and have a long residence time.

Answer:

The correct answer is option C.

Explanation:

Non conservative components are components that enter the ocean water and have little concentration in the sea and show spatial variations. These components have short home time that is short replacements time and they are non responsive.

Constituents, for example, phosphate, nitrate, and different supplements, and broke up oxygen, carbon dioxide, and so on are non-conservative on the grounds that their concentrations are later altered by chemical reactions in the ocean.

Thus, The correct answer is option C.

If the scientist had collected 20 dung samples, would you expect more bands, fewer bands, or the same number of bands on the gel?

Answers

Answer:

The expectations of the bands will be more on the gels.

Explanation:

One sample provides several sizes and thickness bands in the gel electrophoresis according to the size of fragments that run in it. An individual would expect more bands due to the increase in the number of samples which is 20 samples now.

An increase in the number of samples produces more bands. So one can easily expect more bands from the 20 samples. Scientists would get more bands on the gels.

Thus, the expectations of the bands will be more on the gels.

If the scientist collects 20 dung samples ; we should expect more band on the gel

Given that each dung sample has varying sizes and varying thickness of bands in the gel electrophoresis which depends on the size of fragments contained in it. Therefore when a number of dung samples ( 20 ) are collected  it is only logical that the number of bands on the gel will increase ( i.e. you should expect more band on the gel ).

Hence we can conclude that If the scientist collects 20 dung samples we should expect more band on the gel .

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Although your question lacks some data a general answer within the scope of your question is provided

enzymes ___ the activation energy threshold required to start a chemical reaction lower or raise

Answers

Answer:

lower

Explanation:

Enzymes are chemical substances or biological molecules that catalyze biological reactions by lowering the activation energy threshold required to start such reactions.

The activation refers to the minimum energy that must be conquered by the reactants in a chemical reaction in order to cross over to the product's side.

Enzymes work by lowering this energy and hence, making the crossing over to the product's side faster than normal. They are not themselves used up in reactions and can always be recovered and reused.

Correct answer: lower

A chemical reaction is an interaction that always causes:
O A. matter to be changed into energy.
B. macromolecules to be formed from glucose.
O C. molecules to break apart into atoms.
O D. atoms to be rearranged into new substances.

Answers

Answer:

D. atoms to be rearranged into new substances.

Explanation:

Chemical reactions involve interaction between chemicals such that all reactants are changed into new materials. The properties of the new materials are different from those of the reactants.

Chemical reactions involve breaking chemical bonds between reactant molecules (particles) and forming new bonds between atoms in product particles (molecules). The number of atoms before and after the chemical change is the same but the number of molecules will change.

An athlete has an enhanced genotype for carbohydrate utilization, however they feel sluggish after they eat carbohydrates, which of the following should the trainer consider?

a. The type of carbohydrates being consumed
b. Decrease the carbohydrate intake
c. Add more caffeine to the daily diet
d. They are likely over trained and tired

Answers

Answer:

Carbohydrates’ bad reputation ignores the benefits they can offer

sooo i would say it is B. i think....

Which effect is most likely to occur as a result of clear-
cutting?
extinction of species
death of organisms
speciation
global warming

Answers

Answer:

Death of organism

Explanation:

Human activities include the clear-cutting of areas of forest to make space for farming.

Which effect is most likely to occur as a result of clear-cutting?

Is this your question?

Death of organisms effect is most likely to occur as a result of clear-cutting.

What do you mean by clearcutting?

Clearcutting is an extreme logging method in which resilient natural forests are harvested and replaced with man-made tree plantations that do not replicate the ecosystem services of a healthy forest.

Clearcutting is one of the most publicly maligned and misunderstood forest regeneration treatments. It is the only way to grow trees that require full sunlight to reproduce, such as tulip poplar, black cherry, and aspen, and the fastest way to provide/create shrubland habitat.

Clear-cutting often contributes to reductions in root strength and soil water-holding capacity, due to soil compaction and reduced transpiration. Moreover, the removal of the forest cover exposes the soil surface to heavy precipitation and large variations in temperature.

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What's Inside a Black Hole?

Answers

It can be a powerful gravitational pull, where light cant even escape from but their is no information on whether their is living things or life inside.

In intramembranous ossification, the model or template on which the bone forms is Group of answer choices mesenchyme tissue elastic cartilage hyaline cartilage fibrocartilage

Answers

Answer:

Mesenchymal tissues.

Explanation:

Intramembranous ossification is process that allow the formation of bone from the fibrous membrane where bone tissues are created. It is the direct conversion of mesechymal tissues into bones. This process take place in the bone of the skull where mesenchymal tissues differentiate into cartilage and latter replaced by bones. Tye flat bones of the face, cranial bones and clavicles are formed by intramembranous osssification

Which center bears the primary responsibility for generating the respiratory rhythm, but is influenced by several other centers

Answers

Answer:

This is the Ventral Regulatory Group-VRG

Explanation:

In the medulla,there are four groups of neurons which forms the exhalation parts of the   respiratory  control.These 4 groups are called the VRG.They occupy 5mm anterior in length, and laterally positioned to the dorsal respiratory group.They are therefore said to occupy the ventrolateral part of the medulla.

The dorsal respiratory group(DRG) consists of the inspiration neurons,contrary to the VRG. They do not extend to the DRG,but the DRG, extends to them

They(VRG) function in propagating action potentials needed for the mechanisms of respiration.(exhalations), and Inspirations

Uncellular eukaryotic organisms belong to?

Answers

All eukaryotic unicellular organisms belong to Protista.

Answer:

Unicellular eukaryotic organisms belong to kingdom protista.

Explanation:

Unicellular eukaryotic organisms belong to kingdom protista. They depend on other organisms for their food since they're not able to produce their own.

Hope this helps :)

difference between plant and animal cyanide resistance respiration.

Answers

Answer:

The cyanide resistant respiration differs in plants as oxi­dation of reduced coenzyme continues even in the presence of cyanides.

Explanation:

The mitochondrial is the electrons through which the animals and plants perform the aerobic exercise and is blocked by the release of the cyanides that stops the activity and is known as cyanide sensitive respiration Plant mitochondria is different from the animal as they both have different oxidase system pathways. Cyanide resistant is responsible for the climacteric in fruits and for the generate heat in thermogenic tissues.

What is radioactive dating?
A. A method of determining the age of a fosall based on the amount
of certain isotopes that remain in a fossil or rock
B. A method of determining the age of a fossil that estimates the age
of the organism at its death
C. A method of determining the age of a fossil based on a
comparison to the age of other similar fossil
D. A method of determining the age of a fossil that estimates how
closely related various fossilized organisms were

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

Radioactive dating uses carbon isotopes to determine the age of a material.

Radioactive dating is a method of determining the age of a fossil, based on the amount of certain isotopes that remain in a fossil or rock. Thus, the correct option is A.

What is Radioactive dating?

Radioactive dating may be defined as a methodology for estimating the approximate age of rocks and minerals by the utilization of radioactive isotopes.

This method of radioactive dating is primarily used in igneous and metamorphic rocks, which cannot be dated by the method of stratigraphic correlation that is used for determining the age of sedimentary rocks.

Therefore, the correct option for this question is A.

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As Hite and Seitz (2016) discuss in Chapter 5: Climate Change, reputable scientific studies continue to show that the Earth is warming at an unsustainable rate because of a rise in the release of CO2 and methane gases. What is the relationship between population increases and climate change

Answers

Answer:

See the answer below

Explanation:

The relationship between climate change and increased population of humans is a direct one. As the population of humans increases, their activities leading to the release of greenhouse gases such as CO2 and methane also increases. The greenhouse gases are primarily responsible for the warming of the earth.

As more and more greenhouse gases are released into the atmosphere, more radiation from the sun is trapped in the atmosphere and the earth receives more warmth. This extra heat received leads to increase in the global temperature, a phenomenon known as global warming. As the average global temperature increases, climate becomes more erratic and unpredictable.

The greenhouse gases-related activities of humans that are bound to increase with the increase in population include deforestation, fossil fuel burning, industrialization, etc.

Which of these viral cytopathic effects is most likely to be associated with the development of cancer?

Answers

Answer:

loss of contact inhibition

Explanation:

From the different options provided the one that is associated with the development of cancer is loss of contact inhibition. Contact Inhibition is a process of arresting cell growth when the cells come in contact with each other causing them to stop proliferating when they form a monolayer. Loss of contact inhibition would allow cells to continue replicating which leads to cancer.

7. Which is a way that geological processes affect nutrient cycling?
People burn coal, oil, and natural gases.
o Weather controls when volcanoes erupt.
O People use ocean currents to predict rain.
O Weather moves gases in the atmosphere.

Answers

Answer:

Weather moves gases in the atmosphere.

Explanation:

Weather moves gases in the atmosphere. Therefore, option (A) is correct.

What is nutrient cycling?

Nutrient cycling is the process by which nutrients are transformed, transported, and exchanged between different parts of an ecosystem. Nutrients are essential for the growth and survival of all living organisms, and they are constantly being recycled through various processes in the environment.

For example, plants absorb nutrients from the soil and water, and then animals consume these plants and incorporate the nutrients into their own bodies. When animals die, their bodies decompose, releasing the nutrients back into the soil or water, where they can be taken up by plants again. This continuous flow of nutrients between living organisms and the environment is known as nutrient cycling.

Nutrient cycling is important because it helps to maintain the balance of nutrients in an ecosystem and supports the functioning of the ecosystem as a whole. It is influenced by many factors, including geological processes, weather patterns, and the actions of living organisms.

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which describes a meta phase plate

Answers

Answer:Metaphase plate refers to sister chromatids lining up in the center of the cell. This event occurs during the metaphase of the cell division and it is the indication of this phase. Metaphase plate is a moment when all of the chromosomes organize, line up literally in a row and after that begin to.

A cell has a defect in its receptor for growth factors, preventing growth factors from attaching to and signalling the cell. Based on this, which prediction below is most likely?
A. The cell will remain dormant in GO phase.
B. The cell will grow uncontrollably and continue to divide as long as it has food.
C. The cell will replicate its DNA but be unable to begin mitosis.
D. The cell will begin DNA replication but will be unable to complete S phase.

Answers

Answer:

Option B

Explanation:

B. The cell will grow uncontrollably and continue to divide as long as it has food.

Cell growth is theeoretically stimulated by the binding of growth factors to their receptors using signaling pathways.

These pathways are regulated by proteins which are encoded for in the genes.

The gene that controls the regulation of these pathway when mutated produce malfunctioning signaling protein thus not allow for regulations of the cell cycle causing uncontrollable cell division. These mutated genes are called oncogenes.

Enzymes have specific _____ that determine their function. carbohydrates starches lipids shapes

Answers

pretty positive the answer is shapes

The short-term controls of blood pressure, mediated by the nervous system and bloodborne chemicals, primarily operate via all but which of the following?

a. reflex arc associated with vasomotor fibers
b. reflex arcs involving baroreceptors
c. altering blood volume
d. centers in the medulla oblongata and the pons

Answers

Answer:

c. altering blood volume

Explanation:

The sympathetic nervous system acts to modulate blood pressure during short-term periods by modifying arterial pressure. The catecholamine hormone levels may be associated with an increase in the blood pressure by narrowing the blood vessels. Catecholamines are hormonal neurotransmitters released by the adrenal glands. These hormones derive from the metabolism of tyrosine amino acids and include, among others, adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine.

Question 2 of 10
How are geothermal and wind power similar?
A. They both use solar cells to produce electricity.
B. They are both only useful in the desert.
C. They both produce greenhouse gases.
D. They both convert kinetic energy to electrical energy,
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Answers

Answer:

D. They both convert kinetic energy to electrical energy

Explanation:

wind power converts kinetic energy to electrical energy, by using wind to propel the fan

geothermal converts kinetic energy to electrical energy, by heating up an object, and then the heated objects will create molecules and atoms that will move really, really fast and the cycle will continue while the geothermal creates energy and stores the energy in the movement of the object

( plz mark me as brainliest, that would be most appreciated! )

They both convert kinetic energy to electrical energy.

What is Kinetic energy?

By using wind to drive the fan, wind power transfers kinetic energy to electrical energy.

By heating an object, geothermal transforms kinetic energy into electrical energy. The heated objects then produce molecules and atoms that move incredibly quickly, and the cycle continues as the geothermal creates energy and stores the energy in the movement of the object.

Kinetic energy is the energy that an object has as a result of motion. As long as an object is moving at a steady speed, its kinetic energy won't change.

Therefore, They both convert kinetic energy to electrical energy.

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The first glycolysis rate-limiting enzyme is under various allosteric regulations. This protein is nearly inactive because of inhibition by ( ) under physiological conditions. The activity is restored by ( ), its most potent allosteric activator.

a. AMP :::: citrate
b. AMP :::: Fru-2,6-P2
c. ATP :::: citrate
d. ATP :::: Fru-2,6-P2
e. All of these

Answers

Answer:

d. ATP;  Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate

Explanation:

Phosphofructokinase-1 is the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate from fructose-6-phosphate and ATP. The phosphofructokinase step is the first rate-limiting step of glycolysis.

Phosphofructokinase-1 activity is allosterically regulated. Its activity is increased whenever the cell's ATP supply is depleted or when its breakdown products, ADP and AMP accuulates in he cell. However, it is inhibited when the cell is amply supplied with ATP.

The activity of phosphofructokinase-1 is restored by fructose-2,6-bisphosphate, its most potent activator.

From the given options:

a. AMP :::: citrate  is wrong because AMP increases the activity of phosphofructokinase-1 and citrate is not its activator but an inhibitor

b. AMP :::: Fru-2,6-P2  is wrong because AMP increases its activity same as fructose-2,6-bisphosphate

c. ATP :::: citrate  is wrong because both citrate and ATP are inhibitors

d. ATP :::: Fru-2,6-P2  is correct as explained above

e. All of these is wrong because of the other wrong options above.

A compound synthesized by bacteria or fungi that destroys or inhibits the growth of other microbes is a/an:__________.
a. synthetic drug
b. antibiotic
c. antimicrobial drug
d. competitive inhibitor

Answers

Answer:

antimicrobial drugs

Explanation:

An antimicrobial is a substance that kills or inhibits the growth of microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi, or protozoans.

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{Option C}[/tex]

Explanation:

A compound synthesized by bacteria or fungi that destroys or inhibits the growth of other microbes is an anti-microbial drug. Anti means "against" so anti microbes mean against microbes. Antimicrobial drugs are synthesized by bacteria and fungi and are used against microbes.


Which scenario describes allopatric speciation?
A) A population of squirrels is separated by the Grand Canyon. The two
subpopulations evolve into two distinct species.
B) A tetraploid plant species evolves from a diploid ancestor. Both the tetraploid
and diploid species are found in the same habitat.
C) One population breeds in the fall; another population breeds in the spring.
D) A male horse and a female donkey mate, producing a sterile hinny.​

Answers

Answer:

A) A population of squirrels is separated by the Grand Canyon. The two subpopulations evolve into two distinct species.

Explanation:

Answer:

Ok

Explanation:

A) because it's true

After duplication, at what point does a cell become two cells with identical DNA? starting in prophase end of anaphase end of cytokinesis

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - end of cytokinesis.

Explanation:

Cytokinesis :- a procedure that partitions the cytoplasm and plasma layer of a cell, bringing about two indistinguishable cells that contain their own DNA, nucleus, nuclear membrane, and plasma membrane.  

During the last phase of the cell cycle, cytokinesis permits the cell to complete the process of isolating, making two cells with indistinguishable duplicates of DNA  

The cell squeezes in the equator area with the assistance of a ring of contractile protein filaments. The formed cleavage furrow develops until the two cells squeeze off totally.

Thus, the correct answer is - end of cytokinesis.

Answer:

end of cytokinesis

Explanation:

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