Which of the following are unicellular and have silica and pectin cell walls? A. Cellular Slime molds. B. Epulopiscium. C. Diatoms. D. Dinoflagellates. E. Yeasts.

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Answer 1

The answer to the given question is the diatoms, which are unicellular and have silica and pectin cell walls.Diatoms are a significant kind of microscopic algae.

They are single-celled photosynthetic organisms that are often found in freshwater and marine environments. They range in size from 5 to 500 microns, making them one of the smallest types of eukaryotic organisms. They are regarded as one of the most vital and plentiful groups of phytoplankton, which are tiny aquatic plants that drift in the ocean and freshwater systems.

They are unicellular algae that have silica cell walls, which give them their unique shape. In addition to pectin, which is a form of sugar, their cell walls are composed of silica and other polysaccharides. These species are abundant and occur in a wide range of aquatic habitats.

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Identify two similarities and two differences between the polymerization of actin and the polymerization of tubulin (NOT including anything associated with the polymerized cytoskeletal elements in each case). 4 points)

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While both actin and tubulin undergo polymerization and contribute to the cytoskeleton, they exhibit distinct regulation mechanisms and result in different filament structures, enabling diverse cellular functions.

Two similarities between the polymerization of actin and the polymerization of tubulin are:

Both actin and tubulin are proteins that form filaments as part of the cytoskeleton in cells. Actin filaments (microfilaments) and tubulin filaments (microtubules) are essential for cell structure and various cellular processes.Both actin and tubulin undergo polymerization, where individual monomers assemble into long chains or filaments. Polymerization of actin and tubulin involves the addition of monomers to the growing end of the filament, resulting in the elongation of the filament.

Two differences between the polymerization of actin and the polymerization of tubulin are:

Actin polymerization is regulated by actin-binding proteins, such as profilin and capping proteins, which control the rate and extent of filament assembly. In contrast, tubulin polymerization is regulated by microtubule-associated proteins (MAPs) and other factors that influence the stability and dynamics of microtubules.Actin filaments typically form a branched network structure, allowing for increased versatility in cellular functions such as cell movement and shape changes. In contrast, tubulin filaments form rigid hollow tubes, providing structural support and serving as tracks for intracellular transport.

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QUESTION 5 Which transport system can move an ion across the plasma membrane against its concentration gradient without using ATP? Oa. Primary active transport Ob. Secondary active transport Oc. Simple diffusion Od. Facilitated diffusion Oe. Facilitated diffusion via a carrier protein.

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The transport system that can move an ion across the plasma membrane against its concentration gradient without using ATP is secondary active transport.

The transport system that can move an ion across the plasma membrane against its concentration gradient without using ATP is secondary active transport.

Primary active transport, such as the sodium-potassium pump, requires the direct expenditure of ATP to move ions against their concentration gradients. Simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion, including facilitated diffusion via a carrier protein, do not require ATP but can only move ions along their concentration gradient.

In secondary active transport, the movement of an ion against its concentration gradient is coupled with the movement of another molecule or ion down its concentration gradient. This coupling utilizes the energy stored in the electrochemical gradient of the second molecule to transport the ion against its concentration gradient. As a result, the transport of the ion is indirectly powered by the ATP-driven transport of the second molecule.

Therefore, secondary active transport is the transport system that can move an ion across the plasma membrane against its concentration gradient without using ATP.

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Evidence for the Evolution of Anatomy and Physiology 100-200
words please.

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Area of evidence for evolution of anatomy and physiology is comparative embryology, molecular biology and paleontology.

The evolution of anatomy and physiology refers to the changes that have occurred over time in the structure and function of living organisms.

The evolution of anatomy and physiology can be seen in the similarities and differences between species, as well as in the way that organisms have adapted to their environments over time.

Evidence for the evolution of anatomy and physiology can be found in a number of different areas. For example, comparative anatomy is the study of the similarities and differences between the structures of different organisms.

By looking at the anatomy of different species, scientists can see how these structures have evolved over time and how they are related to each other.

Another area of evidence for the evolution of anatomy and physiology is comparative embryology. This is the study of the development of embryos from different species. By comparing the way that embryos develop, scientists can see how different structures have evolved over time.

In addition to comparative anatomy and embryology, scientists also use molecular biology to study the evolution of anatomy and physiology. By comparing the DNA sequences of different species, scientists can see how different genes have evolved over time and how they are related to each other.

Finally, paleontology is another area of evidence for the evolution of anatomy and physiology. By studying the fossil record, scientists can see how different organisms have changed over time and how they are related to each other. By studying these different areas of evidence, scientists have been able to piece together the story of how life on Earth has evolved over billions of years.

Thus, an area of evidence for evolution of anatomy and physiology is comparative embryology, molecular biology and paleontology.

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hypophysecotomy is done on an expiremental animal. Ten days later, the animal is sacrificied, and the adrenal glands are examined and found to be atrophic. Which of the following mitochondrial proteins is most likely decreased in the adrenal glands as a result of this process? Apaf-1: apoptotic protease activating factor 1 (could be decreased since its binded up in cytosol B. Bax PDA Φ Fr Suviuer A C. Bcl-2 Be clever ke tanti upaps 5 D. Caspase 8 De E. Caspase 9 EfFas idimmono infechur

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The most likely mitochondrial protein to be decreased in the adrenal glands after hypophysectomy is Bcl-2.

Bcl-2 (B-cell lymphoma 2) is a protein involved in regulating apoptosis (cell death) and maintaining mitochondrial integrity.

It functions as an anti-apoptotic protein by preventing the release of cytochrome c from mitochondria, thus inhibiting the activation of caspases and subsequent apoptosis.

Hypophysectomy refers to the removal or destruction of the pituitary gland, which can lead to hormonal imbalances.

The pituitary gland secretes adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), which stimulates the adrenal glands to produce cortisol. When the pituitary gland is removed or damaged, the production of ACTH decreases.

Cortisol is known to upregulate the expression of Bcl-2 in the adrenal glands. Therefore, after hypophysectomy, with decreased ACTH stimulation and subsequently reduced cortisol production, the levels of Bcl-2 are likely to decrease in the adrenal glands.

This decrease in Bcl-2 levels can contribute to mitochondrial dysfunction and result in atrophy of the adrenal glands. Therefore, Bcl-2 is the most likely mitochondrial protein to be decreased in this scenario.

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1. Give an example of a muscle whose name describes its: Action ONLY Shape ONLY Location ONLY Relative Size ONLY Attachment Points Number of Heads \& Location Location \& Relative Size Shape \& Location Action \& Relative Size Action, Location \& Relative Size 2. Define the following terms:

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Examples of muscles: Flexor carpi radialis (Action: Flexing the wrist), Deltoid (Shape: Triangular), Brachioradialis (Location: Forearm), Gluteus maximus (Relative Size: Largest muscle in the buttocks).

Muscle names often provide valuable insights into their characteristics. The Flexor carpi radialis is named for its action of flexing the wrist, reflecting its role in hand and finger movements. The Deltoid muscle derives its name from its distinctive triangular shape, resembling the Greek letter delta. The Brachioradialis is aptly named, indicating its location in the forearm, where it connects the brachium (upper arm) to the radius bone.

The Gluteus maximus, as its name suggests, is the largest muscle in the buttocks, contributing to hip extension and thigh movement. These examples illustrate how muscle names convey information about their specific action, shape, location, and relative size, aiding in their identification and understanding within the human body.

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DNA methylation array analysis identifies breast cancer associated RPTOR, MGRN1 and RAPSN hypomethylation in peripheral blood DNA

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The statement "DNA methylation array analysis identifies breast cancer-associated hypomethylation of RPTOR, MGRN1, and RAPSN in peripheral blood DNA" is false.

This finding suggests that these specific genes may be differentially methylated in individuals with breast cancer compared to healthy individuals. Hypomethylation refers to a decrease in DNA methylation, which can lead to altered gene expression patterns and potentially contribute to the development or progression of cancer.

The identification of these hypomethylated genes in peripheral blood DNA provides valuable insights into potential biomarkers for breast cancer detection or monitoring.

Further research is needed to fully understand the functional implications of these methylation changes and their role in breast cancer pathogenesis.

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DNA methylation array analysis identifies breast cancer-associated hypomethylation of RPTOR, MGRN1 and RAPSN in peripheral blood DNA. T/F

You are artificially stimulating a neuron in a science experiment using a voltage source to produce action potentials in a SiNGLE ISOLATED NEURON, not. an entire nerve. You stimulate the neuron during the absolute refractory period, what happens? 1. Nothing, no action potentials can be generated during the absolute refractory period regardiess of the stirnulation. 2. You observe an action potential because a threshold voltage was used. 3. You see a small graded potental in the neuron but not an action potential. 4. Nothing. More voltage is needed to stimulate a neuron during the absolute refractory period.

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In a science experiment where a voltage source is used to stimulate a single isolated neuron during the absolute refractory period, the expected outcome is that no action potentials can be generated regardless of the stimulation.

This is because the absolute refractory period is a brief period of time immediately following an action potential when the neuron is temporarily unable to generate another action potential, regardless of the strength of the stimulus.

During this period, the neuron's voltage-gated sodium channels are inactivated and unable to open, preventing the generation of action potentials.

Therefore, applying more voltage will not lead to the generation of action potentials during the absolute refractory period.

It is important to wait for the refractory period to end before attempting to stimulate the neuron again.

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lace the structures the sperm must pass through in the correct order: sperm cells penatrating secondary oocyte 1 2 3

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The structures that a sperm passes through are va-gina, followed by cervix, followed by the uterus, fallopian tubes and finally the egg.

First is the va-gina. During se-xual intercourse, sperm is ejaculated into the va-gina. The cervix is the second stage is basically is the narrow opening at the lower end of the uterus. Sperm must pass through the cervix to enter the uterus.

The uterus, or womb, is where the fertilized egg implants and develops into a fetus. Sperm swim through the uterus in search of the fallopian tubes. The fallopian tubes are basically considered as the site of fertilization. If sperm encounters a secondary oocyte in the fallopian tube, fertilization can occur. If a sperm successfully penetrates the secondary oocyte, it fertilizes the egg, resulting in the formation of a zygote.

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You make a standard mono-hybrid cross (true breeding parents - F1 -> F2) with the alleles of the gene showing incomplete dominance and independent assortment. How many phenotype classes do you get in the F2? a) 3 b) 1 c) 5 d) 2

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The answer is a) 3. The F2 generation in a standard mono-hybrid cross with alleles showing incomplete dominance and independent assortment will have three phenotype classes.

In a standard mono-hybrid cross with alleles showing incomplete dominance and independent assortment, the F2 generation will exhibit three distinct phenotype classes. Incomplete dominance refers to a situation where the heterozygous phenotype is a blend or intermediate between the two homozygous phenotypes.

Independent assortment means that the alleles of different genes segregate independently during gamete formation. When true-breeding parents with different alleles are crossed (F1 generation), all the offspring in the F1 generation will have a heterozygous genotype.

In the F2 generation, these heterozygous individuals will produce three different phenotype classes: one displaying the dominant allele, one displaying the recessive allele, and one exhibiting the intermediate phenotype resulting from incomplete dominance.

The presence of incomplete dominance ensures that the intermediate phenotype is distinct from both homozygous phenotypes,

Therefore, The F2 generation in a standard mono-hybrid cross with alleles showing incomplete dominance will have 3 phenotype classes.

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When your eyes are exposed to more light, the pupils constrict, limiting the amount of light entering the eye. As a result, the photoreceptors in the retina reduce the amplitude of the resulting graded potentials. What is the most likely reason for this respon a. to minimize sensory overload in the visual processing region of the brain b. to maximize visual clarity by selectively choosing which receptors are activated c. to reduce exposure of photoreceptors to unnecessary sensory information d. to allow the retina to focus on very specific areas that are illuminated Question 4 of 100 When a bug lands on your skin, you are likely to notice it, but if you do not shoo it off right away, you are likely to quickly stop feeling it. What characteristic of sensory perception might best account for this phenomenon? a. lateral inhibition b. slow adaptation c. frequency coding d. rapid adaptation

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The reduction of photoreceptor exposure to superfluous sensory information is the most likely cause of the pupils contracting in response to increasing light exposure.

The photoreceptors in the retina may get overstimulated by excessive light, which can result in sensory overload. The amount of light that enters the eye is restricted by constricted pupils, which aids in controlling the intensity of the incoming sensory data. This helps to avoid overstimulating the photoreceptors and enables a more controlled and effective processing of visual information. The most likely explanation for this response is option c, which seeks to limit the amount of superfluous sensory information that photoreceptors are exposed to.

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If an individual has kidney disease, they may make a smaller volume of urine than normal. How would this affect their blood pressure? Blood pressure would increase due to an increase in plasma volume Blood pressure would decrease due to vasoconstriction of systemic arteries Blood pressur would not change because the excess fluid would be eliminated by the intestines How do lipid-soluble hormones affect their target cells? Lipid soluble hormones bind to intracellular receptors and regulate gene expression Lipid soluble hormones bind to membrane bound receptors and use 2nd messengers Lipid soluble hormones bind with ribosomes and inhibit translation

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If an individual has kidney disease and produces a smaller volume of urine than normal, blood pressure would increase due to an increase in plasma volume.

Lipid-soluble hormones affect their target cells by binding to intracellular receptors and regulating gene expression.

The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating blood pressure by controlling fluid balance and eliminating waste products through urine production. In kidney disease, the impaired function of the kidneys can lead to decreased urine production, resulting in a reduced ability to remove excess fluid from the body. This leads to an increase in plasma volume, which in turn increases blood volume.

The increased blood volume puts additional strain on the blood vessels and can lead to an elevation in blood pressure. Therefore, individuals with kidney disease and reduced urine output are at a higher risk of developing hypertension (high blood pressure).

Lipid-soluble hormones, such as steroid hormones (e.g., cortisol, estrogen, testosterone) and thyroid hormones, are able to pass through the cell membrane due to their lipid solubility. Once inside the target cell, these hormones bind to specific intracellular receptors located in the cytoplasm or nucleus. The hormone-receptor complex then acts as a transcription factor, binding to specific DNA sequences and regulating gene expression.

This process leads to the production of new proteins or the modulation of existing proteins in the target cell, ultimately resulting in a cellular response to the hormone's signal. The effects of lipid-soluble hormones are generally slower and more long-lasting compared to the actions of water-soluble hormones that utilize second messengers.

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Plasma glucose is maintained during exercise through 4
processes. List them.

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Enlisted are the 4 processes that maintain plasma glucose during exercise:

1. Gluconeogenesis: During exercise, when the plasma glucose level is low, the liver converts non-carbohydrate sources such as amino acids, glycerol, and lactate into glucose via the process called gluconeogenesis. It is the reverse process of glycolysis.

2. Glycogenolysis: Glycogenolysis is the process of breaking down glycogen stored in muscles and liver to release glucose into the bloodstream.

3. Decreased insulin secretion: During exercise, insulin secretion is reduced, which causes a decrease in glucose uptake by muscle and an increase in glucose production by the liver.

4. Increased glucose uptake by muscle: During exercise, muscle contractions stimulate the glucose uptake by muscle cells, which uses plasma glucose as a source of energy.

Thus, these four processes work together to maintain plasma glucose levels during exercise.

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An infant's immune system can be greatly enhanced by breast milk because antibodies must be absorbed within the small intestine. These intact proteins must be
brought into the small intestine through which mechanism?
O H+ Symport
© Na Symport
O Simple diffusion
© Vesicular transport

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Breast milk enhances an infant's immune system by delivering intact antibodies, which are absorbed in the small intestine. This absorption occurs through the mechanism of H+ symport or Na+ symport, facilitating the transport of proteins across the intestinal membrane into the enterocytes.

The mechanism through which intact proteins are brought into the small intestine for absorption is not simple diffusion or vesicular transport, but rather via the process known as H+ symport or Na+ symport.

In the small intestine, there are specialized cells called enterocytes that line the walls. These enterocytes have microvilli, which are tiny finger-like projections that increase the surface area for absorption.

Within the microvilli, there are transport proteins known as symporters that facilitate the absorption of nutrients, including intact proteins.

H+ symport and Na+ symport are specific types of symporters present in the enterocytes. These symporters work in conjunction with hydrogen ions (H+) or sodium ions (Na+) to transport molecules across the intestinal membrane.

In the case of breast milk antibodies, H+ symport or Na+ symport proteins facilitate the transport of intact antibodies from the lumen of the small intestine into the enterocytes.

Once inside the enterocytes, the intact antibodies are further processed and packaged into vesicles before being transported across the enterocyte and released into the bloodstream.

This allows the infant to benefit from the antibodies present in breast milk, providing passive immunity and enhancing the developing immune system.

In summary, the intact proteins, such as antibodies, present in breast milk are absorbed in the small intestine through the mechanism of H+ symport or Na+ symport, which facilitate their transport across the intestinal membrane and into the enterocytes.

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16. scientists are studying diversity of disease prevalence in golden retrievers. what type of diversity are they studying?

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The type of diversity that scientists are studying when they are studying the diversity of disease prevalence in golden retrievers is called genetic diversity.

Genetic diversity is a term that refers to the differences in DNA sequences among individuals within a population or among different populations.

In other words, it is a measure of the variation in genes within a population. Genetic diversity plays an essential role in natural selection and evolution. It allows populations to adapt to changing environments and gives them the flexibility to survive and thrive in different ecological niches.

Golden retrievers are a popular breed of dog, but they are also susceptible to a range of genetic diseases. For this reason, scientists are interested in studying the genetic diversity of golden retrievers to better understand the underlying causes of these diseases.

By studying the genetic diversity of golden retrievers, scientists can identify the genetic variants that are associated with specific diseases and develop new treatments and therapies to help prevent and treat these conditions.

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Question 10 i) Describe the composition of the glomerular filtrate. (2 marks) ii) What is a normal value for the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in a healthy adult male? (1 mark) iii) What proportion of the renal plasma flow is usually filtered by the glomeruli? (1 mark) iv) Write the equation for calculating renal clearance defining all terms. (2 marks) v) Explain why the clearance of inulin can be used to measure GFR. (2 marks) vi) Which endogenous substance can be used instead of inulin to measure GFR? Where does this endogenous substance come from? (2 marks)

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Answer: The glomerular filtration rate, or GFR, is a measure of how well your kidneys are cleaning your blood -- taking out waste and extra water whereas renal clearance tests laboratory tests that determine the ability of the kidney to remove certain substances from the blood.

Explanation: i) The glomerular filtrate is composed of water, electrolytes (such as sodium, potassium, calcium, and chloride ions), glucose, amino acids, waste products (such as urea and creatinine), and small molecules. It does not contain large molecules such as proteins or blood cells.

ii) The normal value for the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in a healthy adult male is approximately 125 mL/min or 180 L/day.

iii) Typically, about 20% of the renal plasma flow is filtered by the glomeruli. This proportion is known as the filtration fraction.

iv) The equation for calculating renal clearance as follows:

Renal Clearance = (Urine Concentration of Substance × Urine Flow Rate) / Plasma Concentration of Substance

Where:

Urine Concentration of Substance refers to the concentration of the substance being measured in the urine.

Urine Flow Rate is the rate at which urine is produced.

Plasma Concentration of Substance is the concentration of the substance being measured in the blood plasma.

v) Inulin is a substance that is freely filtered by the glomeruli and is neither reabsorbed nor secreted by the renal tubules. Therefore, the clearance of inulin represents the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). Inulin is an ideal marker for GFR measurement because it meets the criteria of being freely filtered and not being reabsorbed or secreted by the kidneys.

vi) Another endogenous substance that can be used to measure GFR is creatinine. Creatinine is produced by the breakdown of creatine in muscle tissue and is continuously released into the bloodstream. It is filtered by the glomeruli and partially reabsorbed by the renal tubules. However, the amount of creatinine that is reabsorbed is relatively constant, allowing for a reasonably accurate estimation of GFR. Therefore, creatinine clearance is commonly used as an alternative to inulin clearance to measure GFR.

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Which replicative step(s) do animal viruses and bacteriophages have in common? to be marked correct, you'll need to select all applicable statements, as there may be more than one correct answer.

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Animal viruses and bacteriophages have replicative steps in common are adsorption, penetration, uncoating and synthesis. Replication of viruses and bacteriophages refers to the process by which viruses and bacteria multiply and produce new particles within host cell.

Adsorption is the initial stage of viral replication involves the binding of viruses to host cells.                                                                    It occurs in a similar manner for both animal viruses and bacteriophages.                                                                                                Then comes penetration, once attached to the host cell, the virus can proceed to enter it.                                                                                                          This represents the second stage of viral replication and is comparable for both animal viruses and bacteriophages.         Next is uncoating, following entry into the host cell, the virus sheds its protective coat, releasing its genetic material.                              This step is common to both animal viruses and bacteriophages.                                                                                                         During replication stage, the viral genetic material is utilized by the host cell to produce new viruses.                                                  This process is similar for both animal viruses and bacteriophages.                                                                                             Therefore, animal viruses and bacteriophages have adsorption, penetration, uncoating and synthesis in common.

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The frequency of a homozygous recessive genotype is 1/100 in a population. Assume the presence of only a dominant ailenie (A) and a recessive altele (a) in the population and that the population is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. What is the frequency of heterozygotes in the population Oa. 0.9 Ob. 0.1 OC 0.095 Od 0,81 Oe 0.18

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The frequency of heterozygotes in the population is 0.18 or 18% given the frequency of a homozygous recessive genotype is 1/100 in a population.

Assume the presence of only a dominant ailenie (A) and a recessive altele (a) in the population and that the population is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The frequency of heterozygotes in the population is 0.19.

Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium equation:

p² + 2pq + q² = 1, where:p = frequency of dominant allele

dominant allele = Ap² = frequency of homozygous dominant genotype

q = frequency of recessive allele

recessive allele = aq² = frequency of homozygous recessive genotype

2pq = frequency of heterozygous genotype

Given:p² + 2pq + q² = 1q² = 1/100q = √(1/100)q = 0.1p = 1 - qq = 0.1p = 0.9

The frequency of heterozygotes in the population = 2pq= 2 x 0.9 x 0.1= 0.18

The frequency of heterozygotes in the population is 0.18 or 18%.

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gonadocorticoids are released by which part of the adrenal gland?

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Gonadocorticoids are released by the zona reticularis of the adrenal gland.

The adrenal gland is composed of two main parts: the outer cortex and the inner medulla. The cortex is further divided into three layers: the zona glomerulosa, the zona  fasciculata, and the zona reticularis. Each layer of the cortex produces different types of hormones. The zona reticularis specifically secretes gonadocorticoids, also known as sex hormones. These hormones include androgens (such as dehydroepiandrosterone, or DHEA) and some estrogenic compounds. While the zona reticularis is responsible for the production of gonadocorticoids, the other layers of the adrenal cortex produce different hormones, such as mineralocorticoids (aldosterone) and glucocorticoids (cortisol).

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PLEASE PROVIDE AN
EXPLANATION
In Sanger sequencing after one ddNTPs is added to the template strand, you can continue adding dNTPs True False

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The statement "In the Sanger sequencing method, after adding one ddNTPs to the template strand, you can continue adding dNTPs" is False. This is because the incorporation of a ddNTP stops the growth of the DNA chain.

Dideoxy nucleotides (ddNTPs) are used to stop the formation of DNA chains during the Sanger sequencing process. The incorporation of ddNTPs causes chain termination because they lack the 3' OH group present in normal nucleotides (dNTPs), which is essential for the formation of a phosphodiester bond between adjacent nucleotides.

In the absence of a 3' OH group, the next nucleotide cannot be added, and the chain growth is halted, leading to the formation of a set of fragments that vary in length based on the position of the terminating ddNTP in the sequence.

The Sanger sequencing method, on the other hand, allows you to add only one nucleotide at a time. After incorporating the ddNTP, you cannot add any more nucleotides to the chain.

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5. Compare and contrast the characteristics of the four different tissue types. Recall basic anatomy Tissue types Epithelial tissue (layers and shapes) Serous membrane and mucous membrane Connective tissues (Loose or areolar; adipose; reticular; dense connective) Muscle tissue (skeletal, cardiac, smooth) Nerve tissue (neuron, neuroglia) Cell to cell connection Tight junction Adhering junction Gap junction NMJ Synapse Extracellular matrix Glycosaminoglycans (GAGs) Proteoglycans Adhesion molecules Cadherins Selectins Integrins Immunoglobulin superfamily

Answers

Epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscle tissue, and nerve tissue differ in their composition, function, and cell-to-cell connections. Epithelial tissue forms protective layers with various shapes, while connective tissue provides support with an extracellular matrix. Muscle tissue enables contraction, and nerve tissue facilitates electrical signaling.

Explanation:

Epithelial tissue is characterized by closely packed cells that form protective layers. It can be classified into different layers, such as simple (single layer) or stratified (multiple layers), and shapes, including squamous (flat), cuboidal (cube-shaped), and columnar (column-shaped). It also forms serous membranes (lining body cavities) and mucous membranes (lining organs and passages).

Connective tissue, on the other hand, consists of cells dispersed within an abundant extracellular matrix. It includes loose or areolar connective tissue, which supports and surrounds organs; adipose tissue, responsible for fat storage; reticular tissue, which forms the framework in organs; and dense connective tissue, providing strength and support to various structures.

Muscle tissue is specialized for contraction and generating force. It includes skeletal muscle, responsible for voluntary movement; cardiac muscle, which contracts involuntarily to pump blood in the heart; and smooth muscle, found in the walls of organs and responsible for their involuntary movement.

Nerve tissue comprises neurons and supporting cells called neuroglia. Neurons transmit electrical signals, allowing communication throughout the body, while neuroglia provide support and insulation to neurons.

The cell-to-cell connections differ among the tissue types. Epithelial tissue utilizes tight junctions to form barriers, connective tissue relies on various types of adhesion molecules like cadherins, selectins, and integrins. Muscle tissue employs gap junctions for coordinated contractions, and nerve tissue relies on synapses for signal transmission.

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30. The rate of consumer biomass accumulation in a given area; analogous to NPP for producer a. Egested energy b. Respired energy c. assimilated energy d. Net secondary productivity. 31. Net primary productivity depends on autotrophs for energy. a. True b. False 32. Which of the following is false? a. Tropical rainforests are the most productive terrestrial ecosystems b. Arctic and alpine regions have low productivity c. Temperate open ocean waters tend to have a higher productivity than tropical waters d. The interface between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems is highly productive e. Productivity of open oceans is generally quite high compared to coastal waters.

Answers

30. Net secondary productivity is the rate of consumer biomass accumulation in a given area, analogous to NPP for producers (d).

31. True, net primary productivity (NPP) depends on autotrophs for energy.

32. False,temperate open ocean waters tend to have a higher productivity than tropical waters.

30. The rate of consumer biomass accumulation in a given area, analogous to NPP for producers, is called net secondary productivity (d). Net secondary productivity represents the rate at which consumer biomass accumulates in a specific area.

31. True. Net primary productivity (NPP) depends on autotrophs for energy. Autotrophs are organisms that produce their own food through processes like photosynthesis. NPP measures the amount of energy captured by autotrophs and converted into biomass, which is available as food for other organisms in the ecosystem.

32. The false statement is: "Temperate open ocean waters tend to have a higher productivity than tropical waters." Here's an explanation:

Productivity refers to the rate at which energy and matter are converted into biomass within a given area. It is commonly measured in grams per square meter per year. The productivity of an ecosystem is influenced by factors such as sunlight, water, nutrients, temperature, and existing biomass.

In terms of terrestrial ecosystems, tropical rainforests are the most productive due to their high biodiversity and abundant sunlight. Arctic and alpine regions, on the other hand, have low productivity compared to other ecosystems due to harsh environmental conditions.

When it comes to aquatic ecosystems, temperate open ocean waters tend to have lower productivity compared to tropical waters. Coastal waters are generally more productive than open oceans. The interface between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems, such as estuaries, can be highly productive due to the mixing of nutrients from both land and water sources.

In summary, the false statement is that temperate open ocean waters have higher productivity than tropical waters. The reality is that tropical waters, both terrestrial and aquatic, exhibit higher productivity levels compared to their temperate counterparts.

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3. The cornea is normally translucent. However, here it is not. Why is this true?
4. What is unique about the cornea?
5. How is the cow eye similar to the human eye?
6. Name 4 muscles that control eye movements and describe how each moves the eye.
7. Which cranial nerve(s) control the contraction of these muscles?
8. What is the function of the fat capsule that surrounds the eye?
9. Describe the sclera.
10. Describe the appearance of the optic nerve as it exits the posterior of the cow eye.

Answers

The cornea is not translucent due to a condition called corneal opacity, which can be caused by various factors such as injury, infection, or disease.

The cornea is normally translucent because of its unique structure and composition. It is the clear, dome-shaped outermost layer of the eye that covers the iris, pupil, and anterior chamber. Its transparency allows light to enter the eye and helps to focus the incoming light onto the retina for vision.

However, in certain cases, the cornea can lose its transparency and become opaque, leading to a condition known as corneal opacity. This can occur due to a variety of reasons. One common cause is injury to the cornea, such as a deep cut or burn, which can disrupt the regular arrangement of its cells and result in scarring or clouding. Infections, such as severe cases of bacterial or viral keratitis, can also lead to corneal opacity by causing inflammation and damage to the corneal tissue.

Furthermore, certain diseases and conditions, such as corneal dystrophies, degenerations, or inherited disorders, can affect the cornea and lead to loss of transparency. These conditions may cause abnormal deposits, growths, or changes in the corneal structure, impairing its ability to transmit light effectively.

In summary, the cornea is normally translucent, allowing light to pass through and contribute to clear vision. However, corneal opacity can occur as a result of injury, infection, or various underlying conditions, causing the cornea to lose its transparency and impair vision.

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The cornea is normally translucent, but it can become opaque or cloudy due to various reasons such as injury, infection, inflammation, or certain diseases.

When the cornea is damaged or affected by these conditions, it can lose its transparency, resulting in an opaque appearance. The cornea is unique in several ways. It is the clear, dome-shaped outermost layer of the eye that covers the iris, pupil, and anterior chamber. It plays a crucial role in focusing light onto the retina and acts as a protective barrier against foreign objects, germs, and UV radiation. Unlike other parts of the eye, the cornea has no blood vessels and receives nutrients and oxygen from tears and the aqueous humor.

The cow eye is similar to the human eye in terms of general structure and basic functions. Both eyes have similar anatomical components, such as the cornea, iris, lens, retina, and optic nerve. They function similarly in terms of receiving light, focusing it onto the retina, and transmitting visual information to the brain.  

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Describe the appearance of the oral cavity. Which structures can you immediately see after opening the pig’s oral cavity?
What is the function of the salivary glands?
List three of the major salivary glands found in the fetal pig. Are these glands also found in the human body?
Why did you lift the pig’s tongue in the virtual dissection?
Describe the appearance of the pig’s tongue.
List two functions of the tongue.
In the oral cavity, there are three visible openings – nasopharynx, glottis, and esophagus. Anatomically, where is the opening to the esophagus in relation to the glotties (i.e. opening to respiratory tract)?

Answers

The structures immediately visible after opening the pig's oral cavity are the teeth, tongue, and salivary glands.

When you open the pig's oral cavity, you will immediately see several structures that play important roles in the digestive and respiratory processes. Firstly, you will notice the teeth, which vary in shape and size depending on their location within the oral cavity. The teeth are responsible for mechanically breaking down food into smaller particles, facilitating the process of digestion.

Next, you will see the tongue, a muscular organ that occupies the floor of the oral cavity. The pig's tongue is typically pink in color and has a rough texture due to the presence of papillae. The tongue assists in the manipulation of food during chewing and swallowing, and it also plays a crucial role in taste sensation.

Additionally, the salivary glands are immediately visible when you open the pig's oral cavity. These glands secrete saliva, a watery fluid that contains enzymes and lubricating substances. Saliva helps in the initial digestion of food and aids in swallowing by moistening the food bolus. It also contains antibacterial agents that contribute to oral health.

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When the diaphragm contracts during inspiration a. 1. the lung volume decreases causing the air pressure in alveoli to increase
b. the lung volume increases causing the air pressure in alveoli to decrease c. 1. the lung volume decreases causing the air pressure in alveoli to decrease d. 1. The lung volume increases causing the air pressure in alveoli to increase

Answers

The correct option is a.1. the lung volume decreases causing the air pressure in alveoli to increase. The lung volume decreases, the air pressure in the alveoli decreases, and the air flows into the lungs.

The correct option is A.

During inspiration, the diaphragm, a thin dome-shaped muscle at the base of the thoracic cavity, contracts and moves downward. This causes an increase in the volume of the thoracic cavity. The lung volume decreases, the air pressure in the alveoli decreases, and the air flows into the lungs.

During expiration, the diaphragm relaxes and moves upward, causing a decrease in the volume of the thoracic cavity. The lung volume decreases, the air pressure in the alveoli increases, and the air flows out of the lungs. The pressure of the air within the lungs is determined by the volume of the lungs and the number of molecules present.

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A patient in an emergency room complained to the doctor that she was not able to feel heat on her hand. The doctor knew that there were two nerve cells between the heat receptors in the hand and the heat-sensitive receptors in the brain. The arrangement of these receptors is shown in the following diagram. The doctor thought that the trouble might be in the synapse between A and B and made the following two hypotheses: A) No neurotransmitter is being released from nerve cell A. B) Nerve cell B does not have receptors for the neurotransmitter that is released from A. To test these hypotheses, the doctor designed an experiment to apply a neurotransmitter to the cell body of nerve cell A and observe any activity from nerve cell B. Evaluate whether or not this experiment would enable the doctor to support one hypothesis and reject the other. During World War I, physicians noted a phenomenon called "phantom pains'. Soldiers with amputated limbs complained of pain or itching in the missing limb. Using your knowledge of the nervous system explain why you think this phenomenon exists

Answers

In order to test these hypotheses, the doctor designed an experiment to apply a neurotransmitter to the cell body of nerve cell A and observe any activity from nerve cell B.

If the application of the neurotransmitter to the cell body of nerve cell A leads to nerve cell B getting active, this would imply that there are receptors for the neurotransmitter on nerve cell B. This would support hypothesis B and reject hypothesis A.However, if the application of the neurotransmitter to the cell body of nerve cell A does not lead to nerve cell B getting active, this would imply that there are no receptors for the neurotransmitter on nerve cell B. This would support hypothesis A and reject hypothesis B.A phenomenon called "phantom pains" occurs when a patient complains of pain or itching in a missing limb after amputation.

Phantom limb pain may be related to the brain's neuroplasticity, which refers to its ability to reorganize itself by forming new neural connections throughout life. When the sensory nerves in an amputated limb are severed, the area of the brain that previously received input from those nerves loses that input, and new connections may form between that area of the brain and the surrounding nerves that are still intact. When these new connections form, the brain may misinterpret the signals from the intact nerves as signals coming from the amputated limb, resulting in phantom limb pain.

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2(a) Discuss any FIVE (5) forms of energy with
relevant examples.
2(b) Explain the term Biotechnology? Provide any TWO (2)
differentiation between Green and Blue Biotechnology.

Answers

2(a) Forms of energy with examples:Energy is the capability to do work. There are different forms of energy with relevant examples. They are listed below. 1. Thermal Energy: Thermal energy is the energy produced by heat. It is the sum of kinetic energy in the molecules of an object.

Example: fire and geothermal energy 2. Electrical Energy: Electrical energy is a type of energy that is transmitted by electricity. Example: Batteries, lightning 3. Kinetic Energy: Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a moving object. Example: Windmill, moving cars 4. Potential Energy: Potential energy is the energy stored in an object. Example: a stretched rubber band, water in a dam 5. Chemical Energy: Chemical energy is the energy released from the chemical reaction between substances. Example: Wood burning, gasoline combustion 2(b) Explanation of the term Biotechnology and differentiation between Green and Blue Biotechnology Biotechnology is a combination of biology and technology.

It is the use of living organisms or their products to modify or create useful products, improve existing products, and develop new treatments and cures for diseases.Biotechnology is divided into two main branches:Green Biotechnology and Blue Biotechnology. The following is an explanation of the differentiation between Green and Blue Biotechnology:Green Biotechnology:Green biotechnology refers to the biotechnology of plants. It is concerned with the use of biotechnology in plant breeding, genetic engineering, and agriculture. Example: Genetically modified crops, plant tissue culture.Blue Biotechnology:Blue biotechnology is a branch of biotechnology that focuses on marine and aquatic applications. Blue biotechnology is concerned with the use of marine organisms and products in industry, medicine, and agriculture. Example: Aquaculture, marine biotechnology.

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How does the hormone estrogen have both classical and
non-genomic effects?

Answers

The hormone estrogen has both classical and non-genomic effects. The classical genomic effects involve the binding of estrogen to its receptor within the nucleus of the target cell, resulting in the regulation of gene expression. The non-genomic effects involve the binding of estrogen to membrane-bound estrogen receptors, resulting in the activation of various signaling pathways.

Estrogen is a hormone that has both classical and non-genomic effects. The hormone estrogen is involved in various physiological processes, including the development of secondary sexual characteristics, the menstrual cycle, and pregnancy. It also plays a critical role in the regulation of gene expression in target cells, leading to the activation or repression of specific genes. The two primary mechanisms by which estrogen mediates its effects are through the classical genomic pathway and the non-genomic pathway.Classical genomic effects occur when estrogen binds to estrogen receptors located within the nucleus of the target cell. This results in the formation of an estrogen-receptor complex that binds to specific sites on the DNA and regulates gene expression. This process takes several hours to occur.Non-genomic effects occur when estrogen binds to membrane-bound estrogen receptors, resulting in the activation of various signaling pathways.

These pathways can activate ion channels, such as calcium channels, or signaling proteins, such as protein kinase A or C. This process occurs within minutes of estrogen binding to the receptor.Estrogen also has other non-genomic effects that are unrelated to estrogen receptor signaling, such as its antioxidant and anti-inflammatory properties. These effects are thought to occur through the regulation of various signaling pathways, including the MAPK/ERK and PI3K/Akt pathways. In summary, estrogen has both classical and non-genomic effects. The classical genomic effects involve the binding of estrogen to its receptor within the nucleus of the target cell, resulting in the regulation of gene expression. The non-genomic effects involve the binding of estrogen to membrane-bound estrogen receptors, resulting in the activation of various signaling pathways.

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3. Describe the pathway of a molecule going through the following systems.
a. Respiratory System: Pathway of an oxygen molecule as it is breathed in, starting from the mouth and ending in the alveoli.
b. Circulatory System: Pathway of an oxygen molecule from the alveoli to the intestine capillary bed. Then continue the pathway with a carbon dioxide molecule from the intestine capillary bed back to the right atrium of the heart. Be sure to include the applicable blood vessels and heart valves.
c. Digestive System: Pathway of protein and its digestion products, starting from the mouth until absorbed into the bloodstream. Be sure to list the parts that are passed through and where the protein is digested- including the enzyme names.

Answers

a. Respiratory system enters the nasal cavity or oral cavity during inhalation. b. Circulatory System bloodstream from the alveoli, red blood cells. c . Digestive System the pathway of a protein molecule in the mouth

a. In the respiratory system, an oxygen molecule is breathed in through the mouth and travels down the respiratory tract. It enters the alveoli, where gas exchange takes place.

b. From the alveoli, the oxygen molecule diffuses into the bloodstream and enters the pulmonary capillaries. It is then carried by the pulmonary veins to the left side of the heart. From the left atrium, it is pumped into the left ventricle and then out of the heart through the aorta enzymes. The oxygen-rich blood travels through systemic arteries to reach various tissues, including the intestine. In the intestine, the oxygen molecule is delivered to the capillaries of the intestinal bed.

For the pathway of a carbon dioxide molecule, it is produced as a waste product in the tissues of the intestine. The carbon dioxide diffuses into the capillaries of the intestinal bed and is carried by systemic veins back to the right atrium of the heart. From the right atrium, it passes through the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle. Then, it is pumped out of the heart through the pulmonary artery and reaches the lungs. In the lungs, the carbon dioxide is expelled through gas exchange in the alveoli and exhaled.

c. In the digestive system, the pathway of a protein starts in the mouth where it is mechanically broken down by chewing. It then travels down the esophagus to the stomach, where it encounters gastric acid and the enzyme pepsin. In the stomach, the protein is further broken down into smaller peptide fragments. From the stomach, the partially digested protein enters the small intestine, where pancreatic enzymes, such as trypsin and chymotrypsin, continue the digestion process, breaking the peptide fragments into smaller peptides and amino acids. The final digestion and absorption of the protein occur in the small intestine, specifically in the lining of the small intestine called the villi. The small peptides and amino acids are absorbed into the bloodstream through the capillaries in the villi, and from there, they are transported to various tissues in the body for growth and repair.

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Data Misuse and Manipulation: Teaching New Scientists that Fudging the Data is Bad. Ethics in Biology, Engineering and Medicine

Answers

Data misuse and manipulation are serious ethical concerns in the fields of biology, engineering, and medicine. Fudging the data can have significant consequences on scientific research, public health, and technological advancements.

In these fields, data serves as the foundation for making informed decisions and drawing accurate conclusions. Misusing or manipulating data undermines the integrity of research and can lead to erroneous findings.

Data misrepresentation can occur in various ways, such as selectively reporting results, altering data points, or fabricating data altogether. These actions not only violate ethical standards but also hinder scientific progress and trust in the scientific community.

150 words: It is essential to teach new scientists the importance of maintaining data integrity and the consequences of data misuse and manipulation. By emphasizing the significance of ethical conduct, scientists can ensure the credibility and reliability of their research. Additionally, promoting transparency and accountability in data collection and analysis can help prevent data manipulation. Establishing clear guidelines and ethical standards within the scientific community is crucial to deter unethical practices. Encouraging open discussions and peer reviews can also help identify potential data manipulation and protect the integrity of scientific research. Overall, teaching new scientists about the importance of data integrity and the ethical implications of fudging data is crucial for upholding the principles of scientific inquiry and advancing knowledge in biology, engineering, and medicine.

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Which of the following statements correctly describe an adaptation that separates amphibians from reptiles? (Choose all that are correct). Select one or more: a. None of these b. Amphibians have well-developed lungs and reptiles do not. c. Amphibians have dry scaly skin and reptiles do not. d. Reptiles require water for their larval stage and amphibians do not. e. Reptiles have a water-tight amniotic egg and amphibians do not. f. Amphibians can use cutaneous respiration and reptiles cannot. g. Reptiles have limbs adapted to terrestrial life and amphibians do not. h. All of these

Answers

The statements that describe an adaptation that separates amphibians from reptiles are: d). Reptiles require water for their larval stage and amphibians do not. e). Reptiles have a water-tight amniotic egg and amphibians do not. f). Amphibians can use cutaneous respiration and reptiles cannot. Options (d,e,f).

d. Reptiles require water for their larval stage and amphibians do not: Reptiles, such as turtles and crocodiles, typically have direct development from egg to juvenile without going through a larval stage. Their eggs are laid on land and are well adapted to survive in dry conditions. In contrast, many amphibians, such as frogs and salamanders, have an aquatic larval stage, commonly known as tadpoles, which live in water and undergo metamorphosis to transform into their adult form. During this larval stage, amphibians require water for survival and growth.

e. Reptiles have a water-tight amniotic egg and amphibians do not:

One of the key adaptations that distinguishes reptiles from amphibians is the presence of a water-tight amniotic egg. Reptiles, including birds, have amniotic eggs that are surrounded by a protective shell and contain specialized membranes to retain water and protect the developing embryo from desiccation. This adaptation allows reptiles to reproduce and lay eggs on land, enabling them to live in diverse habitats. Amphibians, on the other hand, typically lay eggs in water or moist environments without the same level of protection offered by an amniotic egg.

f. Amphibians can use cutaneous respiration and reptiles cannot:

Cutaneous respiration is the process of gas exchange (oxygen uptake and carbon dioxide release) through the skin. Amphibians have highly permeable skin that allows them to exchange gases with their environment, including both water and air. This adaptation enables amphibians to respire through their skin, in addition to their lungs, and is particularly important when they are in aquatic environments or when their lungs are not fully developed. Reptiles, however, have thicker and less permeable skin, which limits their ability to engage in cutaneous respiration. They primarily rely on their lungs for respiration.

Therefore, these three adaptations—reptiles requiring water for their larval stage, reptiles having a water-tight amniotic egg, and amphibians being able to use cutaneous respiration—are key characteristics that separate amphibians from reptiles and contribute to their distinct ecological roles and survival strategies.

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