Answer:
b. protein
Explanation:
which of the following best describes a typical metabolic pathway? i. a series of enzyme-catalyzed steps, most of which are operating near equilibrium, but one or more is highly favorable and irreversible ii. a series of enzyme-catalyzed steps, all of which are highly favorable, and irreversible. iii. all of the other options. iv. a series of enzyme-catalyzed steps, most of which are highly favorable, but one or more is near equilibrium. v. a series of enzyme-catalyzed steps, all of which are operating near equilibrium.
The correct option which best describes a typical metabolic pathway is (i) a series of enzyme-catalyzed steps, most of which are operating near equilibrium, but one or more is highly favorable and irreversible.
A metabolic route is a connected chain of chemical events taking place inside a cell. Metabolites are the reactants, products, and intermediates of an enzymatic reaction that are altered by a series of chemical reactions that are catalyzed by enzymes. Typically, the output of one enzyme acts as the substrate for the following one in a metabolic pathway. Side products, on the other hand, are discarded as trash and taken out of the cell. Many times, these enzymes need dietary minerals, vitamins, and other cofactors to work. One metabolic process for carbohydrates, for instance, converts big molecules into glucose. A different metabolic process could transform glucose into substantial carbohydrates for storage. The first of these is referred as be anabolic and requires energy. The second procedure, known as catabolic, results in energy production.
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Below is list of molecules with different chemical characteristics Select the option below that most accurately predicts the relative rates of diffusion of these molecules across the plasma membrane (fastest slowest):
O CO2>ethanol>glucose>sodium
O ethanol>glucose>CO2>sodium
O sodium>ethanol>CO2>glucose
O glucose>ethanol>sodium>CO2
O CO2>ethanol>sodium>glucose
CO2 > ETHANOL >GLUCOSE >SODIUM is the option below that most accurately predicts the relative rates of diffusion of these molecules across the plasma membrane.
THE RATE OF MOLECULE DIFFUSION IS DEPENDENT ON MANY FACTORS.
1)MOLECULE SIZE is inversely proportional to the rate of diffusion across a semipermeable membrane, so CO2 has a much smaller size than glucose and ethanol. whereas glucose is greater than ethanol.
2)CHARGE ON THE MOLECULE, i.e. polarity of the molecule = non-polar molecules pass faster than polar molecules and polar molecules pass faster than ions, so sodium has a higher charge than glucose (polar molecule) and ethanol.
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will give u brainliest
Question
Hemophilia is a genetic blood disorder that is common in descendants of Queen Victoria. Although several women in the family were carriers of the allele for the disorder, only men ended up actually expressing the disorder.
Which statement is true about the inheritance of hemophilia?
Responses
It's a recessive trait on the X chromosome.
It's a dominant trait on the Y chromosome.
It's a recessive trait on the Y chromosome.
It's a dominant trait on the X chromosome
Answer: Recessive X-linked
Explanation:
Hemophilia is a recessive trait on the X chromosome. The correct option is A.
What is hemophilia?Hemophilia is a basically a genetic bleeding problem of disorder in which the blood fails to clot at it used to do. This can result in both spontaneous and post-injury or surgical bleeding.
Blood contains numerous proteins referred to as clotting factors that can results in the prevention of bleeding.
A mutation or change in one of the genes that provides instructions for making the clotting factor proteins required to form a blood clot causes hemophilia.
This change or mutation can cause the clotting protein to malfunction or go missing entirely. These genes are recessive and are usually found on chromosome X.
It can be carried by either the mother or the father, or by both of them. The likelihood of a child inheriting the haemophilia changed gene is determined by which of their parents has the changed gene.
Thus, the correct option is A.
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Given the time period and incident rate indicated by the bracket and question mark, this population is experiencing:
With the time period and incident rate indicated by the bracket and question mark, this population is experiencing an increase in the number and density of susceptible hosts.
Incidence rate or person-time rate may be a degree of the rate that incorporates time straightforwardly into the denominator. A person-time rate is by and large calculated from a long-term cohort follow-up consideration, wherein enrollees are taken after over time and the event of unused cases of infection is documented. A incidence rate depicts how rapidly infection happens in a populace. It is based on person-time, so it has a few preferences over a rate extent. Since person-time is calculated for each subject, it can oblige people coming into and clearing out the study. predominance rate is the extent of people in a populace who have a specific illness or quality at an indicated point in time or over an indicated time period. Predominance varies from the frequency in that predominance incorporates all cases, both modern and preexisting,
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Lion zebra eaters are called
Answer: Carnivores or Primary Consumers.
Explanation:
moist heat methods have to operate at higher temperatures and longer exposure times as compared to dry heat methods to kill microbes. a. true b. false
Moist heat methods have to operate at higher temperatures and longer exposure times as compared to dry heat methods to kill microbes. This statement is false.
Moist heat sterilization is the use of heated, high-pressure steam to sterilize an object. This sterilization method uses no toxic liquids or fumes and is relatively cheap, quick, and effective in killing and eliminating potentially infectious bacteria, viruses, and spores.
Autoclaving, pasteurization, boiling, and tyndallization are all examples of moist heat sterilization (intermittent sterilization). Autoclaving is the most effective moist heat sterilization method because it kills microorganisms and their spores. It also makes use of autoclave equipment.
Heat conduction is used to achieve dry heat sterilization. Heat is absorbed by the device's outside surface and transferred throughout the device until the target temperature is reached. By oxidizing molecules, dry heat kills microorganisms.
Dry heat sterilization can take much longer than steam, flaming, chemical sterilization, or radiation sterilization. Heat can cause sensitive materials or thin sheets to warp. Because high temperatures can permanently damage plastics and rubber, they are not suitable for dry heat.
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A scientist repeats the millikan oil drop experiment in a different galaxy and the charge on the drops is measured in a unit called the electrino (el). The scientist obtains data for four drops.
The el unit obtained is 0.46 x 10 ^ - 14 el and is usually obtained by a cost that elevated via way of means of special integers offers us the values of the expenses given.
For this we seize the smallest fee, divide it via way of means of different integers (for the reason that elemental fee have to follow this condition) and multiply it via way of means of those cited at the start to try and gain the alternative expenses. We have to count on consequences that have been in no way measured additionally (which "may be").
For now shall we forget about all the 10 ^ - 14 and the units.We begin then with 1.84. Maybe that is the basic fee, and we might most effective want to multiply via way of means of different integers to gain the relaxation of the expenses. Lets see:2(1.84)=three.sixty eight, we can not get three.22, we will attempt with the following possibility,: 2(1.84/2) = 1.84 , obviously,3(1.84/2) = 2.76 may be,4(1.84/2) = 6.68 once more we can not get 3.22, we can attempt with the following possibility,2(1.84/three) = 1.23 may be,3(1.84/three) = 1.23 , obviously,4(1.84/three) = 2.45 may be,5(1.84/three) = 3.07 may be,6(1.84/three) = 3.68 , once more we can not get three.22, we can attempt with the following possibility,2(1.84/4) = 0.92 , may be,3(1.84/4) = 1.38 may be,4(1.84/4) = 1.84 , obviously,5(1.84/4) = 2.3 may be,6(1.84/4) = 2.76 , may be,7(1.84/4) = three.22 we received any other cost! Two to go,8(1.84/4) = 3.68, may be,9(1.84/4) = 4.14 we received any other cost! One to go,10(1.84/4) = 4.6 may be,1(1.84/4) = 5.06 may be,1(1.84/4) = 5.2 done!Since (1.84/4) = 0.46 , the basic fee (fee of the electron) may be 0.46x 10 ^ - 14 el.Read more about experiment:
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different types of large and small subunits. b the same types of large and small subunits. c different types of large subunits but the same small subunits. d different types of small subunits but the same large subunits.
Ribosomes in the cytosol and those bound to the ER membrane contain the same types of large and small subunits. The correct answer is option(b).
Ribosomes are macromolecular machines, erect inside all containers, that perform organic protein combining. Ribosomes link amino acids together in the order particularized apiece codons of prophet RNA particles to form polypeptide chains. Ribosomes consist of two big elements: the limited and big ribosomal subunits.
ER membrane is, essentially, the transportation arrangement of the eukaryotic container, and has many different main functions to a degree of protein enclosing. It is a type of organelle made up of two subunits – harsh ER membrane, and smooth endoplasmic mesh.
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The complete question is:
Ribosomes that are free in the cytosol and those that are bound to the ER membrane have
a. different types of large and small subunits.
b. the same types of large and small subunits.
c. different types of large subunits but the same small subunits.
d. different types of small subunits but the same large subunits.
the body color of molly fish is controlled by several different genes. channel catfish homozygous for the recessive pigmentation gene have white coloration. the three-spined stickleback has a gene that controls the development of skeletal plates and the number of sensory cells in the lateral line. damselfish with the genotype bb have the barred color pattern. fish with the bb genotype lack bars. fish with the bb genotype display incomplete bars. in goldfish, the dominant m gene leads to dark coloration. for goldfish with an mm genotype, the s gene leads to a gold-colored fish, but the ss genotype causes albinism. mendelian inheritance press space to open complex inheritance press space to open
We know that complete inheritance refers to a pattern of inheritance in which the exchanging traits individuals are indistinguishable, and the traits are completely masked, whereas Mendelian inheritance is the transfer of certain patterns from parents to offspring.
As a result, we will attempt to state which inheritance examples belong to which inheritance.
1)Mendelian Inheritance in Goldfish ( Here, the observable traits are being inherited, Mendelian Inheritance deals with Autosomal dominance here with the M gene that is resposnsible for dark coloration)
2) Mendelian Inheritance in Damselfish (As the dominant homozygous genotype has a barred colour pattern, the recessive homozygous genotype lacks bars, and the heterozygous genotype has incomplete bars, all of which point to Mendelian Inheritance.)
3)Mendelian Inheritance in Chanel Catfish ( As recessive homozygous gene is responsible for white coloration)
4)Molly fish- Complete ancestry ( Several genes are responsible for the body colour of Molly fish which is single observable trait)
5)Stickleback- Complete Inheritance (The gene is solely responsible for the development of skeletal plats).
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Radiation is known to be _________ to human bodies.
A. helpful
B. effective
C. immune
D. dangerous
Answer: D
Explanation:
Answer:
B
Explanation:
because the it make Healthy our keep feel safe
individuals from which of the following backgrounds are least likely to experience emerging adulthood? group of answer choices western cultures high ses low ses all of these are equally likely to experience emerging adulthood
Emerging adulthood is predominantly found in developed countries mainly in western cultures. There most young people completing tertiary education, marrying and becoming parents at a median age of about 30.
Adulthood, the period of human lifespan in which people reach full physical and mental maturity. Adulthood is generally considered to begin when he is 20 or he is 21. From around 40 years old to middle age, around 60 years old to reach the old age.
"Emerging adulthood" is a term that describes the stage of development from about 18 to 29 years old, experienced by most people in their 20s in Westernized cultures and perhaps other parts of the world as well.
Growing adults share five traits: self-focus, instability, identity-seeking, in-between, and a sense of possibility. Emerging adulthood occurs in all ethnic, cultural, and socioeconomic groups, but the experience of emerging adulthood varies among groups.
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codominance cross with blood types (5 pts) a mother has ab blood and a father has type o blood. what is the probability that their offspring will have type a blood? can they have offspring with type o blood?
blood group Either A or B is the blood group their offspring can have and the probability is 50%.
If the father has the blood group O, his genotype is IOI LO or (ii). Because the mother is of blood type AB, her genotype is IAIB. Combinations of these two groups could result in children with genotypes IAIO or IBIO, giving them blood groups A or B, respectively. Thus, blood group O cannot be found in children if one of the parents is a member of the group. A blood type is a type of blood that is distinguished by the presence or absence of antibodies and inherited antigenic substances on the surface of red blood cells. Depending on the blood group system, these antigens can be proteins, carbohydrates, glycoproteins, or glycolipids.
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what is feedback inhibition? how enzymes catalyzing the irreversible reactions in glycolysis and krebs cycle are regulated by amp:atp ratio?
Feedback inhibition is the inhibition of an enzyme by a reaction product. As more glucose-6-phosphate is produced, the rate of reaction slows. Hexokinase governs the rate-limiting step of glycolysis in the brain and red blood cells.
Feedback inhibition regulates glycolysis. Cellular respiration is a multi-step process, including glycolysis, the citric acid cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation. Like many biochemical pathways, it is controlled in part by feedback inhibition: ATP, the end product of OXPHOS, inhibits the initiation of glycolysis. ATP, for example, is a "stop" signal: high levels mean the cell has enough ATP and doesn't need to make more through cellular respiration. This is a case of feedback inhibition, where a product "feeds back" to itself to close its path. Feedback inhibition is when a reaction product is used to regulate its own further production. Cells have evolved to use feedback inhibition to regulate enzyme activity in metabolism, using the products of enzyme reactions to inhibit further enzyme activity.
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a sodium potassium pump within a cell membrane requires energy to move sodium and potassium ions into or out of the cell the movement of glucose into and out of a cell does not require energy
Answer:
it's energy correct
Explanation:
hope u new itmarry Christmasclick and drag each structure into a category to determine whether it is associated with the axon terminal or the motor end plate.
Specialized chemical synapses called neuromuscular junctions, also known as motor end plates, are created when the terminal branches of a motor neuron's axon make contact with a target
What purpose does an axon neuron terminal serve?When activated by such an electric signals carried by axon, the neuron terminal is a specialized part of a neuron that is isolated from neuronal soma by such an axon that may be extremely long.
That motor end plate is where, exactly?engine end plate,Each muscle fiber has one neuromuscular junction, which is normally found close to the middle of the fiber.As a result, its motor end plate will be situated close to the muscle fiber's middle.
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6. explain how the process of transformation and restriction enzymes are used to turn out collectible quantities of certain proteins.
Restriction enzymes cleaves the plasmid DNA and ligase enzyme seals the selected part of DNA and plasmid vector for gene cloning to produce certain proteins
restriction nucleases' cleavage of DNA at certain locations, considerably facilitating the separation and modification of individual genes. When a single DNA molecule is cloned to create many billions of identical molecules, this process is known as DNA cloning. It can be done via cloning vectors or the polymerase chain reaction. The capacity of a particular DNA or RNA sequence to bind to a complementary nucleic acid sequence allows for nucleic acid hybridization
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Which scenario will most likely result in a change to the nitrogen cycle that negatively affects plant growth?.
The impact of changes in the nitrogen cycle on plants is that they will lack organic molecules to stimulate growth and give the green color to the leaves
The atmosphere is the layer of gases that repairs the Earth. The atmosphere also fixes the other planets in the solar system. Nitrogen is the most abundant gas found in the atmosphere and this gas has a function in plant growth.
The process of absorbing nitrogen from the atmosphere is carried out by nitrogen fixing bacteria, such as Rhizobium which live on plant roots. Bacteria capture atmospheric nitrogen and convert it into ammonia (NH3) which can be taken up by plants and used to make organic molecules. Nitrogen will be used as the main nutrient in the soil which plays a very important role in stimulating growth and giving the leaves a green color
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Pretend that you are doing a cloning. These are the steps:
1st step: A cloning vector (selective vector: β-Galactosidase/lac-Z) was cut with the restriction endonuclease Sma I, whose restriction site is:
C C C G G G
2nd step: The digested vector was treated with alkaline phosphatase to prevent the relegation of the plasmid.
3rd step: Your synthetic DNA of interest was inserted into the Sma I site in your vector.
Sequence of your fragment of interest:
5' G G A C T T A C T A C C C A A G T A 3'
3' C C T G A A T G A T G G G T T C A T 5'
Vector sequence indicating where the DNA fragment was inserted (Sma I site) in respect to the b-galactosidase gene (this is a blunt-end ligation!)
- ATG | ACC | ATG | ATT ACG | AAT | TCC | C GG | GGA -
↑
Sma I-cut
H3N- Met | Thr | Met | Ile | Thr | Asn | Ser | Arg | Gly --> functional b- galactosidase gene starts here
4th step: the digested vector and DNA fragment were ligated followed by a transformation into E. coli.
RESULTS: In the presence of the indicator X-gal, 52% of the colonies on the plate were blue and 48% were clear. The Blue colonies are not due to the re-ligation of the plasmid!
In this experiment, cloning failed because 52% formed blue colonies because it did not show the presence of the DNA we are interested in. Perhaps due to improper binding of the DNA to the vector, due to the sticky ends produced by the restriction enzymes, causing misfolding of the DNA or causing expression failure. And another reason may be because not every cell that is supposed to change is always changing, of the number of cells saved for transformation, only half of the cells show the transformation.
This problem provides an explanation of the steps for cloning E. Coli bacteria in the presence of an X-gal indicator, resulting in 52% of the colonies on the plate being blue and 48% clear.
In gene cloning, X-gal is used as a visual indication of whether a cell expresses a functional α-galactosidase enzyme in a technique called blue/clear screening. This screening method is an easy way to distinguish successful clones from unsuccessful ones.
Blue and clear selection is a method used to separate cells containing recombinant plasmids from cells containing plasmids without inserted DNA. The purpose of this selection is to find out whether the ligation process was successful or to find out the presence of inserted DNA. Successful ligation produces clear colonies.
Your question is incomplete, but maybe your question is complete "Give the most likely explanation for your result!"
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when a population goes from large to small genetic drift is more pronounced in the small population. what are two major reasons that populations go from large to small?
Natural selection is a process in which people who inherit particular traits have a higher chance of surviving and procreating than people who do not.
Genetic drift: a shift in a population's genetic makeup brought on by chance.
Which of the two forms of genetic drift are they?Population bottlenecks and the founder effect are the two main causes of genetic drift. They differ in terms of the processes and things that lead to them.
What normally happens when population size suddenly drops?A bottleneck effect may result from a huge random disaster that drastically reduces the population size. Populations are vulnerable to genetic drift due to the shrinkage of the gene pool, which also frequently results in a loss of diversity; random mutations have the potential to wipe out entire populations.
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what invertebrate index fossil group does sample b belong to? brachiopod what invertebrate index fossil group does sample c belong to
Trilobites, Ammonites, Brachiopods, Graptolites, and Nanofossils are a few examples of index fossils.
Any plant or animal that has been preserved in the Earth's rock record and is specific to a certain geologic period or environment is an index fossil. A suitable index fossil needs to be unique or easily identifiable, plentiful, have a broad geographic distribution, and have a limited time range.
The remains of extinct plants and animals are known as index fossils. The best index fossils are widespread, accessible, and simple to recognize. Ammonites, trilobites, and graptolites are a few of the most prevalent index fossils.
Sedimentary rocks are the main place to find index fossils. They are a crucial stratigraphic tool for comparing sedimentary rock's geological ages.
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which restriction enzyme would recognize and cut this section of dna? 5'-aacagctgtgca-3' 3'-ttgtcgacacgt-5'
EcoRI, a restriction endonuclease enzyme, recognizes the ssDNA sequence 5'-GAATTC'-3 and makes a single-strand cut between the G and A nucleotides.
A restriction enzyme, also known as a restriction endonuclease, REase, ENase, or restrictase, is an enzyme that cleaves DNA into fragments at or near restriction sites within molecules. Restriction enzymes are a subset of the larger endonuclease enzyme family. Restriction enzymes are commonly classified into five types based on their structure and whether they cut their DNA substrate at their recognition site or if the recognition and cleavage sites are distinct.
All restriction enzymes cut DNA by making two incisions, one through each sugar-phosphate backbone of the double helix. These enzymes, which are found in bacteria and archaea, serve as a defense mechanism against invading viruses.
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reduction of expression of a gene in fruit flies during early development causes the reduction of the anterior structures of one thoracic segment. what type of gene is it most likely to be?
Decreased gene expression in Drosophila during early development causes a decrease in the anterior structure of the thoracic segment. Segmentation Gene Gene Type Most Likely.
Segmentation genes are genes involved in the early stages of pattern formation, defining repeating units (metamers) in segmented organisms (usually embryos). They are divided into 3 groups: Gap genes, pair rule genes, segment polarity genes. A segmental gene is a general term for genes that have the function of specifying the organizational pattern of each repeating unit of a segmented organism. Animals are made up of segments. However, Drosophila segments also contain compartmentalized compartments. A gene is a segment of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) that encodes a specific protein that functions in one or more cell types in the body.
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Fungi a. typically reproduce sexually when environmental conditions are poOr: b. typically reproduce sexually when environmental conditions are good. c. always reproduce sexually: d. always reproduce asexually
male-only care is rare in birds but relatively common in fish. what two factors are hypothesized to explain this difference?
Plant growth and fertilization mode in which the main stem continues to extend indefinitely without being constrained by a terminal inflorescence or other reproductive structure.
Also known as determinate growth, it is characterized by successive flowering from the lateral or base buds to the central or highest buds.
Snakes have indeterminate growth, which indicates that there is no end point in time or size for their growth during their lives, but they can continue to expand in length until they die. Many snakes attain sexual maturity in roughly two years.
Here are a few examples of hypotheses: A straightforward hypothesis: A simple hypothesis predicts a link between two variables, one independent and one dependent.
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b cells are induced to switch to alternative immunoglobulin isotypes under the influence of which component?
B cells are induced to switch to alternative immunoglobulin isotypes under the influence cytokines made by TFH.
What are the functions of B cells?B cell also called B lymphocyte is a key player of the adaptive immune response that is responsible for humoral immunity in the mammals. Production of B cell in humans is a lifelong process that starts in the fetal liver intrauterine and bone marrow after birth and their development is from hematopoietic stem cells.
B - cells create a type of protein called antibody. These antibodies bind to pathogens such as toxins to neutralize them. For example, antibody can bind to a virus that prevents it from entering a normal cell and causing infection.
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the arrival of children: affects the frequency of sexual relations by increasing it. affects the frequency of sexual relations by decreasing it substantially. does not affect the frequency of sexual relations. affects the frequency of sexual relations only slightly, but there is a substantial increase in sexual satisfaction for mothers.
The arrival of children affects the frequency of sexual relations by decreasing it substantially. Your body needs to restore its hormone levels to those from before pregnancy after giving delivery.
Your sexual desire and sexual reaction may decrease as a result of this modification. For instance, women who breastfeed children may have vaginal dryness because breastfeeding lowers estrogen levels. The type of sexual relations you have and how frequently you have it will probably alter as a result of birth and motherhood. After having a baby, a woman's desire in sexual relations may recover in 1 to 3 months, however it's typical for it to take longer. You are free to resume sexual relations whenever you feel ready, unless your doctor has suggested otherwise. You're not alone if you don't feel particularly lusty after delivering a baby. During the first few months, it's typical for both men's and women's libido to reach its lowest point.
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_________, which is an autoimmune disorder caused by hyperthyroidism, is characterized by goiter and exophthalmos.
Answer:
graves disease
Explanation:
the population projection technique that allocates a projected population expansion to subregional areas is called:
Answer:
shift-share
Explanation:
hope it helps!
describe a positive coagulase test and its significance. describe how coagulase is a virulence factor. which pathogen produces coagulase
Staphylococcus aureus can be identified using the tube coagulase test as long as only a solid clot that does not move when the tube is tilted is regarded as a positive coagulation reaction.
Define coagulase test?
The coagulase test determines whether a substance contains the exoenzyme coagulase, which is responsible for causing blood plasma's fibrin to clot. it is done to determine the presence or absence of coagulase protein.
Aureus has a virulence factor called coagulase. This bacteria may shield an infection from phagocytosis by causing a clot to grow around it.
Hence ,Staphylococcus aureus can be distinguished from other coagulase-negative Staphylococcus species with this test.
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g to increase the amount of blood that goes to the brain and muscles, the body will. . . increase hr, increase stroke volume, increase bp, vasoconstrict peripheral arteries, vasodilate veins increase hr, increase stroke volume, increase bp, vasodilate peripheral arteries, vasconstrict veins increase hr, increase stroke volume, increase bp, vasoconstrict peripheral arteries, vasconstrict veins increase hr, increase stroke volume, decrease bp, vasodilate peripheral arteries, vasconstrict veins
To increase the amount of blood that goes to the brain and muscles, the body will d) vasconstrict veins increase hr, increase stroke volume, increase bp. So, option d is correct.
Our blood conveys oxygen and significant supplements all through your body, so it's truly critical to have a consistent, solid degree of blood stream to your mind. As a matter of fact, diminished blood stream to your cerebrum is related with various wellbeing concerns, including an expanded gamble of dementia, melancholy, and stroke. Luckily, it's really conceivable to work on your course and increment blood stream for a better cerebrum.
There are certain ways of expanding blood stream in our body parts like muscles and mind.
Eat more dull chocolate.Chew gum.Drink beet juice.Enjoy a lot of berries.Listen to your #1 music.Get a decent night's sleep.Exercise 3-4 times a week.Practice meditation.Stretch over the course of the day.Loosen your bowtie.Hence, option d is correct.
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(Complete question) is:
to increase the amount of blood that goes to the brain and muscles, the body will. . .
a)increase hr, increase stroke volume, increase bp,
b)vasoconstrict peripheral arteries, vasodilate veins increase hr, c)increase stroke volume, increase bp, vasodilate peripheral arteries,
d)vasconstrict veins increase hr, increase stroke volume, increase bp,
e)vasoconstrict peripheral arteries, vasconstrict veins increase hr, increase stroke volume, decrease bp,
f) vasodilate peripheral arteries, vasconstrict veins.