The model assumes the absence of competitive hierarchies among species are the dynamic equilibrium model the intermediate disturbance model.
Reversible manner is stated to be in dynamic equilibrium while the ahead and opposite tactics arise on the equal rate, ensuing in no observable extrade withinside the system.
Once dynamic equilibrium is established, the concentrations or partial pressures of all species worried withinside the manner continue to be constant.The intermediate disturbance speculation predicts that the very best range will arise at tiers of slight disturbance. We measured the species range, abundance, and species range of micro organism at the human frame in terms of disturbance through washing.
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most known bacteriophages have which type of morphology? group of answer choices siphovirus podovirus myovirus microvirus
Most known bacteriophages have siphovirus morphology. Therefore option A is correct.
Siphoviruses are a type of bacteriophage with a characteristic long, non-contractile tail, which distinguishes them from other types like myoviruses (contractile tails), podoviruses (short, stubby tails), and microviruses (icosahedral capsids without tails).
Siphoviruses attach to specific receptors on bacterial cell surfaces using their tail fibers and inject their genetic material into the host cell to reproduce and release new phage particles.
Their prevalence can be attributed to their ability to infect a wide range of bacterial species, making them important agents in controlling bacterial populations and potential tools in phage therapy for combating bacterial infections.
Therefore option A is correct.
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the genome found in the nucleus of eukaryotic species is usually organized in what way? multiple choice question.
Most eukaryotic organisms' nuclear genomes are composed of shaped sets of chromosomes.
What kind of DNA sequence is seen most frequently in eukaryotic genomes?Abstract. The majority of the nuclear DNA in most eukaryotic genomes is composed of repetitive DNA, which are sequence motifs repeated hundreds or thousands of times throughout the genome.
How are prokaryotic and eukaryotic genomes structured?A single circular chromosome makes up the majority of bacterial genomes. One or two sets of linear chromosomes that are contained to the nucleus make up the eukaryotic genome. A gene is a section of DNA that is translated into an RNA molecule that has biological function. Many eukaryote genes are interrupted by introns.
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what event that occurred around 10,000 years ago led to genetic changes in wheat? a) domestication of livestock b) mass extinction of herbivores c) domestication of the wheat plant d) invention of genetic engineering
Domestication of the wheat plant occurred around 10,000 years ago and resulted in genetic changes in wheat. The correct answer is option(c).
Domestication is a maintained multi-generational connection at which point persons assume an important strength of control over the duplication and care of another group of creatures to secure a more certain supply of possessions from that group.
The preparation of wheat about 10,000 before apparent an exciting retire the happening and development of human civilization, as it allowed the change from a chaser-hoarder and itinerant peaceful association to a more lazy agrarian individual. Domestication of the wheat plant occurred around 10,000 years ago and resulted in genetic changes in wheat.
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Biologists divide the biosphere into ______, which are the major types of ecosystems on earth.
Biomes, which are the primary divisions of ecosystems on Earth, are the biosphere. An ecosystem is a place where living organisms interact with one another and their surroundings as a functional and structural unit of ecology.
What possible relevance does the biosphere of Quizlet have?The biosphere is the highest level of ecological order. It encompasses every type of life and biome on the earth. The hydrology (water cycle), soil health, and atmospheric composition are all regulated by the biosphere, which also functions as the planet's life support system.
Which ecology can be found in the biosphere?The biosphere is sometimes thought of as one massive ecosystem, a complex community of living and nonliving items acting as a single organism.
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if a stressful situation is not resolved before glycogen is gone, the body enters which phase of gas during which the priority is to provide alternate fuels for metabolism?
In the Stage of Resistance phase of gas, the body's top concern is to supply alternative fuels for metabolism if a stressful condition is not remedied before glycogen runs out.
Long-term cortisol exposure can lower immune cells, encourage weight gain, induce muscle breakdown, increase glycogen retention, and reduce inflammatory response. The stressful reaction, often known as the fight-or-flight response, is brought on by the hormones that tell us whether to fight or escape. glycogen and cortisol, among other stressful hormones, are released by the nervous system in response to a threat, rousing the body to take stressful rapid action.
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antidiuretic hormone is: question 3 options: 1) a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex that regulates na+ reabsorption and k+ secretion by the kidneys. 2) hormone produced by the hypothalamus and released by the posterior pituitary. it stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb more water, reducing urine volume. 3) a hormone released by certain cells of the frontal lobe that reduces blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting nearly all events that promote vasoconstriction and na+ and water retention. 4) a hormone released by certain cells of the heart atria that reduces blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting nearly all events that promote vasoconstriction and na+ and water retention.
Option 2 is the correct one , Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is produced in the hypothalamus and transported to and released from the posterior pituitary gland, is a polypeptide hormone. ADH's main function is to control how much water is expelled by the kidneys.
ADH, sometimes referred to as vasopressin, enables the kidney tubules to directly reabsorb water, which concentrates salts and wastes in the urine that hypothalamus will eventually be expelled. Either through controlling blood volume or the amount of water in the circulation, the hypothalamus regulates the processes of ADH production. A rise in osmolarity exceeding 300 mOsm/L due to dehydration or physiological stress can increase ADH production and water retention, which in turn elevates blood pressure.
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By bombarding the fungus neurospora crassa with x-rays, beadle and tatum were able to study __________ and characterize enzymes in a __________.
Beadle and Tatum studied nutritional mutants and characterized enzymes in a biochemical pathway by irradiating the fungus Neurospora crassa with x-rays.
What two important conclusions came from Beadle and Tatum's research?With the help of genetic and biochemical investigations of the bread mold Neurospora, Beadle and Tatum were able to validate Garrod's theory. Mutants of bread mold that couldn't produce particular amino acids were found, according to Beadle and Tatum. A mutation has "broken" an enzyme required to synthesize a certain amino acid in each case.
What did Beadle and Tatum's work on Neurospora demonstrate?Through research on the red bread mold Neurospora crassa, George Beadle and Edward Tatum established the "one gene, one function" principle by demonstrating that genes act by controlling different chemical reactions.
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How could an activator influence gene expression at a promoter far away from the place that it binds dna?.
An activator could influence gene expression at a promoter far away from the place that it binds dna as a Mediator protein is stimulated by the bound activator, and then the Mediator stimulates transcription.
What is a mediator?The Mediator is described as a multiprotein complex that functions as a transcriptional coactivator in all eukaryotes that was discovered in 1990 in the lab of Roger D. Kornberg, recipient of the 2006 Nobel Prize in Chemistry.
The activator directly binds to RNA polymerase, which then skips over a large region of DNA to start transcription will not influence gene expression at a promoter far away from the place that it binds dna.
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Match the following vocabulary words with their definitions.
1.an oval having both ends alike gravity 2.the natural force that makes objects move or tend to move toward each other aphelion 3.the path of the earth or any planet around the sun ellipse 4.to move around a center or axis rotate 5.instrument for making distant objects appear nearer, larger, and brighter perihelion 6.the point in a planet's orbit that is farthest from the sun revolution 7.the point in a planet's orbit that is nearest the sun orbit 8.movement around some point in a circle or curve telescope 9.a formal written work dealing with some subject treatise
1. An oval having both ends like gravity - Ellipse, 2. The natural force that makes objects move or tend to move toward each other aphelion - Gravity, 3. The path of the earth or any planet around the sun ellipse - Orbit, 4. To move around a center or axis rotate - Rotate.
5. Instrument for making distant objects appear nearer, larger, and brighter perihelion - Telescope,
6. The point in a planet's orbit that is farthest from the sun revolution - Aphelion
7. The point in a planet's orbit that is nearest the sun orbit - Perihelion
8. Movement around some point in a circle or curve telescope - Revolution
9. A formal written work dealing with some subject treatise - Treatise
Gravity is a fundamental interaction that causes shared feeling 'tween the entirety accompanying bulk or strength. A planet is a heavenly body that (a) is in influence by the Sun, (b) has adequate bulk for allure self-seriousness to overcome severe physique forces for fear that it acquires a hydrostatic balance (almost round) shape, and (c) has emptied the neighborhood about allure domain.
The planets, orderly of their distance outward from the Sun, are Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune.
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Answer:
guy above me is right I think
Explanation:
I like turtles
what significant characteristics related to emphysema and heart failure would you expect to observe in mr. c.y.? .
by observation the hypoxia induced by emphysema could indeed lead to pulmonary vasoconstriction, where it creates opposition to the right ventricle and inability, likely to result in the patient exhibiting symptoms of CHF.
His breathing will be hampered by both of these issues; if blood does not reach the lungs and air does not enter the lungs, the problem is exacerbated. However, hypoxia is most commonly caused by human-caused factors, particularly nutrient pollution (also known as eutrophication). Agricultural runoff, fossil-fuel combustion, and wastewater treatment effluent are all sources of nutrient pollution, specifically nitrogen and phosphorus nutrients. Emphysema is a lung illness that affects the terminal bronchioles (tiny air sacs). The alveolar walls are responsible for the exchange of oxygen and carbon
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If a baby is born prematurely before type II cells produce sufficient pulmonary surfactant, which of the following might you expect? a. difficulty expressing fluid b. difficulty inflating the lungs c. difficulty with pulmonary capillary flow d. no difficulty as type I cells can provide enough surfactant for normal breathing
Premature birth causes pulmonary inflation difficulties because type II cells are unable to create enough pulmonary surfactant.
What use does pulmonary surfactant serve?It is known that pulmonary surfactant lowers surface tension in the alveoli at the air-water interface, limiting the collapse of these structures at end-expiration. Surfactant lessens the effort required for breathing in this way.
How can surfactant stop the collapse of the lungs?The lung cells exude surfactant, which distributes throughout the alveolar tissue. This chemical reduces surface tension, which facilitates easy breathing by preventing the collapse of the alveoli following exhalation. A complex mixture of proteins and phospholipids called pulmonary surfactant works to lower surface tension at the alveolar-air interface, preventing atelectasis.
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according to recent finding on human mutation rates based on genome sequencing, what is the most common type of mutation in humans?
In actuality, the G-T mutation is the one that occurs most frequently in human DNA. It happens once every 10,000 to 100,000 base pairs, which doesn't sound like much until you remember that the human genome has about three billion base pairs.
Viruses, which can have either RNA or DNA genomes, have the greatest per base pair per generation mutation rates. The mutation rates of DNA viruses range from 106 to 108 mutations per base each generation, while those of RNA viruses range from 103 to 105 mutations per base per generation.
Cystic fibrosis, hemophilia, and sickle cell disease are examples of hereditary mutations. Throughout a person's life, other mutations may occur on their own. Spontaneous, sporadic, or new mutations are the terms used to describe them. Only a few cells are affected.
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Choose the answer that lists the steps involved in the depolarization of a neuron during an action potential in the correct order.
1. Action potential stimulus.
2. Active transport of sodium and potassium ions.
3. Inactivation gates close.
4. Movement of potassium ions out of the cell.
5. Movement of sodium ions into the cell.
6. Opening of potassium channels.
7. Opening of sodium activation gates.
Which cli-based configuration should you provide on the router to enable it to send data to cisco dna center?
The telemetry profiles set up in this procedure are used by Cisco DNA Center to choose which telemetry types to capture. The health of network devices is then monitored using these data types.
your intent-based network for the enterprise is called Cisco DNA Center. All of your network devices can be provisioned and configured in a matter of minutes. To proactively monitor, troubleshoot, and optimize your network, use cutting-edge artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning (ML).
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q4.1. without mutations, and with no crabs present, snails produce offspring that have the same shell thickness as themselves (they clone themselves). will this change when you add crabs? why or why not?
No, because there is no mechanism for a snail to produce offspring with a different shell thickness from itself, thus the answer option (D).
The population does not experience changes in shell thickness. Some snails in the population experience changes in shell thickness.
Predators are creatures that go on the search for prey to eat. There are various creatures that prey on crabs, including otters, alligators, fish, and even shrimp (they eat the larvae). Predators are animals that hunt other animals or living things for food, whereas prey is little animals or organisms that eat the food that the predator leaves behind after it has eaten it.
The interaction between the predator and the prey is represented in the ecosystem by a food chain, sometimes referred to as a food web. For the ecosystem's food chain to function properly and keep the population in check.
The complete question is:
Without mutations, and with no crabs present, snails produce offspring that have the same shell thickness as themselves (they clone themselves). will this change when you add crabs? why or why not?
(A). Yes, now snails will grow thicker shells to protect themselves and they will pass these thicker shells to their offspring.
(B). Yes, now snails will try to protect their offspring from crabs by making offspring with thicker shells.
(C). Yes, the population will evolve thicker shells through natural selection.
(D). No, because there is no mechanism for a snail to produce offspring with a different shell thickness from itself.
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the designation for the renal arrangement of structures that facilitates the movement of solutes between blood vessels is called the
The kidney's renal artery filtering organ, the glomerulus, is a unique collection of capillaries that is sandwiched between two resistance vessels. The only capillary beds in the body that are not bordered by interstitial tissue are these capillaries, which are all confined within the Bowman's capsule.
The renal artery initially separates into segmental arteries, then it continues to branch to create interlobar arteries, which then go via the renal artery columns to the capillaries ,cortex. The interlobar arteries subsequently divide into afferent arterioles, capillaries arcuate arteries, and cortical radiate arteries.
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The process of two species changing genetically in response to long-term interactions with each other is.
Coevulation is the process through which two species undergo genetic change in response to ongoing contact. The most general definition of coevolution is when two groups of organisms influence one other's evolution in opposite directions.
What is an example of coevolution?One of the most prevalent instances of coevolution is the predator-prey relationship. In this sense, there is a selective pressure on the prey to evade capture, necessitating the evolution of the predator into a more proficient hunter.
Why does coevolution occur?This concept's underlying "game theory" may involve competition between species (as in interspecific competition) or within species (as in competition between various morphs of the same species) for resources like food or females.
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in the gi tract, a food bolus is converted into a semiliquid mass of partly digested food and digesteive secretions known as
In the Gi tract, a food bolus is converted into a semiliquid mass of partly digested food and digestive secretions known as chyme.
What is bolus?
Saliva combined with food after it has been chewed. Food particles are chemically reduced, hydrated for taste, and lubricated for easy swallowing when chewed to a size that can be easily swallowed. Saliva contributes digestive enzymes, water, and mucus that help in these processes.
What is digestive tracts?
The release of water, acids, enzymes, buffers, and salts is known as secretion in the digestive tract. digestive tract epithelium.
Food is transformed into chyme, a semi-liquid state that can be digested, from which it can be consumed (mixture of partly digested food and digestive secretions).
Therefore, e Gi tract, a food bolus is converted into a semiliquid mass of partly digested food and digestive secretions known as chyme.
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How does photosynthesis connect to cells and transport? Explain.
Answer:
Photosynthetic electron transport is the first stage of photosynthesis that produces chemically stored energy and uses solar photons to drive electron transport against a thermodynamic gradient.
according to kinetic molecular theory, gas particles: select the correct answer below: exert attractive forces amongst one another exert repulsive forces amongst one another exert both attractive and repulsive forces amongst one another none of the above
None of the above. Between gas particles or between the particles and the container walls, there is no force of attraction. Gas particle collisions and impacts with the container's walls are both fully elastic.
The observed correlations between a gas's pressure, volume, and temperature are frequently not ideal, which means that the gas laws do not fully capture these interactions. The causes of these departures from the behavior of an ideal gas are taken into account in this section.
Gas molecules behave almost exactly like ideal gas particles at relatively low pressures because they are (on average) so widely apart and have virtually no attraction for one another. However, the force of attraction is also no longer negligible at higher pressures. This force marginally reduces the pressure (assuming the volume is constant) or decreases the volume by drawing the molecules closer together (at constant pressure). Due to the molecules' lower KE in comparison to the attractive forces, which makes them less able to overcome these forces after interacting with one another, this change is more pronounced at low temperatures.
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microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive rods. what is the organism? group of answer choices streptococcus listeria naegleria haemophilus neisseria
Listeria is the microscopic examination of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive rods.
cerebrospinal fluid reveals -CSF (shown in blue) is produced by the tissue that lines the ventricles (hollow spaces) in the brain. It circulates in and around the brain and spinal cord, protecting and nourishing them.
Listeria is a bacterial genus that lives as an intracellular parasite in mammals. Until 1992, there were 17 species known, each with two subspecies. 21 species had been identified by 2020. The genus is named after the British sterile surgery pioneer. Lister, Joseph
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help meeeeeeeeeeeeeeee pleaseeeeeeehelp meeeeeeeeeeeeeeee pleaseeeeeeehelp meeeeeeeeeeeeeeee pleaseeeeeeehelp meeeeeeeeeeeeeeee pleaseeeeeeehelp meeeeeeeeeeeeeeee pleaseeeeeeehelp meeeeeeeeeeeeeeee pleaseeeeeee
Answer:
1. C
2. A
3. B
100% right
Explanation:
1.D
2.A
3.B
I hope it's useful
explain the reason a man with rh-positive blood might be the father of a rh-negative blood child? g
When her antibodies enter the infant's bloodstream, they attack those cells. Red blood cells in the infant may swell and rupture as a result of this. This is referred to as newborn hemolytic disease or Rh disease. A baby's blood count may drop dramatically as a result.
A person is referred to as Rh positive or Rh negative depending on whether or not their blood contains the protein known as the Rh factor. Marriage between a Rh-negative female and a Rh-positive male should be avoided.
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consider a certain species of grasshopper with a body that exhibits two phenotypes for pattern: 1) light green spots and 2) solid color with no spots. the solid allele is dominant, and the green-spotted allele is recessive. for a total of 487 grasshoppers, 445 are solid and 42 have green spots. a. list and describe all possible genotypes and phenotypes. b. what is the phenotypic frequency of the grasshoppers that have no spots? (round answer to two decimal places.) c. what is the phenotypic frequency of the green-spotted grasshoppers? (round answer to two decimal places.) d. calculate the frequency of the recessive allele in this population. (round answer to two decimal places.) e. calculate the frequency of the dominant allele in this population. f. explain why the phenotypic frequency and genotypic frequency of the green spotted grasshoppers is the same value. g. explain why the phenotypic frequency and genotypic frequency of the solid grasshoppers is not the same value.
1. Potential phenotypes and genotypes
Solid HH (homozygous dominant)Solid Hh (heterozygous), and green spots are homozygous recessive (hh).2. The frequency of grasshoppers with no spots is [tex]\frac{445}{487}[/tex] , equal [tex]0.9138[/tex] (2 decimal places= 0.91)
3. The frequency of green-spotted grasshopper phenotypes is [tex]\frac{42}{487}[/tex], or [tex]0.08624[/tex] (0.09 = 2 decimal places)
4. The frequency of the recessive allele= The[tex]\sqrt{ genotypic frequency of homozygous recessives}[/tex] = [tex]\sqrt{0.08624}[/tex] = 0.29
Hardy Weinberg. Equation: [tex]p^{2} + 2pq+q^{2} =1 and p+q=1[/tex], and
p= frequency of the dominant allele
q = Recessive allele frequency
[tex]p^{2}[/tex] = homozygous dominant genotypic frequency
2pq = genotypic frequency of heterozygotes
[tex]q^{2}[/tex] = homozygous recessive genotypic frequency
The answer to question C's calculation [tex]q^{2}[/tex] is 0.08624, or the homozygous recessive frequency of grasshoppers with green spots.
As a result, q, the frequency of the recessive allele = [tex]\sqrt{q}^{2}[/tex] = √0.08624 = 0.29 (rounded to 2 decimal places)
5.. Dominant allele frequency is 0.71.
P + q = 1 according to the Hardy-Weinberg equation.
The ratio of the recessive and dominant allele frequencies must be 1.
We estimated that the recessive allele's frequency was 0.29.
As a result, [tex]1-0.29 = 0.71[/tex] is the frequency of the dominant allele (or q).
6. Because there is only ONE GENOTYPE (hh) of green spotted grasshoppers, the genotypic and phenotypic frequencies of these insects are identical. Remember that this is equivalent to the q2 value that we calculated the frequency of the recessive allele for in question D.
7. Because there are multiple genotypes (Hh and), the phenotypic frequency of solid grasshoppers is NOT the same as the genotypic frequency.
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TRUE/FALSE. establishing a family history of osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, or ankylosing spondylitis is important because of its known genetic component.
TRUE if the genetic component of a family history of osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis, or ankylosing spondylitis is significant.
What are rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, and osteoarthritis?Ankylosing spondylitis (AS) and rheumatoid arthritis (RA) are two of the most prevalent rheumatic illnesses. The joint degradation and decline in physical fitness are caused by these chronic progressive inflammatory disorders. [1] Their symptomatology and etiology differ despite being closely related.
What aspects of a patient's condition might point to a higher risk of osteoarthritis?Age: As people get older, their chance of having OA rises. Gender—After the age of 50, women are more likely than males to acquire OA. Obesity—Extra weight increases the strain on joints, especially those that bear the body's weight, including the hips and knees.
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g assume an aneurysm has widened a blood vessel from a diameter of 1 cm to a diameter of 4 cm. what is the velocity v1 of blood flow in the region of the aneurysm relative to the velocity v0 in the healthy portion of the blood vessel.
"Familial aneurysms" are defined as two or more aneurysms in first-degree relatives (parent, child, or sibling). These families may have members who are more likely to experience aneurysms than the general population.
An abdominal aortic Familial aneurysms (AAA) is a persistent focal dilatation that is 50% larger than the healthy, neighboring aorta's typical diameter (figure 1). True arterial aneurysms most frequently occur in the abdominal aorta, especially in the infrarenal aorta, which is the portion of the aorta below the renal arteries. The presence of previous major artery aneurysms, atherosclerosis, male sex, White ethnicity, advanced age, and male sex are all well-defined risk factors for the development of AAA. Other risk factors include smoking and being a smoker. during the last 20 years, while diminishing.
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antioxidants are natural and synthetic molecules that inhibit the reactions of reactive oxygen species (ros). which vitamins/minerals are examples of nonenzymatic antioxidants? select all that apply.
Glutathione, carotenoids, vitamin C, and vitamin E are examples of non-enzymatic antioxidants.
Antioxidants are substances that may shield your cells from free radicals, which may be the cause of cancer, heart disease, and other illnesses. Molecules known as free radicals are produced when your body breaks down food, is exposed to radiation or tobacco smoke, or both.
Non-enzymatic Antioxidants prevent free radical chain reactions from continuing. Glutathione, carotenoids, vitamin C, and vitamin E are a few examples of non-enzymatic antioxidants. The antioxidants can also be categorized according to their solubility in water or lipids. There are two types of antioxidants: those that dissolve in water and those that dissolve in lipids.
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Your tongue is covered in bumps called papillae. Papillae have taste receptors that are bundled together (taste buds). Taste buds have microscopic hairs called microvilli which send nerve impulses to the brain. However, your nose plays a role too! While you’re chewing, the food releases chemicals that travel up your nose and trigger olfactory receptors which also send nerve impulses to the brain to help you interpret the true flavor of what you’re eating. With this information, explain why a cold or allergies can diminish the flavor of your food.
During eating, the tongue and nose receptors collaborate to send signals to the brain that can provide an idea of the flavor. When one has a cold, the nose does not work well enough to detect smell of the food.
What is the role of receptors in the body?Many receptors on various cell types function differently, such as the tongue receptor, which sends food taste information to the brain. The nose receptors send the food smell to the olfactory region of the brain, but when a person becomes allergic or cold, the nose receptors stop working properly, and the smell does not reach the brain.
Hence, due to these reasons, the nose cannot smell and the person gets little flavor from the food.
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11. explain what probably caused the increase in the pecentage of white rabbits. interpreting observations
Natural selection caused the increase in the percentage of white rabbits.
Natural selection is most likely to blame for the increase in the percentage of white rabbits. The hawks would not have been able to see the rabbits in the winter because of their white coat. As a result, the hawks would have mostly killed dark gray rabbits.
Natural selection is the process by which living organism populations adapt and change. Individuals in a population are naturally variable, which means they differ in some ways. This variation indicates that some people have traits that are better suited to their environment than others.
Natural selection is the mechanism proposed by Darwin for evolution. Because resources are limited in nature, organisms with heritable traits that favor survival and reproduction leave more offspring than their peers, causing the traits to become more common over generations.
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in positive control of several sugar-metabolism-related operons, the camp receptor protein (crp) binds to dna to stimulate transcription. which of the following events activates crp? in positive control of several sugar-metabolism-related operons, the camp receptor protein (crp) binds to dna to stimulate transcription. which of the following events activates crp? increase in glucose and decrease in camp decrease in glucose and increase in repressor increase in glucose and increase in camp decrease in glucose and increase in camp
A protein called CRP (cAMP receptor protein) is present in bacteria. A regulatory protein, that is.
When CRP binds to cAMP, a conformational shift occurs that causes CRP to bind to particular locations on DNA promoters. This interacts with RNA polymerase to activate transcription. CRP activity increases in response to a drop in glucose and a rise in cAMP. When glucose acts as a carbon source, cAMP levels are low. This results from the adenylate cyclase enzyme being inhibited (cAMP producing enzyme). Therefore, a drop in glucose will result in an increase in cAPM.
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