Answer:
C. Larceny
Explanation:
The crime that does not involve interpersonal violence is C. Larceny. Larceny is a crime that involves theft or stealing of property without the use of force or violence against a person.
On the other hand, the crimes listed in options A, B, and D all involve interpersonal violence. Homicide is the act of killing another person, assault involves physically harming or threatening to harm someone, and manslaughter is the act of killing someone without intent, often due to negligence or recklessness.
It's important to note that all of these crimes are serious offenses and can result in severe consequences for those convicted of them.
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Four ways in wich the rule of law could protect community membes whose private property was damaged during a protest action
Answer:
The Four Ways = Civil Litigation, Criminal Prosecution, Police Protection, and Injunctions
Explanation:
Criminal prosecution: The rule of law requires that those who commit criminal acts, such as damaging private property, be held accountable for their actions. Community members could report the damage to the authorities, who could then investigate the incident and pursue criminal charges against those responsible.
Civil litigation: The rule of law also provides for civil remedies, such as suing the individuals or groups responsible for the damage. Community members could file a lawsuit seeking compensation for the damage caused to their property.
Police protection: The rule of law requires that law enforcement agencies protect citizens and their property. Community members could request police protection to prevent further damage to their property during future protests.
Injunctions: The rule of law provides for injunctions to prevent individuals or groups from engaging in certain activities, such as damaging private property. Community members could seek an injunction to prevent future damage to their property during protests
Choose ten (10) law enforcement agencies or occupations where you would like to work in the future, in accordance with the practice of the criminology profession as stated in RA 11131. Explain each law enforcement agency in 50 words you have chosen why you will be joining.
The 10 law enforcement agencies under the practice of criminology as stated in RA 11131 are:
Philippine Coast Guard (PCG)Bureau of Immigration (BI)National Prosecution Service (NPS)Public Attorney's Office (PAO)Forensic Science ServicesPhilippine National Police (PNP)National Bureau of Investigation (NBI)Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP)Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA)What is informs these law enforcement agencies?The descriptions are as follows:
Philippine Coast Guard (PCG) - responsible for ensuring the safety and security of the country's maritime jurisdiction and protecting its marine environment.
Bureau of Immigration (BI) - responsible for implementing the country's immigration laws and policies and managing the entry and exit of foreign nationals.
National Prosecution Service (NPS) - responsible for the prosecution of criminal cases and the protection of the rights of victims and witnesses.
Public Attorney's Office (PAO) - provides free legal assistance to indigent clients and serves as the legal defender of the poor.
Forensic Science Services - provide scientific and technical services to support the investigation of crimes and the administration of justice, including crime scene investigation, DNA analysis, and forensic pathology.
Philippine National Police (PNP) - the country's primary law enforcement agency that maintains peace and order and prevents and suppresses crime.
National Bureau of Investigation (NBI) - the country's premier investigative agency that conducts high-level and complex criminal investigations and provides intelligence support to law enforcement agencies.
Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP) - responsible for the safekeeping, reformation, and rehabilitation of persons deprived of liberty.
Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP) - responsible for preventing and suppressing fires and responding to other emergency situations.
Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA) - responsible for implementing the government's anti-drug campaign and enforcing drug laws.
I would be joining them because I would like to make the world a safe place to be as a law abiding citizen that I am.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. Kyrin is the information technology director for the police department in Newburgh, Indiana. She is responsible for purchasing and maintaining all technology-related equipment and services for the department including computers, printers, body cameras, in-car video devices, servers, and networking equipment. She often buys from CDW, a technology-related firm, and appreciates the opportunity to work with dedicated account executives who are experienced in assisting _______ accounts like the police department.
Answer: Government/public sector
Explanation:
Government/public sector. Kyrin appreciates the opportunity to work with dedicated account executives who are experienced in assisting government/public sector accounts like the police department.
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She often buys from CDW, a technology-related firm, and appreciates the opportunity to work with dedicated account executives who are experienced in assisting government accounts like the police department.
Kyrin works for a government department and therefore she is bound to help government and as she is also the information technology director for the police department in Newburgh, Indiana. She is responsible for purchasing and maintaining all technology-related equipment and services for the department including computers, printers, body cameras, in-car video devices, servers, and networking equipment.
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What is fiscal policy
Answer:
government spending and tax policies to influence economic conditions, especially macroeconomic conditions
The person considered to be the leader of the national executive branch is known as?
Answer:
President
Explanation:
The President of the United States or the Prime Minister in some cases of different countries.
us gaas use two categories of professional requirements a identified as conditional and presumptively mandatory b identified as mandatory and presumptively mandatory c which, if relevant, require compliance without departure d to describe the degree of responsibility it imposes on auditors
The two categories of professional requirements used by US GAAS are identified as "unconditional" and "presumptively mandatory." Unconditional requirements are those that require compliance without departure, while presumptively mandatory requirements allow for some flexibility, as long as the auditor can justify any departure from the requirement. Option A.
It is important for auditors to understand and adhere to these professional requirements in order to conduct an audit that is in accordance with US GAAS. Unconditional requirements must be followed without exception, while presumptively mandatory requirements allow for some flexibility, as long as the auditor can justify any departure from the requirement.
By following these requirements, auditors can ensure that they are conducting an audit that is in accordance with US GAAS and providing an accurate and reliable assessment of the entity's financial statements.
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ON
Velma Signer presents a document to be notarized. The document lists
Velma as a co-signer on her granddaughter's new apartment. Velma
does not seem lucid and struggles to answer questions, but her son is
there to help her. Which of the following is a viable option?
Ask Velma's son to call through as a signer.
Confirm Velma knows what she is signing and if she cannot answer
the question without assistance, refuse to notarize the document
and terminate the meeting.
Notarize the document because she trusts her son.
Ask them to find a witness to the notarization.
Option (b), Verify Velma understands the document she is signing, and if she is unable to respond to the question on her own, you have the option of refusing to notarize it and ending the meeting.
What is involved in the process of acknowledging a document?An acknowledgment, which is used after the signer's identification has been verified, is a signer's declaration to a notary or other notarial official that they freely signed a document.
What happens if an agreement is not notarized?According to the Civil Code, a contract is deemed valid and legally binding if all of its constituent parts—namely, consent, object, and cause—are present. So, even if a contract is not notarized, it is still enforceable as long as these requirements are followed.
What legal significance does a notarized document have?After being notarized, a private document becomes public and can be used as evidence in court without further attestation of its validity. A notarial document is legally required to be given full faith and credit when looked at from the front.
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The most effective safety measures involving roadway infrastructure include. A. Physical barriers only. B. Road markings only c. A combination of features!
Answer:
A combination of features
Explanation:
A plaintiff filed a breach of contract action based on diversity jurisdiction in federal district court. In her answer, the defendant alleged that she was not liable to the plaintiff due to a novation. The plaintiff did not reply to this allegation and the court did not order the plaintiff to do so. How should the court treat the defendant's novation allegation?
As denied by the plaintiff, because the plaintiff was not required to respond to the defendant's pleading.
Under Rule 7(a)(7), a reply to the defendant's answer is made only when the plaintiff is ordered to do so by the court. Thus, the plaintiff is deemed to deny any allegations in the defendant's answer, including any affirmative defenses, if not ordered to reply. Answer choice A is incorrect because, while generally a defendant is required to respond in her answer to allegations made by the plaintiff in the complaint, the plaintiff is prohibited from responding to an answer unless ordered to do so by the court. Consequently, allegations contained in the defendant's answer are deemed denied unless the court orders the plaintiff to reply to the answer.
The court should treat the defendant's novation allegation as denied by the plaintiff.
This is because under Rule 7(a)(7) of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, a reply to the defendant's answer is made only when the plaintiff is ordered to do so by the court. If the court does not order the plaintiff to reply, then the plaintiff is deemed to deny any allegations in the defendant's answer, including any affirmative defenses. Therefore, the defendant's novation allegation is treated as denied by the plaintiff, even though the plaintiff did not actually reply to the allegation.
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answers.
The Principles of Research Ethics
See Blackboard (Maxfield's Ch. 3) for
1. Classify each of the following ethical violations into one
of the following ethical principles:
a. Do no harm
b. Ensure privacy
c. Obtain voluntary and informed consent
d. Get permission
e. Avoid sponsorship bias and suppression
f. Prevent misrepresentation
g. Ensure the safety of researchers
Ethical Violation
A criminologist conducts a study on the effectiveness of a new violent
inmate rehabilitation program at the request of the program developer, a
for-profit company. She determines that the program is largely
ineffective. A few weeks later, she reads in the paper that the state prison
authorities have adopted this program because it "has been evaluated by a
competent criminologist and has been found to be effective".
A tribal police department has asked you to evaluate an alcohol
dependency program being offered on a Seminole Indian reservation. You
immediately travel to the reservation and begin interviewing patients, all
alcohol dependent, in the treatment facility. You presume that since the
tribal police department invited you to evaluate the program, you can get
started right away.
Two CUNY graduate students have been assigned to conduct field
observations of adults who 'hang out' on street corners. The research site
is a known New York City high crime area. When one of the students'
expresses concern about their safety, the research director says, "Don't
worry about it. What could possibly happen?"
You have been asked to determine the extent to which NYPD enforces
marijuana laws. You hire five students and ask them to openly smoke
marijuana in various public places. You want to see if the police confront
them.
After conducting a case study of a child who had been the victim of
bullying in high school, you realize that others might be able to determine
the identity of the research subject (the minor). You decide to publish the
results anyway because you have the guardian's permission, and you
doubt that anyone will read your article.
At the request of the 112th precinct police chief, you are conducting
research on the work habits of rookie police officers. You tell the officers
about the nature of the study and the information you are going to collect
in interviews with them. You also suggest that their failure to participate
in the department approved' research project will be reported to the chief.
After analyzing the data from a study, you are conducting on a drug use
prevention program, you find that your results are not as definitive as you
had predicted. You suspect that some of the data may have been coded
wrong, so you change some of the data. This changes the results
dramatically and 'proves' that you were right.
Principle
The rules of conduct for scientists who perform research are governed by research ethics. Respecting the dignity, rights, and wellbeing of study participants requires adherence to ethical norms.
What core principles of research ethics are there?Research ethics refers to the application of fundamental ethical principles to research activities, such as the design and conduct of research, respect for society and other people, the use of resources and research outputs, scientific misconduct, and the regulation of research.
Any dangers or undesirable outcomes should be outweighed by the research's value. While focusing on the research's potential advantages, researchers should aim to reduce any dangers to participants and themselves. To lessen any danger of harm, it is important to take strong safety precautions.
A for-profit organization that developed the program commissioned a criminologist to investigate the success of a new violent criminal rehabilitation program. She comes to the conclusion that the software is essentially useless. A few weeks later, she discovers in the newspaper that this program has been adopted by the state prison system because it "has been studied by a competent criminologist and has been determined to be effective".- f. Prevent misrepresentationYou have been asked to assess a Native American reservation's alcohol treatment program by the tribal police department. As soon as you arrive at the reservation, you start interrogating the facility's patients, who are all alcoholics. You assume that you may begin right away because the tribal police department invited you to examine the program.- d. Get permissionTwo graduate students have been given the task of observing children who "hang around" on street corners in the field. An location with a history of high crime is the research site. The study director tells a student who worries about their safety, "Don't worry about it. What might possibly occur?- g. Ensure the safety of researchersYou are to determine the level of marijuana law enforcement carried out by the neighborhood police force. Ten college students are hired, and you want them to publicly smoke marijuana in a number of public settings. You're interested in whether the police approach them.- a. Do no harmYou discover that others might be able to identify the research subject after doing a case study of a kid who had been the target of bullying at school (the child). Because you have the guardian's consent and you don't think anyone would read your publication, you decide to publish the results nevertheless.- b. Ensure privacyarticle.
You are looking into the work habits of police personnel at the request of the neighborhood police chief. You explain to the officers the purpose of the study and the data you will gather from them during interviews. Additionally, you say that the chief will be informed of their absence from the "department-approved" study project.- c. Obtain voluntary and informed consentYou discover that your findings are not quite as conclusive as you had anticipated after examining the data from a study you are doing on a drug use prevention program. You alter some of the data because you think that some of it may have been incorrectly coded. This significantly alters the outcomes and "proves" your point.- e. Avoid sponsorship bias and suppressionLearn more about Research ethics: https://brainly.com/question/30409807
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T/F. In Chapter 1, Iris Marion Young is referenced as proposing that we understand differences of culture, social perspective, or particularistic commitment as resources to draw on for reaching understanding in democratic discussion rather than as divisions that must be overcome.
The given statement "In Chapter 1, Iris Marion Young is referenced as proposing that we understand differences of culture, social perspective, or particularistic commitment as resources to draw on for reaching understanding in democratic discussion rather than as divisions that must be overcome" is True because Iris Marion Young, a philosopher, feminist, and political theorist, believed that democratic dialogue is an essential aspect of a democratic society.
She also stated that differences of culture, social perspective, or particularistic commitment should be regarded as resources to draw on for reaching understanding in democratic discussion rather than as divisions that must be overcome.
The more diverse a society, the more crucial it is to develop democratic communication skills that allow for critical dialogue among individuals and groups with differing viewpoints. Differences should not be seen as obstacles to communication, but rather as a source of strength that contributes to the creation of innovative solutions to issues that are common to everyone.
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Ebony Robinson plans to file a civil lawsuit against Luchiea Grissom based on the fact that Luchiea negligently applied a harmful chemical to Ebony's hair, which caused her hair to fall out. Under these facts: (A) Ebony should start her lawsuit by filing a complaint with the court. (B) Ebony should start her lawsuit by filing a motion for directed verdict with the court. (C) Ebony should start her lawsuit by filing an answer with the court. (D) Ebony should start her lawsuit by filing a counter-claim with the court
Due to Luchiea Grissom's carelessness in using a dangerous chemical on Ebony Robinson's tresses, Ebony Robinson intends to sue her in civil court.Ebony should start her lawsuit by filing a complaint with the court. option A is correct.
A complaint is a legal document that sets out the facts of the case, the legal claims being made, and the relief being sought. In this case, the complaint would allege that Luchiea negligently applied a harmful chemical to Ebony's hair, causing it to fall out, and would ask the court for damages to compensate for the harm suffered. Filing a complaint is the first step in starting a civil lawsuit. It initiates the legal process and notifies the defendant (Luchiea) of the lawsuit and the legal claims being made against her. Once the complaint is filed, the defendant will have an opportunity to respond, and the case will proceed through the legal system.
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What is the probable cause for the Issuance of a warrant of arrest
Answer:
please make me brainalist and keep smiling dude I hope you will be satisfied with my answer
Explanation:
Courts usually find probable cause when there is a reasonable basis for believing that a crime may have been committed (for an arrest) or when evidence of the crime is present in the place to be searched (for a search). Under exigent circumstances, probable cause can also justify a warrantless search or seizure.
Which of the following theorists believe that there is no distinction between the sovereignty and the people?
Answer: John Locke
Explanation: He uses a theory of natural rights to argue that governments have obligations to their citizens, have only limited powers over their citizens, and can ultimately be overthrown by citizens under certain circumstances.
to open a new account for a trust, which statement is true?a the tax identification number of the trust must be obtainedb the tax identification number of the trustee must be obtainedc the tax identification of the trust beneficiary must be obtainedd there is no requirement to obtain a tax identification number when opening a trust account
To open a new account for a trust - the tax identification number of the trust must be obtained. Therefore the correct option is option A.
When opening a new account for a trust, it is necessary to obtain the tax identification number (TIN) of the trust.
This is because the trust is considered a separate legal entity and is therefore responsible for its own taxes. The TIN is used to identify the trust for tax purposes and is required for opening a new account.
The tax identification numbers of the trustee and the trust beneficiary are not required for opening a new account for a trust. Therefore, the correct answer is option- A) the tax identification number of the trust must be obtained.
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A group of plaintiffs who claimed to have been injured by a corporate defendant's negligent design of its product sought certification as a class in federal district court for a class-action lawsuit against the corporate defendant. The federal district court entered an order certifying the class on August 1. The corporate defendant seeks to appeal the certification of the class.
Which of the following is most accurate regarding an appeal by the corporate defendant?
The most accurate statement regarding an appeal by the corporate defendant is that the corporate defendant may file an interlocutory appeal of the certification of the class within 14 days of the order certifying the class.
An interlocutory appeal is an appeal of a ruling made by a trial court before the trial has concluded. In the case of a class-action lawsuit, the certification of the class is an important ruling that can significantly impact the outcome of the case. Therefore, the corporate defendant has the right to file an interlocutory appeal of the certification of the class within 14 days of the order certifying the class. This allows the corporate defendant to challenge the certification of the class before the case proceeds to trial. If the corporate defendant is successful in its appeal, the case may be dismissed or the class may be decertified, which could significantly impact the outcome of the case.
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A professional musician entered into a written contract with an instrument maker to craft a banjo. The contract was negotiated and executed in the state in which the musician resides. The banjo was made at a workshop located in another state across the country. The maker resides near his workshop in a third state. Each of the three states has a single federal judicial district.The musician traveled to the maker's workshop, where he picked up the banjo and paid for it. Subsequently, the musician discovered a defect in the banjo. The musician filed suit in the federal district court for the state in which he resides.Is venue proper there?
Answer: Yes!
Explanation:
Yes, venue is proper in the federal district court for the state in which the musician resides. This is because the contract was negotiated and executed in that state, and the musician is seeking to enforce it in that court. The fact that the banjo was made in another state and the maker resides in a third state is irrelevant to the question of proper venue.
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No, venue is not proper in the federal district court for the state in which the musician resides. Venue is the legal term for the location where a case is heard. According to 28 U.S.C. § 1391, a civil action may be brought in:
1. A judicial district in which any defendant resides, if all defendants are residents of the State in which the district is located;
2. A judicial district in which a substantial part of the events or omissions giving rise to the claim occurred, or a substantial part of property that is the subject of the action is situated; or
3. If there is no district in which an action may otherwise be brought as provided in this section, any judicial district in which any defendant is subject to the court's personal jurisdiction with respect to such action.
In this case, the maker, who is the defendant, does not reside in the state in which the musician resides. Additionally, the events giving rise to the claim, namely the crafting of the banjo and the discovery of the defect, did not occur in the state in which the musician resides.
Therefore, venue is not proper in the federal district court for the state in which the musician resides. Instead, venue would be proper in the federal district court for the state in which the maker resides or the state in which the workshop is located.
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Carol, an owner of an exclusive bicycle shop advertised a special limited-edition bicycle for sale, and invited the public to make offers for the bicycle. Jane and Portia were among many people who submitted written offers for the bicycle. Jane’s offer was for R150 000, and Portia’s offer was for R190 000. Although Carol intended to accept Portia’s offer, she erroneously wrote a letter to Jane, wherein she accepted Jane’s offer. Jane believes that an enforceable contract was formed but Carol denies this. Apply the direct reliance theory and advise if a legally binding contract was concluded between Carol and Jane. Discuss fully and refer to case law in your answer. Do not apply the Consumer Protection Act 68 of 2008
Based on the direct reliance principle and the case of R v Clarke, it might be claimed that Carol and Jane created a legally enforceable contract. Carol's acceptance of Jane's offer resulted in the formation of a legally enforceable contract, and as a result, Carol is forced to sell the limited-edition bicycle to Jane for R150 000.
What is the function of a contract?The main function of a contract is to establish the terms and conditions of an agreement between two or more parties. Contracts provide a framework for the parties to agree on their respective rights and obligations, as well as the consequences of any breach of those obligations. The contract also helps to establish a mutual understanding between the parties and helps to minimize the risk of misunderstandings or disputes. Contracts can cover a wide range of transactions and relationships, from simple sales agreements to complex business partnerships. Overall, the function of a contract is to provide clarity, certainty, and security for all parties involved.
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mary, concerned with antibiotics and chemicals in the food supply, started to raise pigs in the backyard of her suburban home. she now has fourteen pigs that produce a significant amount of sold waste, which attracts insects and smells very bad. there are no town or county ordinances that specifically forbid raising pigs. her neighbors should challenge her right to engage in this activity based on the tort of
Mary's neighbors should challenge her right to raise pigs in her suburban home due to the tort of nuisance.
Nuisance is a type of tort that protects a person from interferences with their use and enjoyment of their property. The significant amount of sold waste that Mary's pigs are producing are interfering with her neighbors' use and enjoyment of their property due to the bad smell, insects, and potential health hazards.
The bad smell, insects, and potential health hazards all count as interferences and the neighbors can seek legal action to stop Mary's activity.
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In this demonstration, how is the participant asked to evaluate words to induce a shallow level of processing? how is the participant asked to evaluate words to induce a deep level of processing? also include medium processing
General examples of how words can be evaluated to induce different levels of processing.
Shallow level of processing involves processing information based on its surface features, such as its physical appearance, sound, or other sensory attributes. One way to induce shallow processing is to ask participants to evaluate words based on their physical features, such as their font, size, or color. For example, participants may be asked to rate the pleasantness of a word based on its color, such as "red" or "green."
Deep level of processing involves processing information based on its meaning and relevance. One way to induce deep processing is to ask participants to evaluate words based on their semantic or conceptual properties, such as their synonyms, antonyms, or associations. For example, participants may be asked to rate the pleasantness of a word based on its association with a positive or negative concept, such as "joy" or "pain."
Medium level of processing involves processing information based on its more intermediate level features, such as its syntax, morphology, or phonology. One way to induce medium processing is to ask participants to evaluate words based on their grammatical structure, such as their word class or grammatical gender. For example, participants may be asked to rate the pleasantness of a word based on whether it is a noun or a verb, such as "chair" or "run."
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Which of the following is a unique agency device generally not available in the judicial system, as courts deal only with actual cases and controversies?
A. limited cross examination
B. advisory opinion
C. formal ruling
D. investigative power
E. subpoena power
An advisory opinion is a device used to provide guidance on possible future legal actions or actions.The correct option is B.
The American legal system has three main parts: legislative, executive, and judicial. Courts are part of the judicial system, which deals with actual legal disputes and controversies that have already occurred.
They are responsible for interpreting the law, assessing the facts of the case, and rendering a decision that resolves the dispute between the parties involved.
Courts do not have the power to provide advisory opinions. Advisory opinions are usually issued by government agencies or high-ranking officials, who can provide legal guidance on how the law would apply in a hypothetical situation or how an action may impact legal rights and obligations.
Advisory opinions are generally not binding, which means that they do not have the force of law, but they can be influential in shaping legal arguments and decisions.
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Which principle of government: "Liberty must at all hazards be supported. We have a right to it, derived from our Maker. But if we had not, our fathers have earned and bought it for us, at the expense of their ease, their estates, their pleasure, and their blood." – John Adams, 1765
Federalism
Individual Liberty
Popular Sovereignty
Judicial Review
Answer:
Individual Liberty
Explanation:
The quote by John Adams, "Liberty must at all hazards be supported. We have a right to it, derived from our Maker. But if we had not, our fathers have earned and bought it for us, at the expense of their ease, their estates, their pleasure, and their blood." this expresses the principle of Individual Liberty, which is the belief that individuals have certain rights and freedoms that are inherent to their existence and should be protected by the government. Adams argues that liberty is a natural right that individuals are entitled to and was earned through the sacrifice of previous generations. This principle is enshrined in the United States Constitution and is considered a fundamental value of American society.
The principle of government that is reflected in the quote by John Adams is Individual Liberty.
This principle is cantered around the idea that individuals have certain rights and freedoms that cannot be taken away by the government.
Adams is emphasizing the importance of protecting and preserving these rights, even if it comes at a great cost. He argues that these rights are inherent and come from a higher power, but also notes that previous generations have fought and sacrificed for these rights.
Therefore, it is crucial to continue to support and defend individual liberty at all costs.
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An employee left her job to move across the country and start her own business. After her departure, the employee and her former employer entered into a contract for the employee to provide consulting services to the employer for a one-year period. One month later, the employer told the employee that it intended to withhold payment under the contract because it was not satisfied with the services provided. The employee filed a complaint in federal court, alleging that the employer had breached the consulting contract, for which the employee sought $60,000 in damages. The complaint further alleged that the employee had been the victim of gender discrimination during the course of her employment, in violation of federal law. One week after being served with the complaint, the employer filed an answer.
May the court properly adjudicate the employee's state law claims?
Answers:
A. No, because a plaintiff may not join federal and state law claims in the same action.
B. No, because a court must have subject-matter jurisdiction over all joined claims.
C. Yes, because a state claim may be joined if the requirements for diversity jurisdiction are satisfied.
D. Yes, because a plaintiff may join as many claims as she has against the opposing party.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A. No, because a plaintiff may not join federal and state law claims in the same action.
Federal courts are courts of limited jurisdiction, meaning they can only hear cases arising under federal law or cases where the parties are citizens of different states and the amount in controversy is greater than $75,000. As such, a court cannot adjudicate state law claims and federal law claims in the same action. The employee must file separate complaints for each claim.
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B. No, because a court must have subject-matter jurisdiction over all joined claims is the correct option.
In this case, the employee has filed a complaint in federal court alleging that the employer had breached the consulting contract, for which the employee sought $60,000 in damages, and that the employee had been the victim of gender discrimination during the course of her employment, in violation of federal law.
The employee's state law claims may be properly adjudicated by the court if the requirements for diversity jurisdiction are satisfied. Diversity jurisdiction requires that the parties be citizens of different states and that the amount in controversy exceed $75,000. In this case, the employee is seeking $60,000 in damages for the breach of contract claim and an unspecified amount for the gender discrimination claim.
If the total amount in controversy exceeds $75,000, the court may properly adjudicate the employee's state law claims. B. No, because a court must have subject-matter jurisdiction over all joined claims is the correct option.
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Choose ten (10) law enforcement agencies or occupations where you would like to work in the future, in accordance with the practice of the criminology profession as stated in RA 11131. Explain each law enforcement agency in 50 words you have chosen why you will be joining.
The 10 law enforcement agencies or occupations that fall under the practice of criminology as stated in RA 11131 and a brief description of each:
Philippine National Police (PNP)National Bureau of Investigation (NBI)Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP)Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP)Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA)Philippine Coast Guard (PCG)Bureau of Immigration (BI)National Prosecution Service (NPS)Public Attorney's Office (PAO)Forensic Science ServicesWhat is the description for these law enforcement agencies?The descriptions are as follows:
Philippine National Police (PNP) - the country's primary law enforcement agency that maintains peace and order and prevents and suppresses crime.
National Bureau of Investigation (NBI) - the country's premier investigative agency that conducts high-level and complex criminal investigations and provides intelligence support to law enforcement agencies.
Bureau of Jail Management and Penology (BJMP) - responsible for the safekeeping, reformation, and rehabilitation of persons deprived of liberty.
Bureau of Fire Protection (BFP) - responsible for preventing and suppressing fires and responding to other emergency situations.
Philippine Drug Enforcement Agency (PDEA) - responsible for implementing the government's anti-drug campaign and enforcing drug laws.
Philippine Coast Guard (PCG) - responsible for ensuring the safety and security of the country's maritime jurisdiction and protecting its marine environment.
Bureau of Immigration (BI) - responsible for implementing the country's immigration laws and policies and managing the entry and exit of foreign nationals.
National Prosecution Service (NPS) - responsible for the prosecution of criminal cases and the protection of the rights of victims and witnesses.
Public Attorney's Office (PAO) - provides free legal assistance to indigent clients and serves as the legal defender of the poor.
Forensic Science Services - provide scientific and technical services to support the investigation of crimes and the administration of justice, including crime scene investigation, DNA analysis, and forensic pathology.
One would prefer to join any of these law enforcement agencies because one would love to make the world a better place as a law abiding citizen that one is.
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So if there was a crime with someone killed someone and the investigators found your blood in the crime scene but you where not there it was just a fellow blood sucking mosquito that the killer killed and the investigators found your blood what about happen?
I made this up btw pls answer
Answer: This is a rare case.
Explanation:
In this case this most likely never happens but when it does you will still be investigated and you would still be a suspect until proven not guilty.
the average age of senators in the congress was years. if the standard deviation was years, find the -scores corresponding to the oldest and youngest senators of age and . round scores to two decimal places.
In HTML format, the z-scores can be written as subscripts, like this: z_1 = 2.17 and z_2 = -5.17.
To find the z-scores that correspond to the oldest and youngest senators of age 29 and 73 years, respectively, given that the average age of senators in the congress was 60 years and the standard deviation was 6 years, we can use the z-score formula:
z = (x - μ) / σ
where z is the z-score, x is the observed value, μ is the mean, and σ is the standard deviation.
For the oldest senator of age 73 years, we have:
z = (x - μ) / σ
z = (73 - 60) / 6
z = 2.17
For the youngest senator of age 29 years, we have:
z = (x - μ) / σ
z = (29 - 60) / 6
z = -5.17
Therefore, the z-scores that correspond to the oldest and youngest senators of age 73 and 29 years, respectively, are 2.17 and -5.17, rounded to two decimal places.
Note: In HTML format, the z-scores can be written as subscripts, like this: z_1 = 2.17 and z_2 = -5.17.
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Parliament passes the Child Court Act. The judges of the Child Court are to have the same powers of a High Court judge. In accordance with Section 104 of the Constitution, High Court judges are appointed by the Judicial Legal Services Commission. Section 15 of the Child Court Act provides that Judges of the Child Court are to be appointed by the Minister for Justice. Justice Brown, a Child Court Judge who is appointed by the Minister for Justice, convicts Jane of an offence.
With reference to TWO decided cases or examples, advise Jane whether Section 15 of the Child Court Act is unconstitutional.
Answer:
Section 15 of the Child Court Act, which provides that judges of the Child Court are to be appointed by the Minister for Justice, may be unconstitutional if it violates the separation of powers doctrine. The doctrine requires that the three branches of government, namely the executive, legislative, and judicial, be independent of each other.
In the case of Lobe & Anor v Speaker of the National Assembly and Anor (2016), the Constitutional Court of Zimbabwe held that the appointment of judges by the President, without the involvement of the Judicial Service Commission, was unconstitutional because it violated the separation of powers doctrine.
Similarly, in the case of Law Society of Zimbabwe v Minister of Justice, Legal and Parliamentary Affairs (2015), the Constitutional Court of Zimbabwe held that the appointment of the Prosecutor-General by the President, without the involvement of the Judicial Service Commission, was unconstitutional because it violated the separation of powers doctrine.
Based on these cases, it can be argued that Section 15 of the Child Court Act, which provides for the appointment of judges of the Child Court by the Minister for Justice, violates the separation of powers doctrine and is therefore unconstitutional. Jane may challenge her conviction on this basis.
Explanation:
Except for parole and probation officers, what are the minimum qualifications for careers in corrections?
a college degree and two years' experience working
a certificate in mental health
O only a high school diploma
O a high school diploma or GED, a driver's license, good health
Answer:
Here are the requirements.
Explanation:
- Be at least 18 years of age (some states/jurisdictions have a minimum age of 21)
- Possess a high school diploma or GED.
- Have no previous felony convictions.
- Be a United States citizen.
- Possess a valid driver's license.
Current issues with the 4th amendment
Answer:
Surveillance: With the rise of technology, there is an increasing concern about government surveillance and the potential violation of Fourth Amendment rights. This includes issues such as the use of facial recognition technology, warrantless searches of electronic devices, and the collection of data from social media platforms.
Border Searches: Customs and Border Protection (CBP) officers have broad authority to conduct searches at the border, including searches of electronic devices without a warrant. This has raised concerns about the potential violation of Fourth Amendment rights, particularly for citizens and legal residents who are returning to the country.
No-Knock Warrants: No-knock warrants allow law enforcement officers to enter a person's home without first announcing their presence. This can lead to dangerous and violent encounters and has been the subject of controversy and legal challenges.
Qualified Immunity: Qualified immunity is a legal doctrine that protects government officials from being held personally liable for constitutional violations, including violations of the Fourth Amendment. Critics argue that this doctrine has led to a lack of accountability for law enforcement officers who engage in misconduct or violate citizens' rights.
Explanation:
tristan hires stefani to perform at tristan's club, but she breaches the agreement to accept a higher-paying job at rock star arena. tristan files a suit against her. the court will most likely
Tristan hires Stefani to perform at Tristan's club, but she breaches the agreement to accept a higher-paying job at Rock Star Arena. Tristan files a suit against her. The court will most likely file a lawsuit against her.
A breach of contract happens when one party to a binding agreement fails to fulfill their obligation(s) as defined in the contract without a legally valid excuse or justification. The breach could be of various types, including the following:
Minor breach (also known as a partial breach)Material breach (also known as a total breach)Anticipatory breachA lawsuit is a process in which one or more parties seek to resolve a dispute through the court system. A lawsuit begins with the filing of a complaint, which is a legal document outlining the plaintiff's allegations against the defendant. The plaintiff is the party filing the lawsuit, while the defendant is the party being sued.
The judge in a case is responsible for deciding who wins or loses a lawsuit, and the jury determines the number of damages to be paid if the plaintiff is victorious. In the present case, it can be inferred that Stefani violated the agreement by accepting a better-paying job offer at the Rock Star Arena, which is a breach of contract.
As a result, Tristan has the right to sue Stefani in court for breach of contract. Therefore, the court is most likely to file a lawsuit against her.
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