Which expresses shows another way to write 36+16?

V = 1/3 * B * h     /*3

V * 3 = B * h       /B

V * 3 / B = h

h = V * 3 / B

Answer: 220 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's write the equations for each case:

A Hertz Rent-a Car:

Charges a fixed amount of $40, plus a $0.10 per mile.

Then if you drive x miles, we get a total cost of:

C(x) = $40 + $0.10*x

Enterprise Rent-A-Car:

Chares a fixed amount of $18 plus $0.20 per mile, so if you drive x miles, the cost is:

K(x) = $18 + $0.20*x

Now, we want to find how many miles you can drive such that you would pay the same in both companies.

Then we need to find x such that:

C(x) = K(x)

$40 + $0.10*x = $18 + $0.20*x

Let's solve this for x.

$40 - $18 = $0.20*x - $0.10*x

$22 = ($0.20 - $0.10)*x

$22 = $0.10*x

$22/$0.10 = x

220 = x

So if you drive exactly 220 miles, you would pay the same in both companies.

Answer:

163 I would think

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

y = 2x - 1

Step-by-step explanation:

-1 is the y-intersect of the slope

Let's assume the number as x

According to the question,

2/3x-6=22

2x-6=22×3

2x= 66-6

2x=60

x=60/2=30

Therefore, as x=30, The number is 30 itself.

Answer:

The prime factorization of 200 using exponential notation is [tex]2^{3}\times 5^{2}[/tex].

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we decompose the number given on statement by applying prime numbers in ascending order. We see that 200 is an even number, therefore, we infer that smallest prime number within is 2.

1) [tex]\frac{200}{2} = 100[/tex] (Even number)

2) [tex]\frac{100}{2} = 50[/tex] (Even number)

3) [tex]\frac{50}{2} = 25[/tex] (Even number)

4) [tex]\frac{25}{5} = 5[/tex] (Odd number, not a multiple of 3, but a multiple of 5 since last digit is 5)

5) [tex]\frac{5}{5} = 1[/tex] (Odd number, not a multiple of 3, but a multiple of 5 since last digit is 5)

Now, we construct the prime factorization using exponential notation:

[tex]200 = 2^{3}\times 5^{2}[/tex]

The prime factorization of 200 using exponential notation is [tex]2^{3}\times 5^{2}[/tex].

Answer:

2 * 3 * 5

Step-by-step explanation:

made a 100 on the text trust!!!!!

Answer:

The Area of a Segment is the area of a sector minus the triangular piece (shown in light blue here). There is a lengthy reason, but the result is a slight modification of the Sector formula: Area of Segment = θ − sin(θ) 2 × r2 (when θ is in radians) Area of Segment = ( θ × π 360 − sin(θ)2 ) × r2 (when θ is in degrees)

Answer:

5 T-shirts = $54

10 T-shirts = $108

20 T-shirts = $216

Answer:250 feet

Step-by-step explanation: a rectangle has four sides, now you have two numbers, 70 and 50. so you do  4÷2 = 2 now take 2 a multiply it 70(140) now do it with 50(100) now add em (250) it is how i do it

13-8=5

8-5=3

3-5=-2

-2-5=-7

etc.

Just keep subtracting 5 until you have the 18th term

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hope it helps

Answer:

-77

Step-by-step explanation:

Reasoning:

Every step is decreasing by 5, therefor you will do 13-5 18 times. this will get you -77

Answer: 24 Inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1/8th of a foot

Step-by-step explanation:

All you have to do is divide the 5 feet by how ever many sections there are in this case it's 8.

5 / 8 = 0.625 = 1/8

Answer:

105m by 105m

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply 7 x 15 to get 105.

Hope it helps!!! :)))

Answer:

look at the picture i sent...........

Answer:

it's b

Step-by-step explanation:

correct on edge!

The equivalent expression is tanx.

We have given that,

tan(x – pi)

We have to determine the expression equivalent to the given expression

tan(x)=sinx/cosx

[tex]=\frac{\sin \left(x\right)}{\cos \left(x\right)}[/tex]

[tex]=\tan \left(x\right)[/tex]

Therefore the equivalent expression is tanx.

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Answer:

1.5 moles

Step-by-step explanation:

number of moles = no. of particles / Avagadro number

therefore, number of moles. = 9.033 * 10^23 / 6.022 * 10^23

therefore, no. of moles = 1.5

There are 1.5 moles in 9.033 * 10^23 Lithium atoms.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

r = 8.35 ft

area of circle = πr² = 69.7225π ft²

θ = 5π/9 radians

area of unshaded segment = r²(θ-sinθ)/2 ≅ 26.51 ft²

shaded region = 69.7225π - 26.51 ≅ 192.53 ft²

The area shaded region is found to be as 192.97 ft².

A circle is a geometric shape, all of which points are equidistant from a fixed point called as the centre.

The centre of the circle does not lie on it.

The largest line segment that can be drawn inside a circle is its diameter.

For the given circle,

Radius is given as 8.35 ft.

And, the angle subtended by minor arc is 100°.

Then, the angle formed by major arc is 360 - 100 = 260°.

Noiw, the area of shaded region is given as below,

Area of the sector for major arc + Area of triangle

⇒ 260/360 × πr² + 1/2 × r²

Plug π = 3.14 and r = 8.35 to obtain,

⇒ 13/18 × 3.14 × 8.35² + 1/2 × 8.35²

⇒ 192.97 ft²

Hence, the area of the shaded region is obtained as 192.97 ft².

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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{12u^3+8u^2-6u+9}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex](8u^3+8u^2+6)+(4u^3-6u+3) = 8u^3+8u^2+6+4u^3-6u+3[/tex]

Once

[tex]8x+4x = 12x, \text{ as } x = u^3[/tex]

[tex]8u^3+8u^2+6+4u^3-6u+3 = 12u^3+8u^2+6-6u+3 = \boxed{12u^3+8u^2-6u+9}[/tex]

You don't need to factor.

Answer:

i got 65.8/9. i hope this is correct , if not, i wish you the besy<3

Answer:

62.7

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

523.3

Step-by-step explanation:

The volume of a cone is 1/3 hB where h is the height and B is the area of the base.

Step 1: Find the area of the base (B). The base of a cone is a circle so use the formula pi*r^2. Plug in numbers. 3.14*10^2. 3.14*100=314

Step 2: Plug into the formula. 1/3(5*314) --> 1/3(1570)=523.3

Answer:

question 1(2)

answer 4

question 2(3)

answer 1

question 3(4)

(a)6; factored

(b)7; factored

c(8); factored

Answer:

parallelogram

Step-by-step explanation:

That's the answer....

Answer:

37:31 or any other way of writing 37 to 31

Step-by-step explanation:

Write the ratio the same way the question asks, there are 37 girls and 31 boys. This cannot be simplified.

Given:

Number of strawberry candy = [tex]\bold{8\ pieces}[/tex]

Number of rhubarb candy = [tex]\bold{7 \ pieces}[/tex]

Find the number of ways for equally distributing candy to all 5 children

Using formula:

[tex]\to \bold{_{n} C_{r}=\frac{n !}{r!(n-r) !}}[/tex]

Calculating the distributing way for strawberry candy:

[tex]\to \bold{_{8} C_{5}=\frac{8 !}{5!(8-5) !}}[/tex]

           [tex]\bold{=\frac{8 !}{5! \ 3 !}}\\\\\bold{=\frac{8 \times 7 \times 6 \times 5!}{5! \ 3 \times 2\times 1}}\\\\\bold{=\frac{8 \times 7 \times 6 }{ 6}}\\\\\bold{=8 \times 7}\\\\\bold{=56}[/tex]

Calculating the distributing way for rhubarb candy:

[tex]\to \bold{_{7} C_{5}=\frac{7 !}{5!(7-5) !}}[/tex]

           [tex]\bold{=\frac{7 !}{5! \ 2 !}}\\\\\bold{=\frac{7 \times 6 \times 5!}{5! \ 2\times 1}}\\\\\bold{=\frac{ 7 \times 6 }{ 2}}\\\\\bold{=7 \times 3}\\\\\bold{=21}[/tex]

Adding both distributing ways:

[tex]\to \bold{56+21=77}[/tex] ways

Learn more:

probability: brainly.com/question/23044118

Answer:

A. (y - 2) = 3/2 ( x + 1)

Explanation:

The point-slope formula is ( y - y1) = m ( x - x1). Just distribute the given where m is 3/2, x1 = - 1 and y1 = 2.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]P(3) = 0.3397[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The given details represent binomial distribution. So, we have:

[tex]n = 5[/tex]

[tex]p = 64\% = 0.64[/tex]

Required

Calculate P(3)

This is calculated using:

[tex]P(x) = ^nC_x * p^x * (1- p)^{n-x}[/tex]

This gives:

[tex]P(3) = ^5C_3 * 0.64^3 * (1- 0.64)^{5-3}[/tex]

[tex]P(3) = 10 * 0.64^3 * 0.36^2[/tex]

[tex]P(3) = 0.3397[/tex]