When giving fluticasone propionate to an asthmatic patient, the nurse would rinse the oral cavity with water afterward.
What is the purpose of the mouth cavity?The oral cavity, also known as your mouth, is an oval-shaped aperture in your skull. From the lips to the throat, it runs. It's crucial for several biological processes, including speech, breathing, and food digestion. Tissues in a healthy lip are pink, moist, odorless, and painless.
What's the make-up of the oral cavity?The lips, gingivae, teeth, retromolar trigone, floor of the mouth, facial tissue, mobile tongue, and oral cavity floor are all parts of the oral cavity. Despite not being a member of the oral cavity, the major oral glands are closely related to the anatomy of the nasal cavity.
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which term refers to the progressive ability of the body to adapt to the effects of a drug used at regular and frequent intervals?
Tolerance is a person's diminished response to a drug, which occurs when the drug is used repeatedly and the body adapts to the continued presence of the drug.
When a medicine is taken frequently, a person may grow tolerant to it. For instance, when morphine or alcohol are used repeatedly, increasing amounts are required to provide the same effect. Tolerance often arises from increased drug metabolism (often as a result of increased activity of the liver enzymes involved in drug metabolism) and a decrease in the number of sites (cell receptors) that the drug binds to or the strength of the link (affinity) between the receptor and drug.
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a young adult is going on vacation to a sunny climate and plans on using a tanning booth to build up a protective tan. which instructions should the nurse provide to the young adult?
Tanning places should be avoided by the adult.
Why should tanning places be avoided?
Your skin cells are harmed by tanning, which also hastens the aging process. The worst outcome is that tanning can cause skin cancer. There is no such thing as a safe or healthy tan, it is a reality. Your risk of developing basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell carcinoma, and melanoma is increased by tanning.
Squamous cell carcinoma and basal cell carcinoma, the two most frequent kinds of skin cancer, can both be increased by 58% and 24%, respectively, by indoor tanning. Before the age of 20, using a tanning bed can increase your risk of melanoma by 47%, and the risk rises with each use.
Hence, the answer is, the nurse should ask the young adult to prevent using tanning places.
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a client has a serum study that is positive for the rheumatoid factor. what will the nurse tell the client about the significance of this test result?
A positive rheumatoid factor test result indicates a high level of rheumatoid factor in your blood.
What is rheumatoid factor?Rheumatoid factors are proteins produced by the immune system that attack healthy tissue in your body. High levels of rheumatoid factor in the blood are most often associated with autoimmune diseases, like rheumatoid arthritis and Sjogren's syndrome.
Methotrexate is the first medicine given for rheumatoid arthritis, with another DMARD and a short course of steroid to relieve any pain. These medicines may be combined with biological treatments.
The normal range for rheumatoid factor (or negative test result) is less than 14 IU/ml. Result with values 14 IU/ml or above is considered abnormally high or positive.
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a hospitalized client is scheduled to have a sigmoidoscopy. which action would the nurse perform before the procedure?
The lower colon must be emptied right before the procedure in order to make the rectum and sigmoidoscopy easier to see.
What are the two key methods for obtaining a stool sample?How to Gather the Sample(s) Pass feces into a large, clean container—such as a milk jug with the top cut off—or onto newspaper put under the toilet seat, avoiding contact with urine. Pass your loose stools directly into a container rather than onto newspaper if they are loose.
Which approach would the nurse advocate for a pregnant client who was experiencing constipation?Although increasing fiber intake, drinking more fluids, and exercising are the first-line treatments for constipation, they are not always successful. Consequently, laxatives such bulk-forming agents and lubricants
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the client is being seen at 24 weeks' gestation at the prenatal clinic. at her last routine visit, the fundus was located at the umbilicus. today, the fundus is measured and found to be 23 cm. how should the nurse interpret this finding?
The nurse should interpret this as Fundus is at the appropriate level.
Your fundus should be close to your abdominal button after giving delivery (where it was at 20 weeks). After that, it should shrink by a centimeter daily. After having birth, one week later, your fundus should be close to your pubic bone (where it was at 12 weeks).
For instance, the top of the uterus, which is situated opposite the cervix, is referred to as the fundus of the uterus (the opening of the uterus). The bladder's bottom and back are two of the organs that are referred to as the fundus. The term "fundus" refers to the area that is furthest away from an organ's aperture.
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patient with chronic renal failure, the nurse would educate the patient on which dietary treatments should be excluded? patho
A decline in the kidneys' capacity to remove waste and fluid from the blood is a symptom of chronic renal failure.
What transpires in the event of chronic renal failure?Kidney disease, or CKD, impairs the ability of the kidneys to properly filter blood. Due to this, extra fluid and blood waste build up in the body and may result in various health issues like heart disease and stroke.
Which three stages of chronic renal failure are there?Stage 1 with a GFR of 90 mL/min or higher and normal or high CKD stage 2 (GFR = 60–89 mL/min) Moderate CKD Stage 3A (GFR = 45–59 mL/min) Moderate CKD Stage 3B (GFR = 30-44 mL/min).
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injuries related to lifting or transferring clients occur in the health care setting and may be considered a work-related injury. which law was intended to reduce work-related injuries and illnesses?
injuries related to lifting or transferring clients occur in the health care setting and may be considered a work-related injury. The Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 law was intended to reduce work-related injuries and illnesses.
OSHA, which was established in 1970 as a result of the Occupational Safety and Health Act, has the responsibility of ensuring that employers provide their workers with a working environment free from known health and safety risks. Employers are required to adhere to specified occupational safety and health standards defined by Occupational Safety and Health Act. Injuries are a primary cause of premature death because they frequently kill young people and children who are otherwise healthy. Injuries predictability and avoidability are becoming more widely recognized.
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the client is scheduled for a polysomnography to determine if the client has obstructive sleep apnea (osa). the nurse instructs the client to:
To find out if the client has obstructive sleep apnea, a polysomnography is scheduled. The client is told to plan on spending the night at a medical facility by the nurse.
Which recommendation for promoting sleep would the nurse give to the patient?The patient should be given instructions on how to improve the sleeping conditions in his home. Before going to bed, drink some milk or have a small snack to help you fall asleep. The patient should get out of bed and engage in some quiet activity until they feel sleepy if they are unable to fall asleep after 15 to 30 minutes in bed.
How would you describe your sleep hygiene?Professionals can assess the quality of their sleep using sleep studies and tools like the Pittsburgh Quality Sleep Index.
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which statements made by the nurse indicate accurate awareness about the conditions associated with hypothermia? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
To keep the person warm, layer on dry blankets or coats. The person's head should be covered, leaving only the face visible. Protect the body from the chilly ground.
Based on condition and stability, which client would the nurse prioritize for care?Because prompt treatment may save the client's life, clients with red tags should receive priority treatment. Because they may have to wait a while for treatment, clients with yellow tags should be given second priority.
Which of the following techniques is safe to employ when warming a hypothermic person?Put dry clothing on the person or wrap them in blankets to keep them warm. Avoid submerging the victim in warm water. Heart arrhythmia can be triggered by rapid heat. If you use hot water bottles or chemical hot packs, wrap them in fabric rather than putting them on your skin.
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a heart-lung bypass machine used in some types of open heart surgery belongs to which fda device category?
The class-II FDA device category includes a heart-lung bypass machine used in some forms of open heart surgery.
The FDA's device category for cardiovascular devices includes three different groups of equipment. The classes-I, class-II, and class-III. On the basis of these classifications, they categorised the cardiovascular devices. A control panel and the machine's electrical power and control circuits make up the console for a heart-lung machine used in cardiopulmonary bypass. The console may be used to control the pumps, oxygenator, and heat exchanger, among other essential parts of a gas exchange system. Cardiopulmonary bypass (CPB) is a surgical procedure in which a machine temporarily replaces the heart and lungs to keep the body's blood and oxygen supply flowing.
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a patient taking an alpha-adrenergic medication for the treatment of hypertension is having a problem with incontinence. what does the nurse tell the patient?
The incontinence will go away once the drug is changed or stopped. If a patient with hypertension who is taking an alpha-adrenergic drug experiences incontinence issues.
What kind of care should someone seek for urine incontinence first?If you have been diagnosed with urge incontinence, bladder training might be one of the first therapies you are given. If you have mixed urine incontinence, bladder training and strengthening your pelvic floor muscles may be combined.
What kind of medication can be utilized to prevent bladder contraction in an incontinence client?Urge incontinence is commonly treated with the anticholinergic drugs tolterodine (Detrol) and oxybutynin (Ditropan; Oxytrol).
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when do most spontaneous abortions occur? multiple choice question. first trimester second trimester fourth trimester third trimester
Early pregnancy loss only refers to first-trimester spontaneous abortions. However, the majority of spontaneous abortions take place in the first trimester.
Why do miscarriages occur?About 50% of miscarriages in the first trimester (up to 13 weeks of pregnancy) are brought on by chromosomal abnormalities. Your genes are carried by chromosomes, which are little structures found inside your body's cells.
What trimester experiences miscarriages the most frequently?Before the 12th week of pregnancy, the first trimester is when most miscarriages occur. 1 to 5 out of every 100 (or 1 to 5%) pregnancies) experience a miscarriage in the second trimester (between 13 and 19 weeks).
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1.lulu sees a professional once a month to manage the medication she is taking to help alleviate the symptoms of her anxiety disorder. the type of therapy lulu is undergoing is called .
Lullu is undergoing Biomedical Therapy.
What is Biomedical Therapy?
Physiological treatments, such as drugs, are used in biomedical therapy or biological psychiatry to treat psychological illnesses. Many individuals who struggle with addiction or substance abuse also struggle with another mental health condition, including depression or anxiety. This method of treatment aids in addressing some of the underlying problems that may be responsible for addiction.
Side effects from pharmacotherapy treatments could include drowsiness, constipation, and dry mouth. Treatment with antipsychotic drugs may result in tardive dyskinesia, a neurological illness marked by uncontrollable writhing and tic-like movements of the mouth, tongue, face, hands, or feet.
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the nurse is planning care for a patient with a t3 spinal cord injury. the nurse includes which intervention in the plan to prevent autonomic hyperreflexia?
Nurse is planning care for patient with a t3 spinal cord injury, then intervention that must be included to prevent autonomic hyperreflexia : assist patient to develop a daily bowel routine to prevent constipation.
How to prevent autonomic hyperreflexia when client has T3 spinal cord injury?Autonomic hyperreflexia is that condition in which involuntary nervous system overreacts to external or bodily stimuli.
Autonomic hyperreflexia occurs when nerve messages that used to go up the spinal cord to the brain are blocked.
To reduce the risk of autonomic hyperreflexia: Care should be taken to not let the bladder become too full, pain should be controlled, practice proper bowel care, avoid bladder infections.
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the nurse is teaching a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd) to assess for signs and symptoms of right-sided heart failure. which sign or symptom should be included in the teaching plan?
The signs and symptoms that should be included in the teaching plan are Peripheral edema.
Pulmonary hypertension leads to a COPD complication known as right-sided heart failure.
Peripheral edema, jugular venous distention, and weight gain as a result of an increase in fluid volume are indications of right-sided heart failure.
Chronic hypoxemia-related disorders are linked to clubbing of the nail beds. Left-sided cardiac failure and hypertension are related. Heart failure patients have diminished appetites.
Peripheral edema is the medical term for leg swelling brought on by fluid retention in the tissues of the leg. It may be brought on by an issue with the kidneys, the lymphatic system, or the venous circulation system.
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how do the hunger and satiety hormones respond to drastic caloric restriction and weight loss in overweight and obese individuals?
Satiety hormone levels fall and stay at some of these rates for up to a year while hunger hormone levels increase.
What are hormones of hunger?The hormonal steroidogenic receptor is activated by the complex gut hormone ghrelin (GHS-R). The stimulatory effects of ghrelin on food intake, fat storage, and development hormone release are its defining characteristics. The "hunger hormone" ghrelin is well-known for its role.
What occurs when ghrelin levels are high?Ghrelin influences both calorie intake and energy expenditure. According to studies, the rise in ghrelin controls how much food is consumed in terms of energy. Overeating can increase energy expenditure, which results in a decrease in energy.
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What does edward kienholz use in the installation the state hospital to emphasize the complete isolation of the patient and to evoke a shocking impact on the viewer?.
Actual institutional objects edward kienholz use in the installation the state hospital to emphasize the complete isolation of the patient.
How do patients describe who they are?The Latin word "patiens," which means to endure or suffer, is translated as "patient" in English. This terminology describes the patient as being incredibly passive, going through the required pain, and enduring the actions of the outside expert.
Who or what is patient?Since it takes learning to wait patiently in the face of annoyance or suffering, which is almost everywhere, we have the opportunity to develop patience. However, the secret to a contented existence may lie in having patience.
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a person is taking a long plane trip and wants to take medication to prevent a blood clot from forming. which medication would you recommend?
A person who is boarding a lengthy flight wishes to take medication to avoid developing a blood clot. Aspirin is the drug that would be suggested.
What principal treatment modality is employed for big pleural effusions?To identify and treat pleural effusions, clinicians perform a minimally invasive procedure called thoracentesis. The pleural space, also known as the pleural cavity, has an excessive amount of fluid in this disorder.
In what category does aspirin fall?A non-steroidal anti-inflammatory medicine (NSAID), aspirin is an acetylated salicylate (acetylsalicylic acid) (NSAIDs). These drugs have a wide range of pharmacologic effects, including analgesic, antipyretic, and antiplatelet characteristics, and they lessen the signs and symptoms of inflammation.
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a client has experienced increasing pain and progressing inflammation of the hands and feet. the rheumatologist has prescribed nsaid use to treat the condition. what client education is most important for the nurse to address with the use of these medications?
Adults' heel discomfort is frequently brought on by plantar fasciitis. Pain that is particularly intense with the first few steps made in the morning is how the condition often shows. Plantar fasciitis often resolves on its own.
In which of the following positions should someone with back discomfort avoid being?Avoid doing anything that cause you to stoop or lean forward at the waist. Try to stand up and lean back slightly while coughing or sneezing to enhance the curvature in your spine. Knees bowed while lying on your side.
Pharmacological treatment, complementary and alternative medicine (CAM), and exercise are frequently used to treat osteoporosis. These therapies' overarching objectives are to maintain appropriate calcium levels, encourage bone formation, lessen bone breakdown, and minimise deficits.
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the registered nurse is teaching isometric exercises to an 80-year-old client. which change as a result of aging requires this intervention?
After an arthroplasty treatment, patients are often given a regimen of isometric exercises to do in order to rehabilitate and strengthen the muscles in their legs.
What is isometric exercise?Exercises called isometric contractions include tightening (contracting) a particular muscle or set of muscles. The length of the muscle does not significantly alter during isometric activities. Additionally, the damaged joint is immobile. Exercises that are isometric assist preserve strength. Although ineffectively, they may also increase strength.
Exercises that involve tensing the muscles against a stationary object, known as isometric or static exercises, are often dangerous for older persons because they put a great deal of strain on the heart and may increase blood pressure.
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what are some nutritional deficiencies and other health insults that pose risk to the organ systems of the fetus? multiple select question. maternal intake of artificial sweeteners maternal intake of excessive vitamin a adverse reaction to medications exposure to radiation
Some nutritional deficiencies and health insults that pose risk to the organ systems of the fetus are:
1) Exposure to radiation
2) Adverse reaction to medications
3) Maternal intake of excessive vitamin A
What do you mean by Fetus?
Fetus is the term used to describe an unborn baby during the period of gestation, typically from the eighth week of development until birth. During this time, the fetus grows and develops in the mother's uterus. It is composed of various body parts, organs, and systems and is supplied with nutrients and oxygen through the umbilical cord.
What do you mean by the term Nutritional deficiencies?
Nutritional deficiencies occur when the body does not get enough of the nutrients it needs to function properly. This can occur due to inadequate dietary intake, malabsorption, or an underlying medical condition. Symptoms of nutritional deficiencies can include fatigue, nausea, weight loss, and skin problems.
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a(n) allergic reaction is when the allergic reaction spreads from a limited area of one organ to other organ systems in the body.
Sensibilities to compounds known as allergens that come into contact with the skin, nose, eyes, and respiratory system cause allergic reactions.
Which of the following 4 allergic reactions are they?An allergic reaction can take one of four different forms when your body is overly sensitive to a stimulus: anaphylactic, cytotoxic, immunocomplex, or cell-mediated. Each one can manifest differently in each person and is triggered in various ways.
What is the term for the transfer of an allergy from one food to another?Cross-contact happens when an allergy unintentionally spreads from a food that contains the allergen to a food that does not. The likelihood that a person with a food allergy would experience a reaction to the food is neither decreased or eliminated by cooking.
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which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence? a client a. who is bedfast, with increased serum bun and creatinine levels
When the bladder is abnormally swollen, which frequently happens in a bewildered client (B) who forgets to empty it, overflow incontinence ensues. who struggles with confusion but also frequently forgets to use the restroom
What are incontinence's initial warning signs?
difficulties passing pee, including a sluggish stream, straining to do so, or stopping and starting. issues after urinating, such as the impression that your bladder is still partially full or releasing just few amounts of urination after you think you're done.
Is there a natural remedy for incontinence?
Exercises for the kegels are among the most efficient at-home treatments for urine incontinence. The muscles utilized to stop urine flow are known to be flexed during these workouts. They are helpful for treating incontinence in its early stages.
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a client who has injured a hip in a fall cannot place weight on the leg and is in significant pain. after radiographs indicate intact yet malpositioned bones, what repair would the physician perform?
Answer:
joint manipulation and immobilization
Explanation:
the patient reports grossly blood stool persistent for the past three days. he feels fatigued and mildly short of breath. on exam, he has pale conjunctiva and pallor to the skin. which lab will your doctor order to assess his condition?
Complete blood count (CBC). A blood test called a complete blood count, or CBC, evaluates components and characteristics of your blood, such as: Red blood cells transport oxygen throughout your body from your lungs.
White blood cells, which fend against illnesses and infections. White blood cells may be divided into five main categories. A CBC test counts all of the white blood cells in your blood. The quantity counts of each of these white blood cells is counts during a separate examination known as a CBC with differential. Platelets, which help your blood clot to halt bleeding. Red blood cells contain the protein haemoglobin, which transports oxygen from your lungs to the rest of your body. Hematocrit is a metric used to determine how many red blood cells are present in your blood. Mean corpuscular volume (MCV), a gauge of your red blood cells' typical size.
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which instructions would the nurse give to an overweight adolescent to promote weight loss? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
engage in regular physical activity,Eat small, regular meals during the day, and cut back on sugar and beverages with added sugar.
What six physical activities are there?There are six components of fitness that take the entire body into account: strength, balance, muscular flexibility, and aerobic capability.
What physical activities occur every day?Regular exercise, like walking, cycling, wheeling, playing sports, or engaging in active recreation, has a positive impact on health,It is preferable to engage in some exercise than none,People can easily increase their everyday activities in relatively simple ways to achieve the appropriate exercise levels.
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the family asks the nurse what the usual treatment of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis entails. what is the nurse's best response?
In the condition known as focal segmental glomerulosclerosis (FSGS), scar tissue forms on the glomeruli, the tiny kidney structures responsible for removing waste from the blood.
A glomerulosclerosis: what is it?Glomerulosclerosis is the scarring of the glomeruli, which are the tiniest blood arteries in the kidneys. These are the microscopic kidney organs that separate blood urine from the body.
What takes place when glomerulonephritis occurs?Inflammation and damage to the kidneys' filtering system are symptoms of glomerulonephritis (glomerulus). It may develop gradually over time or suddenly. The urine is not effectively filtered to remove toxins, metabolic wastes, and excess moisture. Instead, they accumulate in the body, leading to weariness and edema.
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when providing discharge teaching for a client with multiple sclerosis (ms), the nurse should include which instruction?
The instructions that nurse should give while discharging a patient with multiple sclerosis are- Getting lots of sleep, Making a plan for your day's activities. Avoiding being too hot and avoid taking hot bath and showers.
What should be the instructions given to a patient with multiple sclerosis while discharging?Myelin, the protective sheath that protects nerve fibers, is attacked by the immune system in multiple sclerosis, which impairs brain-to-body communication. While discharging, the instructions which should be given by the nurse to the patient are-
Stretching can relieve the signs of tense muscles in addition to taking medicine.Use a cane or another mobility aid, if necessary, to aid in movement and conserve energy.Aerobic exercise may improve your balance, coordination, muscle strength, and muscle tone. A physical therapist can help you select exercises that are risk-free for you.Overall, you should eat fewer fruits and vegetables, and you should limit your daily fluid intake to 1,500 ml.Avoiding being too hot and avoid taking hot bath and showers.Know more about multiple sclerosis at:
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the nurse prepares to teach how to prevent back injuries for new colleagues attending orientation. what risk factors for back injuries should the nurse caution the colleagues against? select all that apply.
Should the nurse warn the colleagues about the potential risks of back injuries when moving with a client's assistance
What portion of the back is hurt the most frequently?Back pain and injuries most frequently occur in the lower back. Back injuries are frequently sustained: Stress and strain: The region around the muscles typically swells up when a ligament in your back is torn or a muscle is overstretched.
What is the recovery time for a strained back?Back muscle strains normally get better with time, most often within 3 to 4 weeks and many within a few days. With mild or mild lumbar strains, the majority of patients heal completely and are symptom-free in a matter of days, weeks, or even months.
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disturbed body image is a nursing diagnosis established for a patient diagnosed with an eating disorder. which outcome indicator is most appropriate to monitor?
Body image disturbance, which is a frequent clinical illness, is described as a deformation of perception, behaviour, or cognition weight related or shape.
How should a patient with a problematic body image be treated?Support the expression of thoughts regarding the real or perceived loss, whether they are positive or negative, Encourage patients to keep their sentiments of self-worth apart from their thoughts about changes to their body's shape or function ,The patient's coping mechanisms can be improved by expressing feelings.
Unhealthy body image: a psychosocial issue?According to research, those with physical health issues who experience body image disruption have worse psychosocial results. People who report having the worse body image are those who have obvious physical alterations.
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