The nurse would use anti-contracture positioning & splinting to avoid deformities or contractures in such a client with burns.
Burns rehabilitation should not be accomplished by one or two persons, but rather by a team approach that includes the patient and, where appropriate, their family. Burns Rehabilitation encompasses the physical, psychological, and social components of treatment, and it is normal for burn patients to struggle in one or more of these two connections a burn injury.
When left untreated, burns can leave a patient with highly debilitating and deforming contractures, that can lead to substantial disability. The goals of burn rehabilitation are also to minimize the negative effects of the injury in terms of preserving range of motion, minimizing contracture formation and scarring, maximizing functional capacity, maximizing psychological well-being, and maximizing social integration.
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the nurse admits a client to the critical care unit with new onset of slurred speech and right-sided weakness. what is the priority nursing action for timely treatment?
Priority nursing action while admiting a client to the critical care unit with new onset of slurred speech and right-sided weakness (likely outcomes of suffering from an ischemic stroke) for timely treatment would be making frequent neurological assessments and maintain MAP less than 130 mm Hg.
An ischemic stroke occurs when blood supply to a portion of the brain is cut off or reduced, preventing brain tissue from receiving oxygen and nutrients. Brain cells start to die within minutes. A stroke is a medical emergency that must be treated as soon as possible. Early intervention can help to prevent brain damage and other complications. For ischemic stroke, the systolic blood pressure should be less than 220 mm Hg and the diastolic blood pressure should be less than 120 mm Hg. The goal in hemorrhagic stroke is a mean arterial pressure of less than 130 mm Hg. The neurological assessments are compared to the baseline assessments performed in the emergency department. The 8-hour elapsed time since the onset of symptoms precludes thrombolytic therapy. The CO2 level should be kept within normal limits; however, it is elevated. The 8-hour elapsed time since the onset of symptoms precludes thrombolytic therapy. Restraints should be avoided at all costs.
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at her prenatal visit a client reports that she cannot find any shoes that are comfortable. assessment of her legs reveals dependent edema. the nurse suggests that the client attempt which actions to help reduce the edema? select all that apply.
The actions which help to reduce the edema are elevating feet and legs when sitting or lying, Avoiding foods high in sodium, sugar, and fats, and Drinking 6 to 8 glasses of water each day.
Why is the first prenatal appointment always the longest?In most cases, the first prenatal visit is the longest, barring pregnancy difficulties. Your doctor will obtain a medical history during this session, as well as measure your blood pressure, and weight, and do blood tests.
What three tests are performed during a prenatal visit?During pregnancy, the following screening techniques are available: either the multiple marker test or the AFP test. Amniocentesis. sample of chorionic villus.
What method of prenatal evaluation is most common?The ultrasound examination can be used to determine the fetus' gestational age and whether its rate of growth is suitable, count the number of kids being carried, check the location, structure, and blood flow of the placenta, and – most critically – allow a physical examination of the fetus.
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A nurse is administering medications to four clients. The nurse should identify which of the following nursing actions as a part of the evaluation phase of the nursing process?
a. Collecting information about a client's pain level following administration of a narcotic
b. Taking the blood pressure of a client before administering an antihypertensive medication
c. Lowering the level of a client's bed before administering a benzodiazepine medication
d. Instructing a client to rinse their mouth following administration of an inhalation corticosteroid
Option A, Collecting information about a client's pain level following administration of a narcotic are the nursing activities performed as part of the nursing process's assessment phase.
Prior to drug administration, all medicines must be evaluated to verify that the patient is being given the proper medication for the intended cause. Nurses are responsible for ensuring that the correct medication is written up in the correct amount and supplied to the correct patient at the correct time and through the correct channel.
Prior to administration, the nurse must validate that the patient's identify matches the medication administration record (MAR) and pharmaceutical label to guarantee that the medication is administered to the proper patient. Medication orders are classified into four types: stat orders, single orders, standing orders, and prn orders. The scope of practise for a nurse's capacity to lawfully distribute and administer medication is determined by the Nurse Practice Act in each state.
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which intervention would the nurse plan to implement for a school-aged child with autism spectrum disorder (asd) who has been hospitalized for some tests?
Provide appropriate play-based stimulation, Putting the kid in a room by themselves, urging staff to check in with the youngster frequently and provide thorough explanations of the upcoming examinations.
Which objective would be the youngster with autism spectrum disorder's top priority?Improve fundamental social communication and social interaction impairments, reduce the negative effects of restricted behaviors, and ultimately support children in gaining more independence and functional abilities are the main objectives of ASD treatment.
With a child who has an intellectual handicap, what task would the school nurse complete?The school nurse's duties for a student with a disability include identifying the necessary health accommodations, outlining a plan of care, offering nursing services, and assessing the health-related elements of the IEP and/or 504 Plan.
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a patient is put on a medication at 20 mg per day the first week
What are the side effects of citalopram 20 mg?
Citalopram is a member of the SSRI class of antidepressants (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors). Treatments using citalopram include: . Agoraphobia and other panic disorders include a dread of crowds or wide-open places.
What are citalopram's harmful side effects?
Hallucinations, lack of coordination, severe muscle stiffness or twitching, fever, sweating, confusion, fast or irregular heartbeat, anxiety, nausea, vomiting, or diarrhoea. blisters or hives, or coma (loss of consciousness). rash.
What occurs if I cease citalopram use?
Irritability, nausea, feeling dizzy, vomiting, nightmares, headaches, and/or paresthesias are only a few withdrawal symptoms that could occur if you stop taking citalopram suddenly (, tingling sensation on the skin).
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to gain a preschooler's cooperation to swallow an oral medication, the nurse's best approach would be to:
To gain a preschooler's cooperation to swallow an oral medication, the nurse's best approach would be to:
. Use positive reinforcement: After the child takes the prescription, reward them with a sticker or little goodie.
. Distract the youngster while they are taking the medication by having them concentrate on anything else, such blowing bubbles or counting to ten.
. Use a syringe or dropper: These techniques can help the youngster ingest the medication more easily.
. Use a colorful cup or straw: Some kids could be more receptive to taking medication if it is blended with a beverage or ingested through a straw.
. Bring them on board: Allow the child to help you pour the prescription into the cup, or let them pick out their own cup or spoon to use.
. Be persistent and patient: It could take numerous tries to get the kid to participate, so don't give up.
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if, as is typical, each of them breathes about 500 cm3 of air with each breath, approximately what volume of air (in cubic meters) do these astronauts breathe in a year? assume the typical respiratory rate for a healthy adult at rest is 15 breaths per minute.
A) If each astronaut inhales approximately 500 cm3, there will be 14716.8 m3 of air breathed in a year.
B) This spherical space station should have a diameter of 30.4 meters.
What is spherical space ?According to Rochester Encyclopedia, there are roughly 12–16 breaths every minute. We may predict how many breaths a person will take over a year if we take the mean number (14 breath per minute):
fb = 14 br/min . 60 min /1hr 24 hr/1 day 365 days/1year =29433600 br/year
The amount of air breathed in a year can be calculated by multiplying this value by the number of people at the station and the volume required for each breath.
A sphere's volume is:
V8ph = 4 /3 r³
The diameter is thus:
D = 2r = 2√3V8ph / 4 = 30.4m
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a potentially serious complication of appendicitis is peritonitis. which changes in assessment data compared with admission values would indicate the development of this complication and thus should be monitored for by the nurse? (select all that apply.)
White blood cell (WBC) count rising to 24,000 cells per milliliter. 37.8 C temperature increase (100 F)
What are white blood cells used for?The immune system includes white blood cells. They improve the body's natural defenses against illness and infection. Lymphocytes, monocytes, or granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils) are different types of white blood cells (T cells and B cells).
What conditions result in elevated white blood cells?Response to infection is, overall, the most frequent reason for a high white blood cell count. Leukemia is another another probable reason for a high white blood cell count. This is essentially a malignant alteration of the bone marrow and blood that results in a marked overproduction of white blood cells.
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a young couple is having difficulty getting pregnant. the nurse is preparing the couple for the initial tests to determine their fertility. when asked by the couple why they need to start with a sperm analysis, what will be the nurse's best response?
The nurse's best response is that one of the simplest tests to complete is sperm analysis.
What is analysis of sperm?Semen analysis, a lab test, counts the number of sperm, as well as their velocity, morphology, and other characteristics. It can be used by men to check their fertility or see if their vasectomy was successful. To ensure accurate findings, please provide a cleaned sample and follow the instructions. A lot of times, anomalous results point to the necessity for more testing.
What does a typical sperm analysis report?Each milliliter (mL) of such semen usually contains 15 million to 200 million sperm. Low sperm counts are defined as less than 15 million sperm each milliliter & 39 million sperm every ejaculate.
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in the mid-1990s, medical treatment for aids in the united states select one: a. failed to significantly improve the health of most patients. b. allowed for dramatic improvement for most patients through protease inhibitors. c. had made few advances since the mid-1980s. d. led researchers to claim they had found a cure. e. eliminated the disease entirely.
Through the use of protease inhibitors, medical treatment with AIDS in the United States allowed for a substantial improvement for the majority of patients by the mid-1990s.
What are inhibitors give example?An inhibitor in chemistry has the ability to dampen, stop, or slow down an activity. For instance, antifreeze acts as an inhibitor in an automobile engine by preventing or delaying the production of ice. For certain processes and activities, different chemicals function as inhibitors.
What is inhibitors in biology?The substance or even a macromolecule that inhibits an enzyme's activity in enzymology by reversible attachment that prevents the substrate from binding (competitive inhibition) or by stopping the reaction even while the substrates still can bind (non-competitive inhibition).
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nursing students are learning about assessment of the head and neck. what cultural considerations would the students learn to assess in relation to this area? (select all that apply.)
Assessment of the head and neck is a topic that nursing students are learning about. The students learn to evaluate the cultural factors in relation to options(c),(d), and(e)i.e, the shape of the lips, the shape of the nose, and the shape of the eyes.
“Head and neck malignancy” is a healing term used to depict a number of various diseased tumors that cultivate in or about the neck, neck, nose, sinuses, and mouth. Most head and narrow connector cancers are squamous container carcinomas. This type of tumor starts in flat squamous containers.
Begin by inspecting the left skin color and symmetry of the first shifts, noticing some drooping. If drooping is noted, request the patient to beam, frown, raise their eyebrows, and see for symmetrical activity. Note the attendance of previous harms or deformities.
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The Complete question is:
Nursing students are learning about the assessment of the head and neck. What cultural considerations would the students learn to assess in relation to this area? (Select all that apply.)
a) The shape of the ears,
b) The shape of the chin,
c) The shape of the lips,
d) The shape of the nose,
e) The shape of the eyes
pyridostigmine is prescribed for a client with myasthenia gravis. why would the nurse instruct the client to take pyridostigmine about 1 hour before meals?
Pyridostigmine can be used by patients with certain muscular diseases to improve their muscle strength (myasthenia gravis). It works by preventing the natural chemical acetylcholine from degrading in your body. Acetylcholine is required for muscles to function normally.
How soon does pyridostigmine start working?The effects of the tablets start working after 30 to 60 minutes and last for about 4-6 hours. Take the pills at regular intervals to make sure your muscles are at their strongest when you need to be most active.
What happens after taking pyridostigmine?You can experience diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, cramping in the abdomen, increased saliva or sweating, a runny nose, smaller pupils, or increased urine. If any of these effects stay the same or get worse.
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several children have contracted measles (rubeola) in a local school, and the nurse provides information to the mothers of the children about this communicable disease. which statement by a mother indicates a need for further teaching?
From 10 days before any symptoms manifest to 15 days after the rash emerges, the disease can be transmitted to others.
How long is rubeola contagious?Up to one week before the rash develops and for up to seven days afterward, a person with rubella can infect others and still be contagious. However, between 25% and 50% of those who contract rubella do not show any signs of the illness, such as a rash, and still transfer it to others. The rubeola contagious period often occurs during the prodromal stage, and lasts from 4 days before to 5 days after the rash emerges. The other choices are all accurate descriptions of rubeola, therefore they wouldn't suggest that more instruction is necessary. The little blue-white patches that are present in this contagious illness are known as Koplik's spots. The wrong answer refers to rubella's incubation time, not rubeola's.
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1. describe five (5) factors that a nurse should consider prior to delegating any task related to client care. suggestedmanagement learning activity: assignments, delegation, and supervision
These groups describe delegation as the process for a nurse to direct another person to perform nursing tasks and activities.
Can a nurse do surgery?Nurses cannot perform surgical procedures independently. Nurses can fill many different roles before, during, and after surgical procedures. Consider additional training or education to get the job you are most interested in.
How many years is a surgical nurse?Becoming a surgical nurse takes at least two years if earning an ADN or four years for a BSN. It takes six years to earn a master of science in nursing (MSN) and become a nurse practitioner. To become certified, you need at least two years of experience in nursing and at least 2,000 hours of work as a surgical nurse.
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the nurse is caring for a child with a platelet disorder and would expect which prescriptions from the primary health care provider? select all that apply
Observe for bleeding. Encourage the child to rest. Assist the RN with blood transfusions are the prescriptions from the primary health care provider when the nurse is caring for a child with a platelet disorder.
What is a primary health care provider ?From promotion and prevention to treatment, rehabilitation, and palliative care, primary health care ensures that patients receive high-quality, comprehensive care that is as close as is practicable to their daily environments.
A doctor (M.D., D.O., or clinical nurse specialist, as permitted by state law), a nurse practitioner, a clinical nurse specialist, or a physician assistant who provides, arranges for, or helps a patient acquire a range of medical services.
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the nurse is documenting a teaching session with a client. which nursing documentation is the most appropriate and detailed?
Since anxiety is a common symptom of depression, it is most likely to blame for the client's behavior.
This is described as a mental illness that affects how people act or think. Additional traits include a low mood and a loss of interest in a number of socially acceptable activities . It was considered that this response was the finest since those who are known to be sad show uneasiness and don't maintain eye contact for long compared to other persons who aren't affected by this sickness.
The most popular kind of therapy is eye drops on prescription. They ease eye strain and guard your optic nerve from harm. laser therapy Doctors can assist patients by using lasers. Early intramuscular (IM) epinephrine injection is the main course of therapy for anaphylaxis because there is no recognized alternative. Administration of epinephrine in anaphylaxis is not prohibited.
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identify the independent variable and the dependent variable. a medical researcher determined that eating hot peppers reduces blood pressure.
This independent variable in this scenario is "eating hot peppers," and the dependent variable is "blood pressure."
When is the blood pressure at its maximum during the day?Blood pressure changes on a daily. The person's blood pressure often starts to rise just few minutes before their awaken. It continues to rise all day long, peaking at midday. Typically, blood pressure drops in the late afternoon into early evening.
How accurate are home blood pressure monitors?The accuracy of home blood pressure monitors, however, isn't always what it should be. Depending on the accuracy level employed, blood pressure monitors could be erroneous in 5% to 15% of individuals, according to Dr. Mr. sunil Hiremath, a kidney expert at Ottawa University in Canada.
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a 38-year-old male patient enters the office complaining about muscle twitches and feeling on edge. his pupils are dilated, and he notes an increase in body temperature. what hormone could be outside normal values and why?
Low calcium levels in the blood are caused by hypothyroidism, low parathyroid hormone levels, and people who suffer from these conditions frequently experience muscle twitches, cramps, and spasms.
How can the symptoms listed above result from thyroid hormone?Low levels of the thyroid hormone, which is in charge of maintaining thermal homeostasis, result in fever. When under stress, sympathetic hormone epinephrine levels are high, causing pupil dilation.
Why does hypothyroidism occur?Autoimmune conditions, thyroid surgery, and radiation therapy are typical causes of hypothyroidism. Poor thyroid hormone levels slow down the body's processes, resulting in widespread symptoms like dry skin, exhaustion, low energy, and memory issues.
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the nurse is assisting the primary health care provider during a pelic examination. what finding would indicate a pelvic infection
Findings indicating pelvic infection during examination are more vaginal discharge and pain when urinating
What is pelvic infection?Pelvic infection or pelvic inflammation is an infection of the female reproductive organs, such as the cervix, uterus, and ovaries. One of the most common causes of pelvic inflammation is a sexually transmitted infection.
Pelvic inflammation is most often caused by a bacterial infection that spreads from the vagina or cervix (cervix) to the deeper reproductive organs, such as the uterus, fallopian tubes (fallopian tubes), and ovaries (ovaries).
Types of bacteria that often cause pelvic inflammation are bacteria that cause sexually transmitted infections, such as Chlamydia trachomatis and Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
Findings that are often found when undergoing examinations are profuse vaginal discharge, painful urination, bleeding outside of menstrual schedules, and pelvic or lower abdominal pain.
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a client with anemia has a regularly scheduled hemoglobin test result of 10 g/dl (100 g/l). while traveling a week later, the client went to urgent care where a hemoglobin level of 15 g/dl (150 g/l) was reported. for which reason will the nurse question the findings of the second result?
A routine hemoglobin test for an anemic patient is 10 g/dL (100 g/L). One week later, client went to emergency and was reported to have hemoglobin level of 15 g/dL (150 g/L). For validity reason the nurse will question the findings of the second result.
What is hemoglobin tested for?Your doctor will order a hemoglobin test to find out if you have too many or too few red blood cells. This can be done as part of a routine checkup to look for problems or if your child is unwell. A low red blood cell count is called anemia.
What are the 3 types of hemoglobin?In adults, there are normal percentages of different hemoglobin molecules. HbA: 95% to 98% (0.95 to 0.98) HbA2: 2% to 3% (0.02 to 0.03) HbE: absence.
What is normal hemoglobin level?Normal results in adults vary but generally include: Man: 13.8 to 17.2 grams per deciliter (g/dL) or 138 to 172 grams per liter (g/L) Women: 12.1-15.1 g/dl or 121-151 g/l.
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the nurse is caring for a client on mechanical ventilation with a brain injury. arterial blood gas values indicate a paco2 of 60 mm hg. the nurse understands this value to have which effect on cerebral blood flow? group of answer choices
Osmotic diuretics increase urine flow and drain water from healthy brain cells, which lowers ICP and raises CPP. Both the ICP and CPP are within acceptable ranges at 10 and 70 mm Hg, respectively.
I have how many brain cells?Neuroscientists once believed that the human brain comprised 100 billion nerve cells. Suzana Herculano-Houzel, a neurologist, developed a novel method to count brain cells, and her result was a different number: 86 billion.
Are brain cells regenerative?The fact that brain cells DO renew over the course of your life is one of the most fascinating and significant recent findings. We now understand that neurogenesis, or the growth of new brain cells, is not only conceivable but also occurs often.
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the nurse is teaching a client who is newly diagnosed with a hiatal hernia about measures to prevent recurrence of symptoms. which statement would the nurse make to the client for consideration
The condition may present with a variety of symptoms that can be classified as typical, atypical, and extra-esophageal. Heartburn and acid regurgitation have the best specificity for GERD.
Heartburn definition ?A burning or uncomfortable feeling in the upper and middle chest that may also involve the head and throat and that may get worse when lying down.
Stomach acid, which transports food from the mouth to your stomach, backs up in the oesophagus, causing heartburn.
What does the stomach's acid represent?Acid that stomach glands in the wall of the stomach emit into the stomach. Food digestion is aided. Hydrochloric acid is used to make gastric acid. To aid in the digestion of meals, cells in the stomach emit this acid into your stomach.
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you are interested in the amount of time high school students spend talking to their peers during class breaks. you want to determine whether girls are more talkative with other girls
This is not always that girls are more talkative with other girls for the amount of time high school students spend talking to their peers during class breaks. So, the given commitment is FALSE.
Whether it is girls or guys talking in class depends on the subject or the time of day because it is not always true that girls talk more than boys. It is true most of the time, but it is not always the case because boys also talk in class and there is noise from other groups of students as well.
One research strategy used to observe participants in their natural environment is known as naturalistic observation (environment). This is being done when it is determined that the laboratory experimentation is not practical. Cameras in the classrooms can identify whether the discussions are between boys or girls.
Because it may be used to study subjects that can't be researched in a lab setting and has external validity, naturalistic observation is a useful method.
The drawbacks of naturalistic observation include the lack of scientific oversight, ethical issues, and the possibility of subject and observer prejudice.
The subjects' typical behavior in the real world is being researched here. Hence, one approach to accomplish this is to install a "hidden camera" to capture the subjects' actions. This has the drawback that each researcher draws a different judgment about the behavior they have observed.
Given how much time high school students spend chatting with their friends during breaks from class, it is not always the case that girls are more communicative with other girls.
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The complete question is:
True, or False
You are interested in the amount of time high school students spend talking to their peers during class breaks. you want to determine whether girls are more talkative with other girls.
the nurse should implement which technique when assessing for jaundice in a dark-skinned client diagnosed with liver disease?
Examination techniques applied by nurses to dark-skinned clients with liver disease are to perform liver biopsies and function tests.
What is liver disease?Liver disease is a disorder of the function and physiology of the liver. Liver or liver is right under the ribs on the right side of your abdomen. This organ consists of two parts, namely the left lobe and the right lobe.
Impaired liver function can be caused by many things. The cause of liver pain can be initiated by a viral infection or alcohol abuse, such as excessive alcohol consumption. Obesity also has a close relationship with liver disease.
If someone experiences changes in skin color to dark, it is possible that they have liver problems. To find out, liver function tests and a biopsy are needed.
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which of the following statements are true? a. if ppo members see a doctor who is not in the network their cost share for services may be higher b. in the aetna medicare open access hmo plan, members can go to any aetna medicare plan hmo network doctor they choose for covered services, without a pcp referral, as long as the doctor is a contracted hmo doctor. c. all of the medicare advantage plans include free monthly fitness club memberships to any facility participating within the silversneakers network. d.
The cost share in services for ppo members who visit a physician outside the network could be greater. The responses are all accurate.
Is everything covered by Medicare free?Seniors and anyone with certain medical conditions are covered by a government health insurance program. Although not totally free, the program seeks to help seniors with the cost of healthcare. Each Medicare part has a different price tag, which could include copay, deductibles, and monthly payments.
What is the eligibility for Medicare?Be a U.S. person; be 65 years of age or older; AND either be U.S. citizen, OR Being an alien who has been legitimately accepted for permanent residence or who has lived in the country for five years in a row previous to the month of submitting a Medicare application.
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The type of fat consumed is more important than the amount of fat consumed.
a. True
b. False
The type of fat consumed is more important than the amount of fat is a) a true statement.
The type of fat that is consumed is more important than the amount of fat consumed. Unsaturated fats are more prone to rancidity than saturated fats because unsaturated fatty acids have a "weak spot". Low levels of low-density lipoproteins are associated with an increased risk of a heart attack. Choose the foods with only the "good" unsaturated fats, and with the limit foods high in saturated fats, and avoid "bad" trans fats. "Good" unsaturated fats - monounsaturated and polyunsaturated - lower the risk of disease. Foods high in good fats include vegetable oils (olives, canola, sunflowers, soybeans, corn, etc.), nuts, seeds, fish, etc.
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the nurse has educated a client scheduled to have an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ercp). which of the following client statements would indicate the need for additional teaching by the nurse? select all that apply.
the nurse has educated a client scheduled to have an endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ercp). The client will have an endoscope put down my throat so they can see my gallbladder.
What is endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography?A treatment called endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography, sometimes known as ERCP, is used to identify and treat conditions affecting the pancreas, liver, gallbladder, and bile ducts. A unique, flexible, thin tube (endoscope) with a built-in camera is used by the doctor during an ERCP. The tube is inserted into the kid's upper digestive tract through the mouth while the youngster is sleeping. Stones, abnormal narrowing, or obstructions in the ducts can all be seen by the doctor using contrast dye and X-rays. A multitude of gastrointestinal problems can be diagnosed and treated with an ERCP, a minimally invasive interventional technique.
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a 6-year-old child has just been diagnosed with localized hodgkin's disease, and chemotherapy is planned to begin immediately. the mother of the child asks the nurse about radiation therapy because it was not prescribed as a part of treatment. which is the most appropriate response to the mother?
Because radiation therapy was not ordered as a component of the child's treatment, the mother of the child questions the nurse about it. The best response to the mother would be (3) "Sometimes age has an impact on the decision of radiation therapy."
what is hodgkin's disease?Hodgkin's lymphoma is indeed a form of cancer that affects its lymphatic system, a component of the body's immune system that fights infection. Swollen lymph nodes and other growths all throughout the body are symptoms of Hodgkin's lymphoma, which is caused by white blood cells called lymphocytes that develop out of control. Standard treatments including radiation therapy and chemotherapy can effectively treat and even cure Hodgkin lymphoma.
How is Hodgkin's disease diagnosed?In order to understand your overall health and search for cancer signals, a lab examines a sample of your blood. image-based tests. Imaging exams are performed to check for Hodgkin's lymphoma symptoms in other parts of your body. X-rays, CT scans, and positron emission tomography may be used as tests (PET).
When possible, radiation therapy is postponed until the child is 8 years old to avoid impeding on soft tissue and bone growth. Options 1, 2, and 4 are unsuitable answers to the mother's query and put it on pause.
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The complete question is:A 6-year-old child has just been diagnosed with localized Hodgkin's disease, and chemotherapy is planned to begin immediately. The mother of the child asks the nurse why radiation therapy was not prescribed as a part of the treatment. What is the nurse's best response?
1. "It's very costly, and chemotherapy works just as well."
2. "I'm not sure. I'll discuss it with the health care provider."
3. "Sometimes age has to do with the decision for radiation therapy."
4. "The health care provider would prefer that you discuss treatment options with the oncologist."
a nurse manager is preparing to implement ebp on the unit. which factor can the nurse prioritize as the most important rationale for the consistent implementation of ebp?
The nurse should prioritize the fact that EBP improves patient outcomes as the primary argument for continuing to use it.
Through the EBP process, the most recent scientific data is reviewed, analyzed, and translated. To enable nurses to make knowledgeable decisions on patient care, the goal is to rapidly combine the most pertinent research, clinical expertise, and patient preferences into clinical practice. EBP is the cornerstone of clinical practice.
The standard of care and patient outcomes in nursing practice are improved through EBP integration. Studies have demonstrated that in terms of care quality, patient outcomes, cost, and nurse satisfaction, evidence-based practice (EBP) is superior than conventional treatment.
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the nurse is caring for a client who is ordered to be in the fowler position. when assessing the client's position in bed, the nurse will adjust the client in bed if what is observed? select all that apply.
Fowler's position, where the patient is positioned on bed with their head at a 45 degree angle. Hip flexion is possible or not.
What is Fowler's position used for?Surgery on the head, chest, and shoulders frequently takes place in this posture. Most ideal position to treat respiratory distress syndrome is standard Fowler's position. Standard Fowler's position benefits from better chest expansion due to the bed's posture, which enhances breathing by aiding oxygenation.
When in Fowler's position the patient is?The patient is often situated at High Fowler's position (also known as Fowler's position) just at top portion of the examination table. The angle between the upper and bottom halves of the person's blood is between 60 and 90 degrees.
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Answer:
-There is a large pillow under the clients head.
-The knee gatch on the bed is engaged.
-The clients foot is in the plantar
flexion position.
Explanation:
In the fowler position, the clients head should be against the mattress or supported by a small pillow only. Using large pillow may cause flexion contracture of the neck. The knee gatch should be avoided to prevent pressure on the popliteal artery that could comprise lower extremity circulation. When the clients foot is in plant flexion position, the client is at risk for foot drop. A foot board, high-top sneakers, or improvised firm foot support should be used. It is appropriate to place the clients forearms on pillows. This will prevent pull on the shoulders and help prevent dislocation of the shoulder. A rolled towel or trochanter roll will help prevent external rotation of the hips.