When ______ is released, the subsequent receiving neuron ________ fire because that neurotransmitter is _______.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

When a neurotransmitter is released, the posterior receptor neuron has the receptor to bind to it because that neurotransmitter is a stimulator of the postsynaptic membrane.

Explanation:

The neurotransmitters that are released from the motor plate, that is, from the postsynaptic membrane to the presynaptic space, are captured by receptors of the postsynaptic membrane, which can be another neuronal structure to transmit an impulse or a muscle to be able to execute the contraction.

I leave you an image that draws up the stimulation of the postsynaptic membrane by means of a neutrotranismor, these are called as: adrenaline, norepinephrine, acetylcholine, etc.

Number 1 is the presynaptic membrane that releases the neurotransmitter (yellow balls), number 2 is the intersynaptic space, 3 is the postsynaptic membrane that in number 4 can be seen to be activated by relating to the neurotransmitter

When ______ Is Released, The Subsequent Receiving Neuron ________ Fire Because That Neurotransmitter

Related Questions

What is the average life span of juvenile upland game birds

Answers

Answer:

90 percent

Explanation:

Based on average estimated juvenile and adult survival rate for each species

The diagram below shows some ocean floor features. (4 points) Which of these statements is correct about the feature labeled A in the diagram? a. It is an underwater basin caused by subduction. b. It is a deep trench located on both sides of a mid-ocean ridge. c. It is an area where sea floor spreading occurs. d. It is the portion of the ocean floor where old crusts are eroded.

Answers

Answer:

it is a deep trench located on both sides of a mid_ocean ridge

150 ml of 54% CaCI2 solution contains how many grams of CaCI2?

Answers

Answer:

mass of CaCl₂ = 67.4 g of CaCl₂

Explanation:

A 45% CaCl₂ Solution contains 45 g of solute per 100 mL of solution.

mass concentration = mass of solute (g)/ volume of solution (L)

100 mL of solution = 100 * 1L /1000 = 0.1 L

Mass concentration of solution = 45 g/0.1 L = 450 g/L

Molar concentration of solution = mass concentration / molar mass

molar mass of CaCl₂  = 111 g/mol

molar concentration = 450 g/L / 111 g/mol = 4. 05 mol/L

Number of moles of CaCl₂ present in 150 ml of 4.05 mol/L  solution = molar concentration *  volume (L)

number of moles of CaCl₂  = 4.05 * 150 * 1 L/1000 = 0.6075 moles

mass of CaCl₂  present in 0.6075 moles  = number of moles * molar mass

mass of CaCl₂ = 0.6075 * 111 = 67.4 g of CaCl₂

What is an advantage of nuclear power plant over coal power plant?

Answers

cost and lack of nuclear waste

Explanation:

As Hite and Seitz (2016) discuss in Chapter 5: Climate Change, reputable scientific studies continue to show that the Earth is warming at an unsustainable rate because of a rise in the release of CO2 and methane gases. What is the relationship between population increases and climate change

Answers

Answer:

See the answer below

Explanation:

The relationship between climate change and increased population of humans is a direct one. As the population of humans increases, their activities leading to the release of greenhouse gases such as CO2 and methane also increases. The greenhouse gases are primarily responsible for the warming of the earth.

As more and more greenhouse gases are released into the atmosphere, more radiation from the sun is trapped in the atmosphere and the earth receives more warmth. This extra heat received leads to increase in the global temperature, a phenomenon known as global warming. As the average global temperature increases, climate becomes more erratic and unpredictable.

The greenhouse gases-related activities of humans that are bound to increase with the increase in population include deforestation, fossil fuel burning, industrialization, etc.

Which effect is most likely to occur as a result of clear-
cutting?
extinction of species
death of organisms
speciation
global warming

Answers

Answer:

Death of organism

Explanation:

Human activities include the clear-cutting of areas of forest to make space for farming.

Which effect is most likely to occur as a result of clear-cutting?

Is this your question?

Death of organisms effect is most likely to occur as a result of clear-cutting.

What do you mean by clearcutting?

Clearcutting is an extreme logging method in which resilient natural forests are harvested and replaced with man-made tree plantations that do not replicate the ecosystem services of a healthy forest.

Clearcutting is one of the most publicly maligned and misunderstood forest regeneration treatments. It is the only way to grow trees that require full sunlight to reproduce, such as tulip poplar, black cherry, and aspen, and the fastest way to provide/create shrubland habitat.

Clear-cutting often contributes to reductions in root strength and soil water-holding capacity, due to soil compaction and reduced transpiration. Moreover, the removal of the forest cover exposes the soil surface to heavy precipitation and large variations in temperature.

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Use the completed Punnett square in Part B to answer the questions below about the F2 generation.
Note that questions 3 and 4 require a more advanced evaluation of probabilities than do questions 1 and 2 because you have to consider all possible groupings and orders of three F2 seeds. If you need help with these calculations, use Hint 3.

Answers

Complete question:

Part C: Using the Punnett square to make predictions

Use the completed Punnett square in Part B to answer the questions below about the F2 generation.

Note: You will find the Punnet square in the attached files.  

Note that questions 3 and 4 require a more advanced evaluation of probabilities than do questions 1 and 2 because you have to consider all possible groupings and orders of three F2 seeds. If you need help with these calculations, use Hint 3.

1) What is the probability that an F2 seed chosen at random will be yellow?

2)  What is the probability that an F2 seed chosen at random from along the yellow seeds will breed true when selfed?

3) What is the probability that three F2 seeds chosen at random will include at least one yellow seed?

4) What is the probability that three F2 seeds chosen at random will include one green seed and two yellow seeds?  

Answer:

1) 3/4              

2) 1/3

3) 63/64

4) 27/64

Explanation:

Y is the dominant allele and expresses yellow color y is the recessive allele and expresses green colorSeeds with YY and Yy genotype are yellowSeeds with yy genotype are green

Parental) Yy   x   Yy

Gametes) Y   y   Y   y

Punnet Square)

                      (1/2) Y            (1/2) y

      (1/2) Y    (1/4) YY         (1/4) Yy

      (1/2) y     (1/4) yY          (1/4) yy  

F2)  1/4 YY

      2/4 = 1/2 Yy

      1/4 yy

1) There will be 3/4 of probabilities of getting a yellow F2 seed

   1/4 YY + 2/4 Yy = 3/4 Y-

   The symbol "-" means that in its position there might be either a Y or y allele.

2) As there are only three yellow possible genotypes for yellow seeds, the fourth genotype for green seeds is not considered. Our pool now is only yellow seeds. So the probability of getting a pure breeding yellow seed among all yellow seeds is 1/3.  

   1/3 YY

   1/3 Yy

   1/3 yY

In the pool of yellow seeds, there are three genotypes, and only one of them corresponds to pure breeding yellow seed.

3) To calculate the probability of getting at least one yellow seed among the three seeds randomly chosen, we need to multiply and then perform addition. This is, when we take three seeds from the pool, we have different possibilities of getting seeds with different genotypes. So:

the three chosen seeds could be yellow. In this case, we multiply their probabilities. The probability of getting one yellow seed is 3/4, so, the probabilities of getting three yellow seeds are: 3/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 27/64

There might also be one green sees and two yellow seed, so we multiply their probabilities in the order in which we might get them. This is:

Two yellow seeds and one green seed: 3/4 x 3/4 x 1/4 = 9/64One yellow seed, one green seed, and one yellow seed: 3/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 9/64one green seed, and two yellow seeds: 1/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 9/64

And we could also get two green seeds and only one yellow seed:

Two green and one yellow seed: 1/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 3/64one green, one yellow and one green: 1/4 x 3/4x 1/4 = 3/64one yellow seed and two green seeds: 3/4 x 1/4 x 1/4 = 3/64

Now, having all the possibilities, we just need to add all the possibilities:

27/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 + 3/64 + 3/64 + 3/64= 63/64.

Note that we did not include the possibility of getting three green seeds (1/4 x 1/4 x 1/4). This is because we were asked to calculate the probabilities of getting AT LEAST one yellow seed.

4) To calculate the probability of getting two yellow seeds and one green seed among the three seeds randomly chosen, we should multiply probabilities and then sum them up.

The orders in which we could get the seeds are:

Two yellows and one green: 3/4 x 3/4 x 1/4 = 9/64One yellow, one green, and one yellow: 3/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 9/64one green seed and two yellow seeds: 1/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 9/64

Now, having all the possibilities, we just need to add all the possibilities:

6/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 = 27/64.

Answer:

1) 3/4

2) 1/3

3) 63/64

4) 27/64

Explanation:

1) yellow seed could either be GG, Gg or Gg from Punnett square, therefore, there is a 3/4 probability

2) true-breeding = either GG or gg. Therefore, out of the 3 yellow seed options, only 1 is true-breeding, therefore, it's a 1/3 probability

3) "there are 7 possible groupings that have at least 1 yellow seed; the sum of their individual probabilities yields the final answer of 63/64. Note that you could have also calculated this answer by subtracting the probability of the one category that doesn’t fit the criterion (Green, Green, Green) from the total probability (1 – 1/64 = 63/64)"

4) "there are 3 possible groupings that have 1 green and 2 yellow seeds; the sum of their individual probabilities yields the final answer of 27/64"

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A compound synthesized by bacteria or fungi that destroys or inhibits the growth of other microbes is a/an:__________.
a. synthetic drug
b. antibiotic
c. antimicrobial drug
d. competitive inhibitor

Answers

Answer:

antimicrobial drugs

Explanation:

An antimicrobial is a substance that kills or inhibits the growth of microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi, or protozoans.

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{Option C}[/tex]

Explanation:

A compound synthesized by bacteria or fungi that destroys or inhibits the growth of other microbes is an anti-microbial drug. Anti means "against" so anti microbes mean against microbes. Antimicrobial drugs are synthesized by bacteria and fungi and are used against microbes.

7. Which is a way that geological processes affect nutrient cycling?
People burn coal, oil, and natural gases.
o Weather controls when volcanoes erupt.
O People use ocean currents to predict rain.
O Weather moves gases in the atmosphere.

Answers

Answer:

Weather moves gases in the atmosphere.

Explanation:

Weather moves gases in the atmosphere. Therefore, option (A) is correct.

What is nutrient cycling?

Nutrient cycling is the process by which nutrients are transformed, transported, and exchanged between different parts of an ecosystem. Nutrients are essential for the growth and survival of all living organisms, and they are constantly being recycled through various processes in the environment.

For example, plants absorb nutrients from the soil and water, and then animals consume these plants and incorporate the nutrients into their own bodies. When animals die, their bodies decompose, releasing the nutrients back into the soil or water, where they can be taken up by plants again. This continuous flow of nutrients between living organisms and the environment is known as nutrient cycling.

Nutrient cycling is important because it helps to maintain the balance of nutrients in an ecosystem and supports the functioning of the ecosystem as a whole. It is influenced by many factors, including geological processes, weather patterns, and the actions of living organisms.

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A chemical reaction is an interaction that always causes:
O A. matter to be changed into energy.
B. macromolecules to be formed from glucose.
O C. molecules to break apart into atoms.
O D. atoms to be rearranged into new substances.

Answers

Answer:

D. atoms to be rearranged into new substances.

Explanation:

Chemical reactions involve interaction between chemicals such that all reactants are changed into new materials. The properties of the new materials are different from those of the reactants.

Chemical reactions involve breaking chemical bonds between reactant molecules (particles) and forming new bonds between atoms in product particles (molecules). The number of atoms before and after the chemical change is the same but the number of molecules will change.

A cell has a defect in its receptor for growth factors, preventing growth factors from attaching to and signalling the cell. Based on this, which prediction below is most likely?
A. The cell will remain dormant in GO phase.
B. The cell will grow uncontrollably and continue to divide as long as it has food.
C. The cell will replicate its DNA but be unable to begin mitosis.
D. The cell will begin DNA replication but will be unable to complete S phase.

Answers

Answer:

Option B

Explanation:

B. The cell will grow uncontrollably and continue to divide as long as it has food.

Cell growth is theeoretically stimulated by the binding of growth factors to their receptors using signaling pathways.

These pathways are regulated by proteins which are encoded for in the genes.

The gene that controls the regulation of these pathway when mutated produce malfunctioning signaling protein thus not allow for regulations of the cell cycle causing uncontrollable cell division. These mutated genes are called oncogenes.

What is radioactive dating?
A. A method of determining the age of a fosall based on the amount
of certain isotopes that remain in a fossil or rock
B. A method of determining the age of a fossil that estimates the age
of the organism at its death
C. A method of determining the age of a fossil based on a
comparison to the age of other similar fossil
D. A method of determining the age of a fossil that estimates how
closely related various fossilized organisms were

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

Radioactive dating uses carbon isotopes to determine the age of a material.

Radioactive dating is a method of determining the age of a fossil, based on the amount of certain isotopes that remain in a fossil or rock. Thus, the correct option is A.

What is Radioactive dating?

Radioactive dating may be defined as a methodology for estimating the approximate age of rocks and minerals by the utilization of radioactive isotopes.

This method of radioactive dating is primarily used in igneous and metamorphic rocks, which cannot be dated by the method of stratigraphic correlation that is used for determining the age of sedimentary rocks.

Therefore, the correct option for this question is A.

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What was the population density of the original sample? What would have happened if you had inoculated an agar plate with 1 mL of the original sample?

Answers

Answer:

The sample was at a population density of 8.75x10^4 CFU/mL originally.

Explanation:

Had it been inoculated in the way as described in the question statement, the bacterial growth would have covered all of the agar plate and we would not have been able to distinguish individual colonies of bacteria. 1 mL is too much of a sample volume to use in cases like these.

Which center bears the primary responsibility for generating the respiratory rhythm, but is influenced by several other centers

Answers

Answer:

This is the Ventral Regulatory Group-VRG

Explanation:

In the medulla,there are four groups of neurons which forms the exhalation parts of the   respiratory  control.These 4 groups are called the VRG.They occupy 5mm anterior in length, and laterally positioned to the dorsal respiratory group.They are therefore said to occupy the ventrolateral part of the medulla.

The dorsal respiratory group(DRG) consists of the inspiration neurons,contrary to the VRG. They do not extend to the DRG,but the DRG, extends to them

They(VRG) function in propagating action potentials needed for the mechanisms of respiration.(exhalations), and Inspirations

What best describes the behavior of nonconservative elements in seawater?

Answers

The given question is incomplete due to missing options, however, the options for the question as follows:

A. Nonconservative elements are reactive in seawater and have a long residence time.

B. Nonconservative elements are reactive in seawater and have a short residence time.

C. Nonconservative elements are non-reactive in seawater and have a short residence time.

D. Nonconservative elements are non-reactive in seawater and have a long residence time.

Answer:

The correct answer is option C.

Explanation:

Non conservative components are components that enter the ocean water and have little concentration in the sea and show spatial variations. These components have short home time that is short replacements time and they are non responsive.

Constituents, for example, phosphate, nitrate, and different supplements, and broke up oxygen, carbon dioxide, and so on are non-conservative on the grounds that their concentrations are later altered by chemical reactions in the ocean.

Thus, The correct answer is option C.

22. What are the properties of an efficient gas exchange system, assuming it has a good blood supply?

Answers

Answer:

There's good oxygen supply and good carbon dioxide eradicator.

Explanation:

Hope it helps.

Which statement describes one aspect of an earthquake's magnitude?
It is measured by the Mercalli scale.
It is based on the size of seismic waves.
O It is not usually affected by the amount of fault movement.
It is used to determine damage caused by earthquakes.

Answers

Answer:

b. It is based on the size of seismic waves

Explanation:

just did the test

The statement that describes one aspect of an earthquake's magnitude is: "It is based on the size of seismic waves."

What is an earthquake's magnitude?

An earthquake's magnitude is a measure of the amount of energy released by the earthquake, and it is determined by measuring the amplitude (height) of the seismic waves generated by the earthquake. The size of the seismic waves is directly related to the amount of energy released by the earthquake, and this is used to calculate the earthquake's magnitude.

The most commonly used scale for measuring earthquake magnitude is the Richter scale, which is based on the amplitude of the largest seismic wave recorded on a seismogram. Other scales, such as the moment magnitude scale, are based on the seismic moment, which takes into account the size of the fault rupture and the amount of slip on the fault.

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which describes a meta phase plate

Answers

Answer:Metaphase plate refers to sister chromatids lining up in the center of the cell. This event occurs during the metaphase of the cell division and it is the indication of this phase. Metaphase plate is a moment when all of the chromosomes organize, line up literally in a row and after that begin to.

The biceps femoris muscle's name gives us information about it. What does the word "femoris" in its name tell us? A. Its general location B. Its action C. Its overall shape D. The number of attachments it has E. Its general size (compared to other muscles) F. The direction of its muscle fibers

Answers

Answer:

the answer is D

Explanation:

The prefix bi indicates that the muscle has two origins

The biceps femoris muscle of the leg derives its name from having two heads of origin, long and short

difference between plant and animal cyanide resistance respiration.

Answers

Answer:

The cyanide resistant respiration differs in plants as oxi­dation of reduced coenzyme continues even in the presence of cyanides.

Explanation:

The mitochondrial is the electrons through which the animals and plants perform the aerobic exercise and is blocked by the release of the cyanides that stops the activity and is known as cyanide sensitive respiration Plant mitochondria is different from the animal as they both have different oxidase system pathways. Cyanide resistant is responsible for the climacteric in fruits and for the generate heat in thermogenic tissues.

An athlete has an enhanced genotype for carbohydrate utilization, however they feel sluggish after they eat carbohydrates, which of the following should the trainer consider?

a. The type of carbohydrates being consumed
b. Decrease the carbohydrate intake
c. Add more caffeine to the daily diet
d. They are likely over trained and tired

Answers

Answer:

Carbohydrates’ bad reputation ignores the benefits they can offer

sooo i would say it is B. i think....

Which activity involves a chemical change?
A. Ice melting into liquid water
B. A metal rod being bent into a ring
C. Colorless egg becoming a white solid
D. Salt dissolving in water
SUBMIT
Need help now pls!!

Answers

option C is correct........

.. Please follow me and mark as brainliest

Specialized cells such as white blood cells interact with foreign particles in the body. A particular cell belonging to this category recognizes bacteria and forms a covering around it, pinching off the vacuole. The cell then performs . The foreign particles recognized by the particular type of cells differ from the ones recognized by another type of white blood cell. This situation indicates that the receptors are .

Answers

Answer:

specific

Explanation:

The immune system contains different types of cells that act in both innate and acquired (adaptive) immune responses to destroy pathogenic microorganisms that invade our body. The immune cells include B and T cells, dendritic cells, macrophages, neutrophils, eosinophils, monocytes, etc. These cells contain specific receptors that play different roles in the immune response. For example, macrophages and dendritic cells contain receptors required for antigen presentation, while white blood cells (B and T cells) have receptors required for antigen recognition.

Answer: I just took the test

Explanation:

Here's the answer

If the scientist had collected 20 dung samples, would you expect more bands, fewer bands, or the same number of bands on the gel?

Answers

Answer:

The expectations of the bands will be more on the gels.

Explanation:

One sample provides several sizes and thickness bands in the gel electrophoresis according to the size of fragments that run in it. An individual would expect more bands due to the increase in the number of samples which is 20 samples now.

An increase in the number of samples produces more bands. So one can easily expect more bands from the 20 samples. Scientists would get more bands on the gels.

Thus, the expectations of the bands will be more on the gels.

If the scientist collects 20 dung samples ; we should expect more band on the gel

Given that each dung sample has varying sizes and varying thickness of bands in the gel electrophoresis which depends on the size of fragments contained in it. Therefore when a number of dung samples ( 20 ) are collected  it is only logical that the number of bands on the gel will increase ( i.e. you should expect more band on the gel ).

Hence we can conclude that If the scientist collects 20 dung samples we should expect more band on the gel .

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Although your question lacks some data a general answer within the scope of your question is provided

The short-term controls of blood pressure, mediated by the nervous system and bloodborne chemicals, primarily operate via all but which of the following?

a. reflex arc associated with vasomotor fibers
b. reflex arcs involving baroreceptors
c. altering blood volume
d. centers in the medulla oblongata and the pons

Answers

Answer:

c. altering blood volume

Explanation:

The sympathetic nervous system acts to modulate blood pressure during short-term periods by modifying arterial pressure. The catecholamine hormone levels may be associated with an increase in the blood pressure by narrowing the blood vessels. Catecholamines are hormonal neurotransmitters released by the adrenal glands. These hormones derive from the metabolism of tyrosine amino acids and include, among others, adrenaline, noradrenaline and dopamine.

Individuals who have chronic bronchitis most often have:________.
A. a productive cough.
B. normal lung sounds.
C. a barrel chest.
D. substantial weight loss.

Answers

the correct answer is A.

Individuals who have chronic bronchitis most often have a productive cough. The correct option is A.

What is bronchitis?

Bronchitis is an inflammation of the lungs' primary airways (bronchi), which causes them to become irritated and inflamed. On either side of your windpipe, the main airways branch off (trachea).

They have a consistent cough and lead to smaller and smaller airways inside your lungs called bronchioles.

Thus, the correct option is A.

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Uncellular eukaryotic organisms belong to?

Answers

All eukaryotic unicellular organisms belong to Protista.

Answer:

Unicellular eukaryotic organisms belong to kingdom protista.

Explanation:

Unicellular eukaryotic organisms belong to kingdom protista. They depend on other organisms for their food since they're not able to produce their own.

Hope this helps :)

Which of the following example(s) does NOT cause bias in a research study.
A) Measuring body temperature with an oral thermometer in half of subjects and an ear thermometer in others
B) Counting the number of firefighters at your house to predict if it will be destroyed
C) Using a set of standardized questions to measure food intake in children
D) Studying workers to see the effects of a new health care law on unemployed

Answers

(A) The internal body temperature can be taken from any area of the body without a difference in the type of temperature, resulting in NO bias. Of course this is completely reliant on the type of illness, but out of all options this is correct.

Illnesses affect the throat/mouth and ear.
checking the thermometer underneath a tongue will result in the same temperature as the ear, in an ill individual.

The first glycolysis rate-limiting enzyme is under various allosteric regulations. This protein is nearly inactive because of inhibition by ( ) under physiological conditions. The activity is restored by ( ), its most potent allosteric activator.

a. AMP :::: citrate
b. AMP :::: Fru-2,6-P2
c. ATP :::: citrate
d. ATP :::: Fru-2,6-P2
e. All of these

Answers

Answer:

d. ATP;  Fructose-2,6-bisphosphate

Explanation:

Phosphofructokinase-1 is the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of fructose-1,6-bisphosphate from fructose-6-phosphate and ATP. The phosphofructokinase step is the first rate-limiting step of glycolysis.

Phosphofructokinase-1 activity is allosterically regulated. Its activity is increased whenever the cell's ATP supply is depleted or when its breakdown products, ADP and AMP accuulates in he cell. However, it is inhibited when the cell is amply supplied with ATP.

The activity of phosphofructokinase-1 is restored by fructose-2,6-bisphosphate, its most potent activator.

From the given options:

a. AMP :::: citrate  is wrong because AMP increases the activity of phosphofructokinase-1 and citrate is not its activator but an inhibitor

b. AMP :::: Fru-2,6-P2  is wrong because AMP increases its activity same as fructose-2,6-bisphosphate

c. ATP :::: citrate  is wrong because both citrate and ATP are inhibitors

d. ATP :::: Fru-2,6-P2  is correct as explained above

e. All of these is wrong because of the other wrong options above.

After duplication, at what point does a cell become two cells with identical DNA? starting in prophase end of anaphase end of cytokinesis

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - end of cytokinesis.

Explanation:

Cytokinesis :- a procedure that partitions the cytoplasm and plasma layer of a cell, bringing about two indistinguishable cells that contain their own DNA, nucleus, nuclear membrane, and plasma membrane.  

During the last phase of the cell cycle, cytokinesis permits the cell to complete the process of isolating, making two cells with indistinguishable duplicates of DNA  

The cell squeezes in the equator area with the assistance of a ring of contractile protein filaments. The formed cleavage furrow develops until the two cells squeeze off totally.

Thus, the correct answer is - end of cytokinesis.

Answer:

end of cytokinesis

Explanation:

Other Questions
Which of the following is a typical complaint of host-country competitors (such as GM, Ford etc) against foreign firms (such as KIA in the US)?a) foreign firms burden the host-country with infrastructure requirements.b) foreign firms lure local workers away from host-country businesses.c) foreign firms do not have to obey host-country law and regulations.d) foreign firms receive financial support from host-country governments. With perfect price discrimination the monopoly a. charges each customer an amount equal to the monopolist's marginal cost of production. b. eliminates all price discrimination by charging each customer the same price. c. eliminates profits and increases consumer surplus. d. eliminates deadweight loss. What is the slant height of the pyramid to the nearest 10th 15.5mm13.9mm12.5mm19.0mm On a nearby pond, black and white ducks are swimming in groups of 3. James wants to find the experimental probability of two white ducks and one black duck swimming together. Design a simulation using a coin flip and explain why it is the best choice for James.U Will get BRAINLIEST Help please! Simplify 7/ x Mischel and his colleagues argued that personality characteristics are learned habits of thinking and behaving, which are acquired and manifested in particular social situations. They were advocates of the _________ theory of personality. If similar cubes have a length ratio of 3:2, what is the volume ratio? PLEASE EXPLAIN a) 9 : 4 b) 9 : 6 c) 27 : 8 d) 3 : 2 difference between the sermons of George Whitfield and Jonathan Edwards Find the interquartile range (IQR) of the data in the dot plot below. chocolate chips 0 0 1 1 2 2 3 3 4 4 5 5 6 6 7 7 8 8 9 9 10 10. Number of chocolate chips. Chocolate chips in different cookies in a package organism must go through mitosis to build new tissues.Part CBased on your model, do you think frogs reproduce sexually or asexually? What are the benefits and drawbacks to thisform of reproduction? Consider the following hypothetical data for an open economy (in millions): Assets owned inside the U.S. by U.S. citizens = $140, 000140,000 Assets owned outside the U.S. by U.S. citizens = $23,35723,357 Assets owned outside the U.S. by foreign citizens = $110,000110,000 Assets owned inside the U.S. by foreign citizens = $22,78622,786 The value of the International Investment Position (IIP) of the U.S. is__________ $ nothing million. What challenges did Birgitta face when she started school? Check all that apply. learning English going to a new school understanding the teacher teaching her classmates Swedish knowing what to do in school Which living condition do you think you would have the hardest time with? being treated as unequal by others having to leave my family needing to work hard all the time traveling to an unfamiliar country Brainliest for the correct answer!! Choose the best definition of an active verb.A.With an active verb, the subject receives the action.B.Active verbs are those used for sports writing.C.With an active verb, the subject performs the action.D.Active verbs indicate reaction. Select True/False for each of the following statements regarding aluminum / aluminum alloys: (a) Aluminum alloys are generally not viable as lightweight structural materials in humid environments because they are highly susceptible to corrosion by water vapor. (b) Aluminum alloys are generally superior to pure aluminum, in terms of yield strength, because their microstructures often contain precipitate phases that strain the lattice, thereby hardening the alloy relative to pure aluminum. (c) Aluminum is not very workable at high temperatures in air, in terms of extrusion and rolling, because a non-protective oxide grows and consumes the metal, converting it to a hard and brittle ceramic. (d) Compared to most other metals, like steel, pure aluminum is very resistant to creep deformation. (e) The relatively low melting point of aluminum is often considered a significant limitation for high-temperature structural applications. Consider the following SQL code to generate a table for storing data about a music library. CREATE TABLE playlists ( id INTEGER PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT, name TEXT ); CREATE TABLE songs ( id INTEGER PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT, title TEXT, artist TEXT, album TEXT, year NUMERIC, playlist_id INTEGER, FOREIGN KEY(playlist_id) REFERENCES playlists(id) ); Critique the design of this database, as by proposing and explaining at least two ways in which its design could be improved. Hint: Might songs end up with (lots of!) duplicate values in some columns? Find the area of this triangle.. Mi nombre es Estela. Yo tengo que poner y quitar la mesa y lavar los platos cada da con mi mam. Mi pap no tiene que poner ni quitar la mesa ni lavar los platos. Tengo que barrer y fregar el piso con mi mam cada each semana. Mi amigo Pepe no tiene que barrer ni fregar el piso. Ana, tienes que limpiar cada da? S, tengo que pasar la aspiradora el martes y lavar los platos los lunes, mircoles y viernes. Mi hermano, brother no tiene que pasar la aspiradora el martes ni lavar los platos. Based on what you learned from the lesson, which country are Estela and Ana describing? USA Argentina Dominican Republic Germany A steam turbine receives 8 kg/s of steam at 9 MPa, 650 C and 60 m/s (pressure, temperature and velocity). It discharges liquid-vapor mixture with a quality of 0.94 at a pressure of 325 kPa and a velocity of 15 m/s. In addition, there is heat transfer from the turbine to the surroundings for 560 kW. Find the power produced by the turbine and express it in kW? According to this label, what is the serving size for this product? Nutrition Facts: Serving Six 1 cup (228 g), Servings per container 2. Amount per Serving: Calories 260, Calories from Fat 120, % Daily Value: Total Fat 13g - 20%, Saturated Fat 5g - 25%,Trans Fat 2 g, Cholesterol 30 mg - 10%, Sodium 660 mg - 28%, Total Carbohydrate 31 g - 10%, Dietary fiber 0g - 0%,Sugars 5g, Protein 5g