What value of x satisfies the system of equations below?

x = 8 – 2y

x + 3y = 12



A.
4

B.
0

C.
16

D.
5

Answer: 1

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

a and c are functions b is not

Step-by-step explanation:

a and c are both functions

while b, is not

Answer:

The probability is 0.003

Step-by-step explanation:

If 62% prefers Batman, the percentage that prefers Iron man will be (100-62)% = 38%

So the probability of finding a teenager that likes batman will be 62/100 = 0.62

The probability of finding a teenager that prefers iron man will be 38/100 = 0.38

Now, we want to find the probability that out of 50 people at Walmart on a Sunday, exactly 40 prefers Batman

We can use the Bernoulli approximation of the binomial theorem ;

let probability of liking Batman be q and that of iron man be q

Thus the approximation will be;

P(X = 40) = 50 C 40 (0.62)^40 (0.38)^10

= 0.003200147531

To the nearest thousandth, this is 0.003

Answer: calculator

Step-by-step explanation:

2.16$

Answer:

33

Step-by-step explanation:

The sum of interior angles in a rectangle is 360°

98 + 98 + 98 + 2x = 360

294 + 2x = 360

2x = 66°

x = 33

Answer:

1) 5 & 9

5=Corresponding Angle

9=Alternate Exterior Angle

2) 7 & 8

We know 4 is supplementary to 8.  Since that is true, 7 & 8 are also.

8=Corresponing angle to 4

7=Verticle angle to 8

3) We know 1 and 3 equal 180

x-20+x+40=180

2x+20=180

2x=180-20

2x=160

x=80

<2=X+20

=80+20

=100

Angle 2 is the same as angles 5 and 6 added together.

We know angle 5 is the same as angle 1 (corresponding angles).

<1=X-20

=80-20

=60

Now that we know <2=100 and <5=60, we can figure out <6

100-60=40

<6=40°

Step-by-step explanation:

1) 5 & 9

5=Corresponding Angle

9=Alternate Exterior Angle

2) 7 & 8

We know 4 is supplementary to 8.  Since that is true, 7 & 8 are also.

8=Corresponing angle to 4

7=Verticle angle to 8

3) We know 1 and 3 equal 180

x-20+x+40=180

2x+20=180

2x=180-20

2x=160

x=80

<2=X+20

=80+20

=100

Angle 2 is the same as angles 5 and 6 added together.

We know angle 5 is the same as angle 1 (corresponding angles).

<1=X-20

=80-20

=60

Now that we know <2=100 and <5=60, we can figure out <6

100-60=40

<6=40°

A+B+C= 40

2C +5=A

B-C=3

A is Amanda, B is Bethany and C is Christina

Answer:

x = 74

Step-by-step explanation:

If you add all the angles in the diagram, you will get 360 degrees (since it's a complete revolution, and one revolution = 360 degrees).

Form an equation in x with this information:

4x+1+x-35+24 = 360

5x -10 = 360

5x = 370

x = 74

Answer:

m > 15

Step-by-step explanation:

Kindly check attached picture

Answer:

La desigualdad para determinar el número de empleados a tiempo completo que Tom debe programar para que sus empleados trabajen al menos 260 horas a la semana es 20+40*n ≥ 260. Resolviendo al menos 6 empleados deben trabajar a tiempo completo.

Step-by-step explanation:

Una inecuación es una desigualdad entre letras (incógnitas) y números relacionados por  operaciones aritméticas. Su conjunto solución es el conjunto de números reales que la satisfacen. En una desigualdad, dos expresiones algebraicas están conectadas a través de los signos: mayor que >, menor que <, menor o igual que ≤ y mayor o igual que ≥.

Tom tiene un empleado a tiempo parcial que trabaja 20 horas a la semana. Cada empleado a tiempo completo trabaja 40 horas a la semana. Tom debe programar para que sus empleados trabajen al menos 260 horas a la semana.

Sabiendo que x representa la cantidad de trabajadores a medio tiempo  y n la cantidad de trabajadores a  tiempo completo, entonces  20*x+40*n representa la cantidad de horas que todos los empleados trabajan semanalmente. Si los empleados trabajen al menos 260 horas a la semana, esto significa que la cantidad de horas que todos los empleados trabajan a la semana debe ser mayor o igual a 260 horas. Entonces:

20*x+40*n ≥ 260

Si Tom tiene un empleado a tiempo parcial, entonces la cantidad de trabajadores a medio tiempo x debe tener un valor de 1. Entonces:

20*1+40*n ≥ 260

20+40*n ≥ 260

40*n ≥ 260 -20

40*n ≥ 240

n ≥ 240 ÷40

n ≥ 6

Entonces 6 empleados o más deben trabajar a tiempo completo.

P(A|B) = 1/3

"A Venn diagram in mathematics is a diagram that uses overlapping circles or other shapes to represent the logical relationships between two or more sets of items. "

"For any experiment, a probability denotes the possibility of outcome for any event."

For event A, the probability of event A is,

P(A) = number of favorable outcomes/ total umber of outcomes

"Conditional probability is the probability of an event occurring given that another event has already occurred."

P(A|B) = P(A∩B)÷P(B)

For given diagram:

Let A represents a set of students playing Basketball and B represents a set of students playing Soccer

So, A = {Fran, Ian, Juan, Ella}

⇒ n(A) = 4

B = {Mickey, Marcus, Ella}

⇒ n(B) = 3

(A ∩ B) = {Ella}

⇒ n(A ∩ B) = 1

sample space: S = {Fran, Ian, Juan, Ella, Mickey, Marcus, Mai, Karl, Jada, Gabby}

⇒ n(S) = 10

Now, we calculate probability of B and A∩B.

P(B) = n(B)/n(S)

⇒ P(B) = 3/10

Also, P(A∩B) = n(A∩B) / n(S)

⇒ P(A∩B) = 1/10

So, the required probability would be,

⇒ P(A|B) = P(A∩B) ÷ P(B)

⇒ P(A|B) = (1/10) ÷ (3/10)

⇒ P(A|B) = 1/3

Therefore, P(A|B) = 1/3

Learn more about probability here:

https://brainly.com/question/12478394

#SPJ2

Given:

The linear equation is

[tex]y=-27x+577[/tex]

where x represents the number of weeks and y represents the amount of money left in Alma's account.

To find:

The number of weeks in which Alma have $145 left in her account.

Solution:

We have,

[tex]y=-27x+577[/tex]

Substitute y=145, we get

[tex]145=-27x+577[/tex]

Subtract both sides by 577.

[tex]145-577=-27x[/tex]

[tex]-432=-27x[/tex]

Divide both sides by -27.

[tex]\dfrac{-432}{-27}=\dfrac{-27x}{-27}[/tex]

[tex]16=x[/tex]

So, the number of required weeks is 16. Therefore, the correct option is B.

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Right on edge 2020

Answer:

undefined

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Undefined

Step-by-step explanation:

(7-10) / -3-(-3)

-3/ -3+3

-3/0

UNDEFINED!

Answer:1/3

Step-by-step explanation:

3p- -5=6

- and - becomes +

3p+5=6

transpose 5 to the other side

3p=6-5

because on transposing + becomes -

3p=1

p=1/3

because multiplication changes to addition on transposing

please mark me as brainly .

Answer:

c.gle c.angel B

Step-by-step explanation:

consider the triangle which shows the order of the angles from smallest to largest?

Answer:

slope is 4/3 and y intercept is 5

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:12

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Answer:

Kaya's answer is correct.

Step-by-step explanation:

The number of dots in successive figures are

8, 16, 24.

So Kaya's solution 8n is correct.

When n = 1, first square = 8*1 = 8 dots

n = 2: second square = 8*2 = 16

n = 3, 3rd square = 8*3 = 24.

If I have interpreted Kianna's formula correctly

for n = 1, then the number of dots = 2(1+ 1)^2 - 2(1 - - 1)^2

= 0.

Answer: No its not a right angled triangle. Please mark as brainliest!

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:4 mm and 5 mm are the A and B part of the triangle while the 8 mm is the hypotenuse

Step-by-step explanation:

A. For Tavon's gift card the equation is

let y be the total amount

let x be the number of 30 day period

y=145-3.5x------1

for Tavon's second gift card the equation is

let y be the total amount

let x be the number of 30 day period

y=125-3x-------------2

B. equating 1 and 2 we have

145-3.5x=125-3x

solve for x we have

145-125=-3x+3.5x

20=0.5x

divide both sides by x we have

x=20/0.5

x= 40

put x=40 in

y=145-3.5*40------1

y=145-140

y=$5

put x=40 in

y=125-3*40------1

y=125-120

y=$5

Answer:

66

Step-by-step explanation:

66 square root is 8.12403840464

Answer:

i got 66

Step-by-step explanation:

REEEEEEEEEEEEEEEEE

Answer:

the slope is y=5/2x-12

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

1+3*1

3*1=3

3+1=4

Answer:

the answer is 4

Step-by-step explanation:

you do 3 times 1 witch is 3 then add 1 also hears a tip always do multiplication and division first

Answer:

At least means ≥

No more than means ≤

Let x = number of bags of potato chips

Let y = the number of bags of corn chips

x+y≥100

2.50x+2.90y≤$350

Let's try x=80 and y=20 (We know that is equals 100 so it will work for the first equation

2.50(80)+2.90(20) = 258 which is ≤$350

Buy 80 bags of potato chips and 20 bags of corn chips is one possibility.

Answer:

step 1:   0.75 x 6 = 4.5

step 2:   0.75 x d = 0.75d

step 3:    4.5 + 0.75 = 5.25

It's correct answer

Step-by-step explanation: