The correct answer is c) Photosynthesis. This is the primary method of energy acquisition for phytoplankton.
The autotrophic (self-feeding) members of the plankton community and a crucial component of freshwater and ocean ecosystems are phytoplankton.
Photosynthesis is how land plants like trees and phytoplankton get their energy. As a result, phytoplankton lives on the well-lit surface layers (euphotic zone) of seas and lakes because they need sunlight to survive. Phytoplankton are dispersed over a larger surface area than terrestrial plants, are subject to less seasonal change, and have noticeably higher turnover rates than trees (days versus decades). As a result, phytoplankton reacts to changes in the climate quickly on a global scale.
The full question is:
What is the primary method of energy acquisition for phytoplankton?
a. oxygen metabolism
b. chemosynthesis
c. photosynthesis
d. methane metabolism
e. respiration
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Which of the following is a characteristic of life?
A.) growth and heredity
B.) metabolism
C.) homeostasis
D.) all of the above
Which letter choice is correct? A, B, C, or D?
Answer:
A.) Growth and heredity
Explanation:
what characteristic of dna allows methylation patterns to be maintained throuh replication and cell devision
Maintenance of such a methylation pattern in DNA during replication is mediated by DNA nucleotide methyltransferase 1 (DNMT1) [11], which methylates newly synthesized CpG sequences.
Depending on the methylation status of the template strand, inheritance of DNA methylation through replication occurs easily and rapidly, as newly replicated hypomethylated DNA serves to recruit housekeeping DNA methylases to restore DNA methylation in the newly replicated strand of DNA. Cell division and epigenetic inheritance: DNA replicates in a semi-conservative way. Various DNA replication machines preserve genetic and epigenetic information. DNA methylation patterns are believed to be maintained through mitosis by DNA methyltransferase. Most DNA methylation is essential for normal development and plays a very important role in a number of key processes, including genomic imprinting, X chromosome inactivation and repeat deletion. transposition and transcription elements and, when dysregulated, contributes to diseases such as cancer.
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how woudl blocking the structures of teh conducting zone of the respiratory tract impair ventilation
The Structures that are blocked in the respiratory zone, where gas exchange occurs, have an immediate impact.
What is respiratory?
breathing is the process of inhaling and exhaling air. Biology. the entire physical and chemical processes that deliver oxygen to tissues and cells and release carbon dioxide and water during oxidation.
What is conducting zone?
Since they function as airways into and out of the lungs, the conducting zone includes the nasal cavity, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, and the majority of bronchioles
By blocking the structures in the conducting zone, air delivery to and from the structures where gas exchange occurs would not be possible. Structures that are blocked in the respiratory zone, where gas exchange occurs, have an immediate impact.
Therefore, Structures that are blocked in the respiratory zone, where gas exchange occurs, have an immediate impact.
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When a stem cell divides, it produces two daughter cells. One daughter cell will remain a stem cell, while the other daughter cell will differentiate into a specialized cell. Which factor will most directly determine what type of specialized cell will be produced?.
The factor that will most directly determine what type of specialized cell will be produced is the genes that are expressed.
Stem cells are the raw materials of the body, the cells that give rise to all other cells with specialized functions. Under the right conditions, stem cells divide to form more cells known as daughter cells in the body or in a laboratory.
Embryonic stem cells are pluripotent stem cells derived from the inner cell mass of a blastocyst, a pre-implantation embryo in its early stages. Human embryos reach the blastocyst stage 4-5 days after fertilization, consisting of 50-150 cells.
Adult body tissues and embryos are the two main sources of stem cells. Scientists are also experimenting with genetic "reprogramming" techniques to create stem cells from other cells.
Stem cell differentiation is the process by which a cell transforms from a proliferation to a more specialized cell type. This is accomplished through a series of changes in cell morphology, membrane potential, metabolic activity, and signal responsiveness.
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atapuerca, dated to approximately 300,000 years ago, has yielded a sample representing about twenty-eight premodern homo sapiens individuals.
The site which has yielded a sample is A)Atapuerca which is representing about twenty-eight premodern homo sapiens individuals. So, correct option is A.
The archeological site of Atapuerca is situated in the region of Burgos in the north of Spain and is eminent for its proof of early human occupation. It was assigned a World Legacy Site in 2000.
The archeological meaning of this piece of the region of Burgos turned out to be progressively evident in the twentieth 100 years as the consequence of the development of a meter-check rail line (presently neglected) through the Atapuerca Mountains. Profound cuttings were made through the karst topography uncovering rocks and silt of highlights known as Gran Dolina, Galería Elefante and Sima de los Huesos.
The resulting exhuming of 1964 under the bearing of Francisco Jordá Cerdá prevailed with the disclosure of anthropogenic relics and human fossils from a wide time range (early people, agrarian gatherings, Bronze Age tenants).
Hence, correct option is A.
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(Complete question) is:
Which of the following sites, dated to approximately 300,000 years ago, has yielded a sample representing about twenty-eight premodern homo sapiens individuals?
a. Atapuerca
b.Ehringsdorf
c. Steinheim
d. Swanscombe
e. Petralona
describe three cranial features that differentiate the robust australopithecines from gracile australopithecines.
Greater prognathism, less flaring cheekbones, and smaller cheek teeth are characteristics of gracile australopithecines. Strong australopithecines had brow ridges that protruded outward.
What distinguishes gracile australopithecines from robust ones?The three cranial characteristics shown in the image below distinguish the robust australopithecines from the gracile australopithecines. The main difference between gracile and robust species is that while robust species had large cheek teeth, strong jaws, and powerful jaw muscles, sometimes anchored to a bony crest running along the top of the skull, gracile species had smaller cheek teeth, pronounced prognathism, less flared cheeks, and no sagittal crest.
What sets robust australopithecines apart from other species of the genus?Although some researchers continue to classify the robust species as Australopithecus, they are frequently assigned to the genus Paranthropus. They typically have larger jaws.
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one way scientists hope to use the recent knowledge gained about noncoding rnas lies with the possibilities for their use in medicine. of the following scenarios for future research, which would you expect to gain most from rnas?
Scientists who is hoping to use the knowledge gained by a noncoding rnas lies among the Targeting siRNAs which is disable and the expression for any of the allele with autosomal dominant the disease. Option (c) is correct.
SIRNAs is a very the small interfering RNAs that don't function a template at some point of the system of protein synthesis. These RNA molecules are double-stranded and feature approximately 23 nucleotides in total. siRNAs manage the expression of genes that selectively inhibiting the mRNAs.
They manage gene expression on the post-transcriptional stage through selectively cleaving mRNA molecules which have the nucleotide sequences complementary to the siRNA. The siRNA molecules may be used to selectively inhibit the expression of the allele for an autosomal dominant disorder. This selective inactivation of the allele related to the ailment could assist to govern the corresponding genetic disorder.
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Correct Question:
One way scientists hope to use the recent knowledge gained about noncoding RNAs lies with the possibilities for their use in medicine. Of the following scenarios for future research, which would you expect to gain most from RNAs?
A) exploring a way to turn on the expression of pseudogenes
B) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal recessive disease
C) targeting siRNAs to disable the expression of an allele associated with autosomal dominant disease
D) creating knock-out organisms that can be useful for pharmaceutical drug design
E) looking for a way to prevent viral DNA from causing infection in humans
which of the following would reduce the glomerular filtration rate a. vasodilation of the afferent arteirole b. vasocontriction of the afferent arteirole c. a drop in oncotic pressure d. an increase in osmotic pressure in the glomerular capsule e. vasocontriction of the efferent arteirole
vasocontriction of the afferent arteirole reduce the glomerular filtration rate .
The kidney's glomerulus filters blood at a specific rate. The glomerular filtration rate is the name given to this rate.If there is a slight variation in the daily blood pressure, the glomerular filtration rate often does not alter. This slight shift is precisely controlled by our body.However, if there is a significant fall in blood pressure as a result of blood loss. In such cases, the afferent arteriole's vasoconstriction (contraction) is stimulated by the neurological system, which reduces blood flow to the glomerulus.This will lower the rate of glomerular filtration, which will ultimately result in less urine being produced.
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a horticulturalist wants to produce geraniums with specific characteristics. she knows that the trait of red flowers is governed by the allele r (rr and rr) and the trait of white flowers is governed by the allele r (rr).
a cross of two geraniums yields offspring that are 25% rr, 50% rr, and 25% rr.
which choice best represents the alleles of the parents?
A. Rr and rr
B. rr and rr
C. Rr and Rr
D. RR and rr
Answer C Rr and Rr
Explanation:
because i did that test hope this helps
Answer: C. Rr and Rr
Explanation:
Took the test
102) auxin enhances cell elongation in all of the these ways except a) increased uptake of solutes. b) gene activation. c) acid-induced denaturation of cell wall proteins. d) increased activity of plasma membrane proton pumps. e) cell wall loosening.
With the exception of acid-induced denaturation of cell wall proteins, auxin promotes cell elongation in all of these ways.
Role of auxin in cell elongation:Cell walls, which are dynamic structures with a tightly controlled balance between rigidity and flexibility, surround the cells of plants. Although walls are extensible to allow for cell expansion, which is induced by a high intracellular turgor pressure, they are rather rigid to give support and protection. A variety of cell sizes and shapes are produced as a result of the regulation of wall characteristics on the differential growth of the cell. It is generally known that the plant hormone auxin promotes cell elongation by lengthening cell walls. Auxin causes the wall to relax, contributing to the modulation of cell wall characteristics.
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Suppose a female fruit fly carries a mutation in her nanos gene that prevents expression of the nanos protein in any eggs she produces. Which effect is likely to be observed?.
Her eggs create fruit fly embryos with two heads, one of which is on a gene that blocks the expression of the nanos protein in any subsequent eggs she produces.
Which circumstances would cause developing ducks to lose their webbing?Webbing is lost as a result of apoptosis. Duck embryos that have been experimentally implanted with mutant BMP4 have non-webbed feet. Both the growth of a single organism and the evolution of species distinctions are governed by the actions of genes under the direction of genetic switches.
Which role do gap genes play in Drosophila?In Drosophila melanogaster and other insects, the gap gene system regulates the initial steps of the segmentation pathway. This system plays a crucial part in embryo patterning due to its tractability and has been the area of interest for both experimentalists and computational modelers.
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Which of the following does not influence hemoglobin saturation?
a. temperature
b. DPG
c. nitric oxide
d. carbon dioxide
Answer:
b. DPG
Explanation:
I don't know just random answer
Nitric oxide does not influence hemoglobin saturation.
Hemoglobin saturation is not directly affected by nitric oxide (NO). The amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin in red blood cells is known as hemoglobin saturation. The effects of temperature, DPG (2,3-diphosphoglycerate), and carbon dioxide on hemoglobin saturation are discussed. Nitric oxide's primary functions in the body are as a vasodilator and signaling molecule. While it helps control blood pressure and flow, it has little immediate effect on hemoglobin saturation.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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quizl;et parasitology all of the following are correct about helminths except they generally make only a few eggs per day. their eggs and larvae are vulnerable to heat. as parasites, their reproductive organs are their most developed organs. tapeworms and pinworms are two examples. they are not all parasites, although some are.
The following is incorrect about helminths: a) Typically, they only lay a few eggs every day. This is because they produce thousands of eggs each day.
Eggs that are transferred in the feces of infected persons are what cause soil-transmitted helminths to spread. Adult worms lay hundreds of eggs daily in the colon where they reside. These eggs infect the soil in places with poor sanitation. Several things might cause this to occur:
Eggs of helminths are consumed via polluted water sources, eggs are ingested from vegetables that have eggs attached to them, eggs are ingested by kids who play in contaminated dirt and then put their hands in their mouths without washing them, and eggs are ingested from vegetables that have eggs attached to them.
Additionally, hookworm larvae that develop into a form that can actively pierce the skin are released when their eggs hatch in the soil. The main way that people get hookworm is by going barefoot on the contaminated ground. The eggs of helminths carried in feces must develop in the soil for about 3 weeks before they become infectious, thus there is no direct person-to-person transmission or infection from fresh feces.
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question at position 1 horses and donkeys can interbreed, but their offspring (mules) are infertile. this is an example of what kind of reproductive isolating mechanism?
genetic incompatibility post-zygote. The production of healthy sperm and eggs is hampered by the misaligned chromosomes. Mules are therefore sterile because the chromosomes of horses and donkeys are simply too different.
A type of postzygotic isolating mechanism is hybrid sterility. For instance, the mule is a cross between a horse or pony and a donkey. The donkey has 62 diploid chromosomes, while a horse or pony has 64. The mule is therefore sterile and has 63 chromosomes. An progeny known as a mule can be born from the union of a donkey and a horse. Due to the donkey parent having 62 and the horse parent having 64 chromosomes, the resulting mule has 63 chromosomes in its cells. The mule can't do it.
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With regard to pharyngeal slits, match each of the following with the statement that it is associated with. Invertebrate chordates ✓ [Choose ] Suspension-feeding devices modified to become part of the gill apparatus for gas exchange Slits are closed off and the remaining tissues become part of the ears and head Vertebrates TETUUSC) Tetrapods [Choose ] Question 13 0.4 pts The [Select ] of the tunicate filters water while the holds its organs ✓ [Select ] coelom top portio
Pharyngeal slits are a third chordate feature; these are openings between the pharynx, or throat, and the outside.
Deuterostomes have filter-feeding structures called pharyngeal slits. Repeated holes known as pharyngeal slits can be found along the pharynx caudal to the mouth. They let water to flow out of the pharyngeal slits and into the mouth by holding themselves in this position. According to one theory, pharyngeal slits helped aquatic chordates breathe by first assisting with filter-feeding and then, when gills were added to their walls, helping with respiration. Similar developmental principles govern these repetitive segments. Some hemichordate species have gill slit counts of up to 200. During the early developmental phases of tetrapod growth, pharyngeal clefts that resemble gill slits are momentarily present. Ernst Haeckel famously proposed that the growing human embryo's neck had pharyngeal arches and clefts.
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90) what is the probable role of salicylic acid in the defense responses of plants? a) destroy pathogens directly b) activate systemic acquired resistance of plants c) close stomata, thus preventing the entry of pathogens d) activate heat-shock proteins e) sacrifice infected tissues by hydrolyzing cells
The role of salicylic acid in plant defense responses is b) activating systemically acquired plant resistance
Growth hormone is an organic compound both naturally occurring and man-made that can promote plant growth and development. Hormones control plant growth and development, by influencing cell division, cell elongation, and cell differentiation.
Salicylic acid is a phenolic compound that plays a role in regulating plant growth. These phenolic compounds can increase plant growth and have an effect on protecting the development of antistress programs. Resistance to disease in the process of plant production can be achieved by using biopesticides through the induction of systemic resistance by increasing secondary metabolites with salicylic acid. Salicylic acid plays an important role in induced systemic resistance in response to pathogenic infections. The mechanism of plant resistance to disease can be in the form of physical or chemical resistance. Salicylic acid is more dominant to overcome the attack of biotrophic pathogens.
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what is feedback inhibition? how enzymes catalyzing the irreversible reactions in glycolysis and krebs cycle are regulated by amp:atp ratio?
A feedback inhibitor chemical that binds to an enzyme and inhibits its activity is known as an enzyme inhibitor. By increasing the Km for fructose-6-phosphate, ATP blocks the phosphofructokinase process. The reaction is triggered by AMP. Thus, glycolysis starts when energy is needed. The reaction slows down when energy is in abundance.
What is glycolysis?
The metabolic process that changes glucose into pyruvate is known as glycolysis. The high-energy molecules adenosine triphosphate and reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide are created using the free energy released during this process. A series of ten enzyme-catalyzed processes make up glycolysis.
Hence, the answer is feedback inhibitor chemical that binds to an enzyme and inhibits its activity is known as an enzyme inhibitor. By increasing the Km for fructose-6-phosphate, ATP blocks the phosphofructokinase process. The reaction is triggered by AMP. Thus, glycolysis starts when energy is needed. The reaction slows down when energy is in abundance.
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While states have been relatively effective in stopping ______, they have been less successful at stopping ______.
While states have been relatively effective in stopping The depletion of the ozone layer they have been less successful at stopping Global climate change.
Countries all across the globe decided to stop using ozone-diminishing compounds in order to protect the ozone layer from depleting.
The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer in 1985 and the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer in 1987 formalized this accord.
Ozone shields the Earth from the Sun's damaging ultraviolet (UV) radiation. Life on Earth would be extremely difficult without the Ozone layer in the atmosphere.
Plants and planktons, which provide sustenance for the majority of ocean life, cannot survive and thrive in high UV exposure.
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during a single crossover event, how many strands of dna must break? (recall that dna is double-stranded.)during a single crossover event, how many strands of dna must break? (recall that dna is double-stranded.)eight strandsone strandtwo strandsfour strands
during a single crossover event, four strands of DNA must break.
The genetic material in humans and virtually all other species is called DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid. A person's body has almost identical DNA in every cell. The trading chart's crossover occurs at the intersection of a security's price and a technical indicator line, or when two indicators cross. A financial instrument's performance is estimated using crossover, which are also used to foretell future shifts in trend, such breakouts or reversals.
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nucleotides are composed of a(an): a. amino acid, b. nitrogen-containing base, c. fatty acid, d. 5-carbon sugar, e. phosphate molecule. which combination is correct:
The correct option is B,D,E : A molecule made comprised of a nitrogen-containing base (in DNA, adenine, guanine, thymine, or cytosine; in RNA, adenine, guanine, uracil, or cytosine), a phosphate group, and a sugar (deoxyribose in DNA; ribose in RNA).
An amino acid is a protein molecule monomer, whereas a nucleotide is a nucleic acid monomer. As a result, this is the primary distinction between amino acid and nucleotide. Furthermore, amino acids have C, H, N, O, and S atoms, whereas nucleotides contain C, H, N, O, and P atoms.
Nucleotides are made up of three components: phosphate, a sugar molecule, and one of four bases. A (adenine), g (guanine), t (thymine), and c are the bases (cytosine).
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Label the following diagram with the correct term(s). The terms are biosphere, atmosphere, & biota.
A
B
C
D
E
A. Hydrosphere
B. Biosphere
C. Biota
D. Geosphere
E. Atmosphere
The biosphere is made up of all habitats on Earth that support life.
The Earth itself can be referred to as Geosphere.
Biota refers to animal and plant life or flora and fauna.
Hydrosphere refers to water on and under the surface of Earth.
Atmosphere refers to gases encircling the Earth.
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how many moles are present in 10.0 gram sample of sodium
Answer:
0.07 moles
Explanation:
when you arrive at work, you are unable to park your car in your assigned spot because someone has already parked there. what type of enzyme process could this be related to? your answer: denaturation competitive inhibition substrate specific inhibition non-competitive inhibition
when a car is parked exactly where you usually do, making it impossible for you to park. In this problem, enzymes are compared to a car's parking capabilities. The car is the substrate, the parking space is the active site, and the nearby cars are the competitive inhibition.
Competitive inhibition is the disruption of a chemical pathway as a result of one chemical substance competing with another for binding or bonding, hence inhibiting the action of the other. This principle may have an impact on any metabolic or chemical messenger system, but several classes of competitive inhibition, such as the competitive form of enzyme inhibition, the competitive form of receptor antagonism, the competitive form of antimetabolite activity, and the competitive form of poisoning, are particularly significant in biochemistry and medicine (which can include any of the aforementioned types)
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If an offspring has a recessive trait show up, such as blue eyes, what combination of alleles must be present?
Group of answer choices
1 dominant and 1 recessive gene
2 dominant genes
2 recessive genes
Answer:
2 recessive genes
Explanation:
A recessive trait can only be present in the absence of the dominant gene.
For example the gene for brown eyes are dominant and the gene for blue eyes are recessive.
**the dominant gene is usually represented with a capital letter and vice versa for the recessive*
Denoting:
B for brown eyes
b for blue eyes
We know that gametes (sex cells) have half the number of chromosomes (haploid number) than all the other cells in the body, the reason for this is because during fertilization, both male and female gametes combine and then in total they have the diploid number of chromosomes.
so for each trait, you have an allele from each the mother and father. Heterozygous means that there are two different alleles for the gene and homozygous means that both alleles for a specific gene are the same.
In the case of eye colour, any combination that has the dominant Brown allele in it results in the offspring having brown eyes no matter if there is also a recessive blue allele.
the combinations BB, Br all result in brown eyes and the only possibility of blues eyes are bb
Muscles of the axial skeleton might have an origin or insertion on any of the following except...
1. bones of the skull
2. humerus, femur
3. cranial bones, cervical vertebrae
4. thoracic vertebrae, lumbar vertebrae
Muscles of the axial skeleton might have an origin or insertion on any of the following except option 2 humerus, femur.
The axial skeleton is comprised of the 80 bones that form your body's central core. This includes your skull, neck, back, and chest bones. Your brain, spinal cord, and organs are all protected and cushioned by your axial skeleton. The skull, laryngeal skeleton, vertebral column, and thoracic cage are all part of the axial skeleton. The humerus and femur are the bones that correspond to the arms and legs, respectively. While their parts are similar in general, their structures have been modified to serve different purposes. The humeral head is nearly hemispherical, while the femoral head is roughly two-thirds of a sphere.
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Which term describes the study of the distribution of genetic traits and the allelic changes that occur within a population?.
Population genetics is the branch of biology that investigates allele frequencies in populations and how they alter through time. Macroevolution, which involves significant changes over a long period of time, such as the emergence of new groups or species, is commonly contrasted with microevolution.
Which phrase best represents a shift in the populations' allelic frequencies?Natural selection, genetic drift (chance occurrences that alter allele frequencies), and gene flow are the three mechanisms that might cause allele frequencies to shift (the transfer of alleles between populations).
What is the mechanism by which a population's trait distribution evolves over many generations?Populations of organism go through a process called evolution.
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some animal cells produce an extensive extracellular matrix. you would expect their ribosomes to synthesize large amounts of which of the following proteins? some animal cells produce an extensive extracellular matrix. you would expect their ribosomes to synthesize large amounts of which of the following proteins? collagen myosin tubulin actin
You would expect their ribosomes to synthesize large amounts of a) collagen.
A class of protein is collagen. In actuality, it is the structural protein that is most prevalent in mammals. Proteins that make up the framework or structure of your cells and tissues are known as structural proteins. There are 28 varieties of collagen that are now recognized, with type I collagen making up 90% of the collagen in the human body.
Your body naturally makes collagen, which you can also get from food sources including fish and chicken skin and supplements.
For the treatment of aging symptoms like wrinkles, dry skin, and joint discomfort, oral and topical collagen treatments, such as supplements and face creams, are well-liked.
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How would you expect the rate of speciation of an allopatric case to compare to the rate of speciation of a sympatric case involving formation of allopolyploid offspring?.
The rate of speciation of an allopatric case would occur at a much slower rate than the sympatric case involving formation of allopolyploid offspring.
Groups from an ancestral population evolve into separate species due to a period of geographical separation in allopatric speciation. The evolution of a new species from a surviving ancestral species and both continue to inhabit the same geographic region in sympatric speciation. An individual having two or more complete sets of chromosomes derived from different species is said to be allopolyploid. The speed or pace of the emergence of new species is slow in allopatric speciation compared to sympatric speciation involving allopolyploid offspring.
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Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method?
A) belief in a preconceived idea
B) formulate a hypothesis
C) systematic observation
D) laboratory experimentation
E) development of a theory
A) belief in a preconceived idea
The scientific method does not involve holding onto predetermined notions.
Which four steps comprise the scientific method?The procedures for applying the scientific method differ from text to text, but they typically include: defining the issue, gathering background data, formulating a hypothesis, making observations, testing the hypothesis, and drawing conclusions.
Does the scientific approach include holding to predetermined notions?The scientific method is unbiased in that researchers don't allow preconceived notions or prejudices to affect the data collecting, and it is systematic in that experiments are carried out in a logical manner.
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Safe Cooking Temperatures To ensure food safety when preparing meats, a thermometer should be used to gauge the internal temperature. Put the four meats in order of lowest recommended minimum internal temperature (left) to highest recommended minimum internal temperature (right) Medium rare steak Pourty Heat to 140°F Heat to 145°F Heat to 160°F Heat to 165°F Reset
Temperatures for Safe Cooking A thermometer should be used to gauge the internal temperature of meats to ensure food safety.
When cooking meat or eggs at home, keep the following temperatures in mind: Cook eggs and all ground meats to 160°F; poultry and fowl to 165°F; and fresh meat steaks, chops, and roasts to 145°F. Check temperatures with a thermometer. for safe cooking Chilling food does not kill bacteria, but it does prevent them from multiplying to dangerous levels. As a result, it is a legal requirement that perishable foods be kept refrigerated at 8oC or lower. Frozen food should ideally be stored at a temperature of -18oC or lower.
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