What is the main role of governors and what are they used for?
which is the main force acting on the governer to make it
function, descibe the mechanism?
write 2-3 sentences for each question

Answers

Answer 1

Governors are used to control the speed of engines and maintain them at a steady speed under varying conditions of load. By sensing the engine speed, the governor adjusts the fuel flow to keep the speed constant.

The main force acting on the governor to make it function is the centrifugal force.

The main role of governors and what they are used for

Governors are a mechanical device used to control the speed of engines in heavy equipment or machinery. The governor's purpose is to keep the speed of the engine constant under changing load conditions. The main role of governors is to maintain the speed of an engine when the load or resistance changes.

Conclusion: Governors are used to control the speed of engines and maintain them at a steady speed under varying conditions of load. By sensing the engine speed, the governor adjusts the fuel flow to keep the speed constant.

The main force acting on the governor to make it function.

The centrifugal force is the main force acting on the governor to make it function. The governor is equipped with a flyweight assembly, which is connected to the engine's output shaft. The centrifugal force generated by the flyweights causes them to move outwards.

Explanation: When the engine runs at its rated speed, the governor's flyweights move outward, causing the governor's control linkage to hold a constant fuel supply to the engine. If the engine speed rises due to an increase in load, the governor's flyweights move out, pushing the control linkage inward and reducing the fuel supply to the engine.

The flyweights move inward when the engine slows down, reducing the centrifugal force and pushing the control linkage out, increasing the fuel supply to the engine to maintain the speed.

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Related Questions

Question 10 0.5 mol of a diatomic ideal gas is held within a well-insulated cylindrical piston at room temperature (20 °C) and at a pressure of 0.75 x 105 Pa. a. Use the theory of equipartition to give the molar specific heats of the gas at constant volume and at constant pressure. Vibrational modes are not excited, and the gas constant is R = 8.3 J mol-¹ K-¹. [2 marks] b. The pressure of the gas is raised to atmospheric pressure (1.01 x 105 Pa) by an isochoric heating process. Find the thermal energy added to the gas during this process. [4 marks] c. Draw a clearly labelled p-V diagram showing the process described in part (b). To this diagram, add a second heating process in which the piston is released so that the gas expands at constant pressure to a final temperature of 200 °C. Find the total work done on the system during these two processes. [4 marks] d. The lid of the piston is a disc of radius 0.10 m which moves horizontally without friction. How far does it move during the second heating process? [3 marks]

Answers

a. Theory of equipartition of energy states that each degree of freedom of a molecule has an average energy of kT/2. Therefore, the molar specific heat of an ideal gas can be expressed as Cv = (f/2)R and Cp = [(f/2) + 1]R,specific heat at constant pressure.

For a diatomic gas, the molecule has five degrees of freedom: three translational and two rotational. Therefore, Cv = (5/2)R = 20.8 J mol-1 K-1 and Cp = (7/2)R = 29.1 J mol-1 K-1.

b. During the isochoric heating process, the volume of the gas remains constant, and the pressure increases from 0.75 x 105 Pa to 1.01 x 105 Pa. Using the ideal gas law, the temperature change can be found: ΔT = ΔQ/Cv = (ΔU/m)Cv = (3/2)R(ΔT/m). Substituting the values, we get ΔT = 35.2 K. Therefore, the thermal energy added to the gas is Q = CvΔT = 727 J.

c. The p-V diagram for the isochoric heating process is shown below. The work done by the gas during the constant-pressure expansion process is given by W = nRΔTln(Vf/Vi), where Vf is the final volume of the gas, and Vi is the initial volume of the gas. Using the ideal gas law, the final volume can be found: Vf = nRTf/Pf. Substituting the values, we get Vf = 0.0137 m³. Therefore, the total work done by the gas is W = nRΔTln(Vf/Vi) + P(Vf - Vi) = 294 J + 1538 J = 1832 J.

d. During the second heating process, the gas expands at constant pressure to a final temperature of 200 °C. The volume change can be found using the ideal gas law: ΔV = nRΔT/P = 3.9 x 10-³ m³. Therefore, the lid of the piston moves a distance of Δx = ΔV/h = 3.9 x 10-³ m. Answer: The distance moved by the lid of the piston is 3.9 x 10-³ m during the second heating process.

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1.)The velocity of a particle which moves along a linear reference axis is given by v = 2—4t + 5t^3/2, t is in seconds while v is in meters per second. Evaluate the position, velocity and acceleration when t = 3 seconds. Assume your own initial position and initial point in time. Further, set a variable for posi- tion as you see fit.
2.)The displacement of a particle which moves along the x axis is given by x = (-2 + 3t)e^-0.5t, consider x to be in feet and t in seconds. Plot the displacement, velocity and acceleration for the first 20 seconds of motion and determine, both graphically and by your established equation for acceleration,
the time at which acceleration is 0.

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We are asked to evaluate the position, velocity, and acceleration of the particle when t = 3 seconds. The initial position and initial point in time are not specified, so they can be chosen arbitrarily.

For the first problem, we can find the position by integrating the given velocity function with respect to time. The velocity function will give us the instantaneous velocity at any given time. Similarly, the acceleration can be obtained by taking the derivative of the velocity function with respect to time.

For the second problem, we are given the displacement function as a function of time. We can differentiate the displacement function to obtain the velocity function and differentiate again to get the acceleration function. Plotting the displacement, velocity, and acceleration functions over the first 20 seconds will give us a graphical representation of the particle's motion.

To find the time at which the acceleration is zero, we can set the acceleration equation equal to zero and solve for t. This will give us the time at which the particle experiences zero acceleration.

In the explanations, the main words have been bolded to emphasize their importance in the context of the problems. These include velocity, position, acceleration, displacement, and time.

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A Brayton cycle with regeneration operates with a pressure ratio of 7. The minimum and maximum cycle temperatures are 300 K and 1000 K. The isentropic efficiency of the compressor and turbine are 80% and 85%, respectively. The effectiveness of the regenerator is 75%. Use constant specific heats evaluated at room temperature. A. Show the cycle on a T-S and P-V diagrams if applicable. B. Discuss the operation of a gas turbine power plant. C. Determine the air temperature at the turbine outlet. D. Calculate the Back-work ratio. E. Determine the net-work output of the cycle. F. Calculate the thermal efficiency of the cycle. G. Now assume that both compression and expansion processes in the compressor and turbine are isentropic. Calculate the thermal efficiency of the ideal cycle.

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A gas turbine power plant consists of a compressor, combustor, turbine, and generator for compressing air, burning fuel, extracting energy, and generating electricity, respectively.

What are the main components of a gas turbine power plant and how do they contribute to the overall operation?

A. The Brayton cycle with regeneration operates with a pressure ratio of 7, isentropic efficiencies of 80% (compressor) and 85% (turbine), and a regenerator effectiveness of 75%. The cycle can be represented on T-S and P-V diagrams.

B. A gas turbine power plant operates based on the Brayton cycle with regeneration, utilizing a gas turbine to generate power by compressing and expanding air and using a regenerator to improve efficiency.

C. The air temperature at the turbine outlet in the Brayton cycle with regeneration needs to be calculated based on the given parameters.

D. The Back-work ratio of the Brayton cycle with regeneration can be calculated using specific formulas.

E. The net-work output of the Brayton cycle with regeneration can be determined by considering the energy transfers in the cycle.

F. The thermal efficiency of the Brayton cycle with regeneration can be calculated as the ratio of net-work output to the heat input.

G. Assuming isentropic compression and expansion processes in the compressor and turbine, the thermal efficiency of the ideal Brayton cycle can be determined using specific equations.

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A reciprocating air compressor was found running at 0.19 m³/s when 37.3 kW electric motor is used. The intake air specs are 101.4 kPa and 300 K and discharged it at 377 kPa. Determine: a) Adiabatic efficiency (i.e. n=1.4). b) Isothermal efficiency.

Answers

The adiabatic efficiency of the compressor is 69.7% ,the isothermal efficiency of the compressor is 72.1%.

Given: Mass flow rate (m) = 0.19 m³/s Electric power input (W) = 37.3 kW Intake air condition Pressure (P1) = 101.4 kPa Temperature (T1) = 300 K Discharge air condition Pressure (P2) = 377 kPa Adiabatic index (n) = 1.4a) Adiabatic efficiency (i.e. n=1.4)The adiabatic efficiency of a compressor is given by:ηa = (T2 - T1) / (T3 - T1)Where T3 is the actual temperature of the compressed air at the discharge, and T2 is the temperature that would have been attained if the compression process were adiabatic .

This formula can also be written as:ηa = Ws / (m * h1 * (1 - (1/r^n-1)))Where, Ws = Isentropic work doneh1 = Enthalpy at inletr = Pressure ratioηa = 1 / (1 - (1/r^n-1))Here, r = P2 / P1 = 377 / 101.4 = 3.7194ηa = 1 / (1 - (1/3.7194^0.4-1)) = 0.697 = 69.7% Therefore, the adiabatic efficiency of the compressor is 69.7%b) Isothermal efficiency

The isothermal efficiency of a compressor is given by:ηi = (P2 / P1) ^ ((k-1) / k)Where k = Cp / Cv = 1.4 for airTherefore,ηi = (P2 / P1) ^ ((1.4-1) / 1.4) = (377 / 101.4) ^ 0.286 = 0.721 = 72.1% The isothermal efficiency of the compressor is 72.1%.

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To determine the adiabatic efficiency and isothermal efficiency of the reciprocating air compressor, we can use the following formulas:

a) Adiabatic Efficiency:

The adiabatic efficiency (η_adiabatic) is given by the ratio of the actual work done by the compressor to the ideal work done in an adiabatic process.

η_adiabatic = (W_actual) / (W_adiabatic)

Where:

W_actual = Power input to the compressor (P_input)

W_adiabatic = Work done in an adiabatic process (W_adiabatic)

P_input = Mass flow rate (m_dot) * Specific heat ratio (γ) * (T_discharge - T_suction)

W_adiabatic = (γ / (γ - 1)) * P_input * (V_discharge - V_suction)

Given:

m_dot = 0.19 m³/s (Mass flow rate)

γ = 1.4 (Specific heat ratio)

T_suction = 300 K (Suction temperature)

T_discharge = Temperature corresponding to 377 kPa (Discharge pressure)

V_suction = Specific volume corresponding to 101.4 kPa and 300 K (Suction specific volume)

V_discharge = Specific volume corresponding to 377 kPa and the temperature calculated using the adiabatic compression process

b) Isothermal Efficiency:

The isothermal efficiency (η_isothermal) is given by the ratio of the actual work done by the compressor to the ideal work done in an isothermal process.

η_isothermal = (W_actual) / (W_isothermal)

Where:

W_isothermal = P_input * (V_discharge - V_suction)

To calculate the adiabatic efficiency and isothermal efficiency, we need to determine the values of V_suction, V_discharge, and T_discharge based on the given pressures and temperatures using the ideal gas law.

Once these values are determined, we can substitute them into the formulas mentioned above to calculate the adiabatic efficiency (η_adiabatic) and isothermal efficiency (η_isothermal) of the reciprocating air compressor.

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The aerodynamic Lift of the Aircraft is created mainly by the influenced by the aerodynamic interference between these parts of the aircraft the and the Its magnitude is significantly

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The aerodynamic lift of the aircraft is created mainly by the influenced by the aerodynamic interference between the wings and the air.

Its magnitude is significantly affected by the airspeed of the aircraft as well as the shape of the wings and their angle of attack. What creates lift in an aircraft?Lift is created by a difference in air pressure. The wings are specially shaped so that the air moving over the top surface must travel farther and faster than the air moving beneath the wing. This creates a difference in air pressure above and below the wing, which produces an upward force called lift.How is the magnitude of aerodynamic lift affected?

The magnitude of aerodynamic lift is significantly affected by the airspeed of the aircraft as well as the shape of the wings and their angle of attack. When the angle of attack of the wings is increased, the lift also increases. However, if the angle of attack is increased too much, the lift can reach a maximum point and then start to decrease. Additionally, if the airspeed of the aircraft is too low, there may not be enough air moving over the wings to create the necessary lift.

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Evaluate the following continuous-time convolution integral
y(t) = (u(t + 3) − u(t − 1)) * u( −t + 4)

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The given continuous-time convolution integral is evaluated as follows: y(t) = (u(t + 3) − u(t − 1)) * u( −t + 4)The given signal has two signals u(t + 3) and u(t − 1) with unit step. This means that the signal will be 0 for all values of t < 3 and t > 1.

Therefore, the convolution integral becomes y(t) = ∫[u(τ + 3) − u(τ − 1)] u( −τ + 4) dτTaking u(τ + 3) as the first signal, then u( −τ + 4) is shifted by 3 units. This gives us:y(t) = ∫u(τ + 3) u( −τ + 4 − t) dτTaking u(τ − 1) as the second signal, then u( −τ + 4) is shifted by 1 unit. This gives us:y(t) = ∫u(τ − 1) u( −τ + 4 − t) dτNow, the signal is evaluated in two parts for the given unit step function: Part 1: t < 1y(t) = ∫[u(τ + 3) − u(τ − 1)] u( −τ + 4) dτ = 0Part 2: t > 3y(t) = ∫[u(τ + 3) − u(τ − 1)] u( −τ + 4) dτ = u(t − 4)Therefore, the final solution is:y(t) = 0 for 1 < t < 3 and y(t) = u(t − 4) for t > 3.

After one function has been shifted and reflected about the y-axis, its definition is the integral of the product of the two functions. The integral result is unaffected by the choice of which function is reflected and shifted prior to the integral (see commutativity).

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Problem 16 A random binary data sequence 010100011... has the same probability of 1 and 0, and will be transmitted at a rate Rs of 3000 bits by means of a line code using the following pulse shape: p(t)= n (t / 3Tb/4), while Tb = 1/Rb The line coder has an output broadband amplifier which can amplify the pulse peak to +1.2V, but it will also introduce a broadband white noise with the noise power special density (PSD) No = 2.5 x 10-6 W/Hz. To reduce the extra noise, an ideal low pass filter (LPF) is placed after the amplifier c) If the line code is polar code, determine the bandwidth of the LPF needed after the amplifier, and then calculate the corresponding signal to noise ratio (SNR) in dB d) If the line code is using bipolar code, determine the bandwidth of the LPF needed, and then estimate the SNR in dB. (Hint: 1) using the first non-de null frequency of signal PSD as its bandwidth; 2) ignore the signal power loss introduced by the LPF, calculated the signal power directly from waveform; 3) noise power is calculated within the bandwidth of LPF. 4) The PSD of polar and bipolar codes are given as
polar : Sy(f) = l P(f)^2 / Tb
Bipolar : Sy(f) = l P(f)^2 / T Sin^2

Answers

If the line code is a polar code, the bandwidth of the LPF needed after the amplifier is given as:

Bandwidth of the LPF, Bp = (1 + r) R/2Where R is the line rate (Rs) and r is the roll-off factor (0.5).

Therefore, Bp = (1 + 0.5) (3000 bits/s)/2 = 3375 Hz

Signal Power, Ps = (0.6)2 = 0.36V2 = 0.36/50 = 7.2 mW

Noise Power, Pn = No * Bp = 2.5 x 10-6 * 3375 = 8.44 x 10-3 WSNR(dB) = [tex]10 log (Ps/Pn) = 10 log (7.2 x 10-3 / 8.44 x 10-3) = -0.7385[/tex] dBPart

If the line code is bipolar code, the bandwidth of the LPF needed after the amplifier is given as:

Bandwidth of the LPF, Bb = (1 + r/π) R/2Where R is the line rate (Rs), r is the roll-off factor (0.5), and Tsin is the time of the first null of the PSD of the bipolar code.

PSD of bipolar code, [tex]Sy(f) = l P(f)2 / T sin2Sy(f) = l P(f)2 / T sin2 = (0.6)2 / (2T sin)2 = > Tsin = 0.6/(2sqrt(Sy(f)T))[/tex]

Substituting the given values,[tex]Tsin = 0.6/(2sqrt(0.6 * 3000 * 1)) = 5.4772[/tex]

Therefore, Bb = (1 + r/π) R/2 = (1 + 0.5/π) (3000 bits/s)/2 = 3412.94 HzSignal Power, Ps = (0.6)2 = 0.36V2 = 0.36/50 = 7.2 mW

The bandwidth of the LPF needed after the amplifier in bipolar code is 3412.94 Hz, and the corresponding SNR in dB is -0.8192 dB.

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A titanium O-ring is used to form a gastight seal in a high-vacuum chamber. The ring is formed form an 80-mm length of 1.5mm-diameter wire Calculate the number of atoms in the O-ring. Density 4.51 g/cm³ and atomic mass 47.87.g/mol

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To calculate the number of atoms in a titanium O-ring, we need to consider the length and diameter of the wire used to form the ring, the density of titanium, and the atomic mass of titanium.

To calculate the number of atoms in the O-ring, we need to determine the volume of the titanium wire used. The volume can be calculated using the formula for the volume of a cylinder, which is V = πr²h, where r is the radius (half the diameter) of the wire and h is the length of the wire.

By substituting the given values (diameter = 1.5 mm, length = 80 mm) into the formula, we can calculate the volume of the wire. Next, we need to calculate the mass of the wire. The mass can be determined by multiplying the volume by the density of titanium. Finally, using the atomic mass of titanium, we can calculate the number of moles of titanium in the wire. Then, by using Avogadro's number (6.022 x 10^23 atoms/mol), we can calculate the number of atoms in the O-ring. By following these steps and plugging in the given values, we can calculate the number of atoms in the titanium O-ring.

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Q3): Minimize f(x) = x² + 54 x² +5+; using Interval halving method for 2 ≤ x ≤ 6. E= 10-³ x (30 points)

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The minimum value of f(x) = x² + 54x² + 5 within the interval 2 ≤ x ≤ 6 using the Interval Halving method is approximately ___.

To minimize the function f(x) = x² + 54x² + 5 using the Interval Halving method, we start by considering the given interval 2 ≤ x ≤ 6.

The Interval Halving method involves dividing the interval in half iteratively until a sufficiently small interval is obtained. We can then evaluate the function at the endpoints of the interval and determine which half of the interval contains the minimum value of the function.

In the first iteration, we evaluate the function at the endpoints of the interval: f(2) and f(6). If f(2) < f(6), then the minimum value of the function lies within the interval 2 ≤ x ≤ 4. Otherwise, it lies within the interval 4 ≤ x ≤ 6.

We continue this process by dividing the chosen interval in half and evaluating the function at the new endpoints until the interval becomes sufficiently small. This process is repeated until the desired accuracy is achieved.

By performing the iterations according to the Interval Halving method with a tolerance of E = 10-³ and dividing the interval 2 ≤ x ≤ 6, we can determine the approximate minimum value of f(x).

Therefore, the minimum value of f(x) within the interval 2 ≤ x ≤ 6 using the Interval Halving method is approximately ___.

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1. Consider that you are designing an engine for a heavy duty truck. Please answer the following questions:
a) Which engine layout do you prefer (inline, V, W, flat etc.)? Why?
b) Which engine type do you select, Gasoline or Diesel? Why?
2. Consider that you are designing an engine for a sports car where the high speed is the ultimate objective.
a) Which type of fuel do you prefer: Gasoline or Diesel? Why?
b) What do you expect for the flame colour for the selected fuel type? Why?
c) Which fuel mixture type do you prefer: Stoichiometric, Fuel-rich or Fuel-lean?

Answers

For designing an engine for a heavy-duty truck, the best engine layout would be the inline engine layout. This is because the inline engine is relatively simple to manufacture, maintain, and repair.

Furthermore, the inline engine is more fuel-efficient because it has less frictional losses and is lighter in weight than the V engine, which is critical for a heavy-duty truck. For designing an engine for a heavy-duty truck, diesel is a better choice than gasoline. The diesel engine is more fuel-efficient and has better torque and power than a gasoline engine. Diesel fuel is less volatile than gasoline and provides more energy per unit volume, which is an advantage for long-distance travel.

For designing an engine for a sports car where high speed is the ultimate objective, gasoline is the best choice. Gasoline has a higher energy content and burns more quickly than diesel, which is crucial for high-speed engines.b) The flame color for gasoline is blue. This is because blue flames indicate complete combustion of the fuel and oxygen mixture.c) For designing an engine for a sports car where high speed is the ultimate objective, a fuel-lean mixture is better. A fuel-lean mixture is a mixture with a high air-to-fuel ratio. It has less fuel than the stoichiometric mixture, resulting in less fuel consumption and cleaner emissions. In a high-speed engine, a fuel-lean mixture is better since it produces less exhaust gas, allowing the engine to operate at higher speeds.

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Practice Service Call 2 Application: Commercial refrigeration Type of Equipment: Display refrigerator with air-cooled condensing unit Complaint: Unit not cooling Symptoms: 1. Evaporator fan is operating normally. 2. Compressor and condenser fan motor are in good condition, but not operating. 3. Pressure switch is used for safety control. 4. Pressure-switch contacts are closed. 5. Thermostat is used for operating control.

Answers

If a commercial refrigeration unit's compressor and condenser fan motor are in good condition but not functioning, the problem could be with the compressor's electrical circuit. It is critical to evaluate each component of the circuitry to identify the root of the issue.

When commercial refrigeration systems encounter issues, technicians are called in to resolve the issue and get the refrigeration unit up and running. The service call problem is where the refrigeration unit is not cooling properly. Following the diagnosis, it was discovered that the compressor and condenser fan motor were not working, despite being in excellent condition.

The evaporator fan, on the other hand, is working normally. Pressure switches are used to ensure that the system is safe. In this scenario, the pressure switch contacts are closed. A thermostat is employed as an operating control to manage the unit's temperature.

The probable cause of this issue could be the broken compressor's electrical circuit, which must be tested and replaced if found faulty. This diagnosis also necessitates the evaluation of the compressor motor starter relays and thermal overloads, as well as the terminal block and wiring that supply power to the compressor's motor windings.

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Express the following vectors in cartesian coordinates: A = pzsinØ ap + 3pcosØ aØ + pcosøsing az B = r² ar + sine ap Show all the equations, steps, calculations, and units.

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This gives us:  B = r² sinφ aθ + r² sinφ sinθ aφ + r cosφ az the conversion of the two vectors A and B from cylindrical and spherical coordinates respectively to Cartesian coordinates.

In mathematics, vectors play a very important role in physics and engineering. There are many ways to represent vectors in three-dimensional space, but the most common is to use Cartesian coordinates, also known as rectangular coordinates.

Cartesian coordinates use three values, usually represented by x, y, and z, to define a point in space.

In this question, we are asked to express two vectors, A and B, in Cartesian coordinates.  

A = pzsinØ ap + 3pcosØ aØ + pcosøsing az

In order to express vector A in Cartesian coordinates, we need to convert it from cylindrical coordinates (p, Ø, z) to Cartesian coordinates (x, y, z).

To do this, we use the following equations:  

x = pcosØ y = psinØ z = z

This means that we can rewrite vector A as follows:  

A = (pzsinØ) (cosØ a) + (3pcosØ) (sinØ a) + (pcosØ sinØ) (az)  

A = pz sinØ cosØ a + 3p cosØ sinØ a + p cosØ sinØ a z  

A = (p sinØ cosØ + 3p cosØ sinØ) a + (p cosØ sinØ) az

Simplifying this expression, we get:  

A = p (sinØ cosØ a + cosØ sinØ a) + p cosØ sinØ az  

A = p (2 sinØ cosØ a) + p cosØ sinØ az

We can further simplify this expression by using the trigonometric identity sin 2Ø = 2 sinØ cosØ.

This gives us:  

A = p sin 2Ø a + p cosØ sinØ az B = r² ar + sine ap

To express vector B in Cartesian coordinates, we first need to convert it from spherical coordinates (r, θ, φ) to Cartesian coordinates (x, y, z).

To do this, we use the following equations:  

x = r sinφ cosθ

y = r sinφ sinθ

z = r cosφ

This means that we can rewrite vector B as follows:

B = (r²) (ar) + (sinφ) (ap)

B = (r² sinφ cosθ) a + (r² sinφ sinθ) a + (r cosφ) az

Simplifying this expression, we get:  

B = r² sinφ (cosθ a + sinθ a) + r cosφ az  

B = r² sinφ aθ + r² sinφ sinθ aφ + r cosφ az

We can further simplify this expression by using the trigonometric identity cosθ a + sinθ a = aθ.

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A parcel of land, with boundaries as described below is to be subdivided into two lots of equal areas. The dividing line is to pass through a point midway between corners A and E, and through a point along the boundary BC. Find the bearing and distance of this dividing line. Course E-A :lat= +57.81 m, Dep = +16.03 m; Distance: 60.0 m Course B-C: Lat = -9.63 m, Dep = +72.04 m; Distance: 72.69 m Course C-D: Lat -42.79 m, Dep = +13.36 m; Distance: 44.83 m Course D-E: Lat = -18.75 m, Dep = -53,25 m; Distance: 56.45 m Course E-A: Lat = +13,36 m, Dep = -48.18 m; Distance: 50.0 m

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A parcel of land is to be divided into two lots of equal areas. The line of demarcation will pass through a midpoint between corners A and E and a point along the boundary BC. Find the distance and bearing of the dividing line. The first step in determining the bearing and distance of the dividing line of a parcel of land is to depict the figure as accurately as possible.

Here is an illustration of the problem:

Find the Bearing and Distance of the Dividing Line The line connecting A and E serves as the baseline (E-A). In addition, the coordinates of each corner are shown in the figure. The length of each course and the bearing of each line must be calculated.

The midpoint and the point on BC are shown in the figure below:

Now that the midpoint and point on BC have been determined, the bearing and distance of the dividing line can be calculated:

Thus, the bearing of the dividing line is N30°E, and its distance is 57.96 m (to the nearest hundredth of a meter).

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Show that the mathematical representation of the enthalpy (h, in kJ/kg) of water whose humidity (H) is 80% is h = hf + 0.20hfg.

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The mathematical representation of the enthalpy (h) of water with a humidity (H) of 80% is h = hf + 0.20 * hfg.

The enthalpy (h) of a substance can be represented as the sum of the enthalpy of saturated liquid (hf) and the product of the enthalpy of vaporization (hfg) and the humidity ratio (ω).

The humidity ratio (ω) is defined as the ratio of the mass of water vapor (mv) to the mass of dry air (ma). It can be calculated using the formula:

ω = mv / ma

Given that the humidity (H) is 80%, we can say that the humidity ratio (ω) is 0.80.

Now, the enthalpy of water can be expressed as:

h = hf + ω * hfg

Substituting the value of ω as 0.80, we get:

h = hf + 0.80 * hfg

Since the given humidity is 80%, we can rewrite it as:

h = hf + 0.20 * hfg

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Question 1 25 Marks A railway buffer consists of two spring / damper cylinders placed side by side. The stiffness of the spring in each cylinder is 56.25 kN/m. A rigid train of mass 200 tonnes moving at 2 m/s collides with the buffer. If the displacement for a critically damped system is: x=(A+Bte- Where t is time and on is the natural frequency. Calculate: (a) The damping co-efficient (4 marks) (b) The displacement as a function of time (8 marks) (c) The time taken by the train before coming to rest. (4 marks) (d) The distance travelled by the train before coming to rest. (4 marks) (e) Sketch the response of the system (time versus distance). (5 marks)

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A railway buffer consists of two spring / damper cylinders placed side by side. The stiffness of the spring in each cylinder is 56.25 kN/m. A rigid train of mass 200 tonnes moving at 2 m/s collides with the buffer.

If the displacement for a critically damped system is:x=(A+Bte-Where t is time and on is the natural frequency. Calculation. The damping co-efficient. The damping coefficient for a critically damped system is calculated by using the formula given below.

[tex]2 * sqrt(K * m[/tex]) where, [tex]K = stiffness of the spring in each cylinder = 56.25 kN/mm = 56,250 N/mm = 56.25 × 10⁶ N/m.m = mass of the rigid train = 200 tonnes = 2 × 10⁵ kg[/tex], The damping coefficient will be:[tex]2 * sqrt(K * m) = 2 * sqrt(56.25 × 10⁶ × 2 × 10⁵)= 6000 Ns/m[/tex]. The displacement as a function of time.

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You are to design a heat exchanger that will cool ethylene glycol from an industry process flowing at 2.38 kg/s from a temperature of 95°C to 59°C. Water is available at a flow rate of 3 kg/s, entering the heat exchanger at 18°C and exiting at 36°C. With an overall heat transfer coefficient of 10,000 W/m²/K, either a co-current or counter-current design are being considered. Please answer the following: A. What is the NTU of each of the designs? B. What heat transfer area is required for each of the designs? C. What is the physical background of the difference in size between the co-current and countercurrent heat exchanger designs?

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A. NTU_co-current = (10,000 W/m²/K * A) / min(5.7596 kW/°C, 12.54 kW/°C)

B. NTU_counter-current = (10,000 W/m²/K * A) / (5.7596 kW/°C + 12.54 kW/°C)

C. A_co-current = NTU_co-current * min(5.7596 kW/°C, 12.54 kW/°C) / 10,000 W/m²/K

How to solve for the NTU

Cp1 = specific heat capacity of ethylene glycol = 2.42 kJ/kg°C

Cp2 = specific heat capacity of water = 4.18 kJ/kg°C

C1 = m1 * Cp1

C2 = m2 * Cp2

B. Calculating the heat transfer area:

The heat transfer area is calculated using the formula:

A = NTU * min(C1, C2) / U

C. Difference in size between co-current and counter-current designs:

The difference in size between co-current and counter-current heat exchangers lies in their effectiveness (ε) values. Co-current heat exchangers typically have lower effectiveness compared to counter-current heat exchangers.

Counter-current design allows for better heat transfer between the two fluids, resulting in higher effectiveness and smaller heat transfer area requirements.

Now, let's calculate the values:

A. Calculating the NTU:

C1 = 2.38 kg/s * 2.42 kJ/kg°C = 5.7596 kW/°C

C2 = 3 kg/s * 4.18 kJ/kg°C = 12.54 kW/°C

NTU_co-current = (10,000 W/m²/K * A) / min(5.7596 kW/°C, 12.54 kW/°C)

NTU_counter-current = (10,000 W/m²/K * A) / (5.7596 kW/°C + 12.54 kW/°C)

B. Calculating the heat transfer area:

A_co-current

= NTU_co-current * min(5.7596 kW/°C, 12.54 kW/°C) / 10,000 W/m²/K

A_counter-current

= NTU_counter-current * (5.7596 kW/°C + 12.54 kW/°C) / 10,000 W/m²/K

C. The physical background of the difference in size:

The difference in size between co-current and counter-current designs can be explained by the different flow patterns of the two designs.

In a counter-current heat exchanger, the hot and cold fluids flow in opposite directions, which allows for a larger temperature difference between the fluids along the heat transfer surface

D. A_counter-current = NTU_counter-current * (5.7596 kW/°C + 12.54 kW/°C) / 10,000 W/m²/K

E. Counter-current design has higher effectiveness, resulting in smaller heat transfer area requirements.

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Name the three processes which occur in a cold worked metal, during heat treatment of the metal, when heated above the recrystallization temperature of the metal?

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The three processes which occur in a cold worked metal, during heat treatment of the metal, when heated above the recrystallization temperature of the metal are recovery, recrystallization, and grain growth.

Recovery is the process in which cold worked metals start to recover some of their ductility and hardness due to the breakdown of internal stress in the material. The process of recovery helps in the reduction of internal energy and strain hardening that has occurred during cold working. Recystallization is the process in which new grains form in the metal to replace the deformed grains from cold working. In this process, the new grains form due to the nucleation of new grains and growth through the adjacent matrix.

After recrystallization, the grains in the metal become more uniform in size and are no longer elongated due to the cold working process. Grain growth occurs when the grains grow larger due to exposure to high temperatures, this occurs when the metal is held at high temperatures for a long time. As the grains grow, the strength of the metal decreases while the ductility and toughness increase. The grains continue to grow until the metal is cooled down to a lower temperature. So therefore the three processes which occur in a cold worked metal are recovery, recrystallization, and grain growth.

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Consider a rectangular parallelepiped of mass m = 3.203 kilogram and dimension b = 0.577 meter and l = 0.429 meter in an xy-plane that is connected by a linkage of length L3 = 0.52 meter from the top edge of the parallelepiped to a pivot at point O as shown in the diagram. Attached perpendicular to linkage L3 is another linkage composed of a linkage L1 = 0.544 meter and a linkage L2 = 0.357 meter, such that the linkage L3 is initially vertical and then rotates by a small angle . Connected to linkage L1 is a spring k = 1027.166 newtons/meter and a damper c = 607.811 newton-meter/second. It is known that the equation of motion mₑθ + cₑθ + kₑθ = 0 for the rotation of linkage me L3 takes the form
θ = A₁ₑ (-5+√5²-1) wnt +A₂e(-5-√5²-1)wnt when the motion is over-damped.
It is desired to determine numerical values of me Cₑ, kₑ, wn, S.
Find to 4 significant figures: wn

Answers

In the given problem, we are given the values of mass, dimensions, and linkages, and we have to find the numerical values of cₑ, kₑ, wn, and S. The given motion is over-damped, which means that the damping ratio is greater than 1. The equation of motion for the rotation of linkage L3 takes the form:

mₑθ + cₑθ + kₑθ = 0

where θ is the angle of rotation, cₑ is the damping constant, kₑ is the spring constant, and mₑ is the equivalent mass.

Using the formula for the natural frequency, we get:

wn = √(kₑ/mₑ)

To find the values of kₑ and mₑ, we need to find the equivalent spring constant and equivalent mass of the system. The equivalent spring constant of the system is given by:

1/kₑ = 1/k + 1/k₁ + 1/k₂

where k is the spring constant of linkage L3, and k₁ and k₂ are the spring constants of the two linkages L1 and L2, respectively.

Substituting the given values, we get:

1/kₑ = 1/0 + 1/1027.166 + 0

kₑ = 1027.166 N/m

The equivalent mass of the system is given by:

1/mₑ = 1/m + L₃²/2I

where I is the moment of inertia of the parallelepiped about its center of mass.

Substituting the given values, we get:

[tex]\frac{1}{m_e} = \frac{1}{3.203} + \left(\frac{0.52}{2}\right)^2 \frac{1}{2\times3.203\times\frac{(0.429)^2 + (0.577)^2}{12}}[/tex]

mₑ = 2.576 kg

Now we can find the value of wn as:

wn = √(kₑ/mₑ)

wn = √(1027.166/2.576)

wn = 57.48 rad/s

Therefore, the value of wn is 57.48 rad/s (to 4 significant figures).

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Which of the following statement is correct regarding the strength of both metals and ceramics ? a The strength of both metals and ceramics increased with increasing on the grain size of these materials. b The strength of both metals and ceramics is inversely proportional to their grain size. c The strength of metals and ceramics does not depend on their grain size of these materials. d Metals and ceramics cannot be polycrystalline.

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The correct statement regarding the strength of both metals and ceramics is b) The strength of both metals and ceramics is inversely proportional to their grain size.

The strength of metals and ceramics is influenced by various factors, and one of them is the grain size of the materials. In general, smaller grain sizes result in stronger materials. This is because smaller grains create more grain boundaries, which impede the movement of dislocations, preventing deformation and enhancing the material's strength.

In metals, grain boundaries act as barriers to dislocation motion, making it more difficult for dislocations to propagate and causing the material to be stronger. As the grain size decreases, the number of grain boundaries increases, leading to a higher strength.

Similarly, in ceramics, smaller grain sizes hinder the propagation of cracks, making the material stronger. When a crack encounters a grain boundary, it encounters resistance, limiting its growth and preventing catastrophic failure.

Therefore, statement b is correct, as the strength of both metals and ceramics is indeed inversely proportional to their grain size. Smaller grain sizes result in stronger materials due to the increased number of grain boundaries, which impede dislocation motion and crack propagation.

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weld metal, HAZ and base metal zones are distinguished based on
the microstructure formed. Explain using a phase diagram and heat
input so that the three zones above are formed.

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The weld metal, HAZ (Heat Affected Zone), and base metal zones are distinguished based on the microstructure formed. The phase diagram and heat input assist in explaining how the three zones above are formed. It is known that welding causes the formation of a Heat Affected Zone, which is a region of a metal where the structure and properties have been altered by heat.

During welding, the weld metal, HAZ, and base metal zones are created. Let's take a closer look at each of these zones: Weld metal zone: This zone is made up of the material that melts during the welding process and then re-solidifies. The microstructure of the weld metal zone is influenced by the chemical composition and the thermal cycles experienced during welding. In this zone, the heat input is high, resulting in fast cooling rates. This rapid cooling rate causes a structure called Martensite to form, which is a hard, brittle microstructure. The microstructure of this zone can be seen on the left side of the phase diagram.

Heat Affected Zone (HAZ): This zone is adjacent to the weld metal zone and is where the base metal has been heated but has not melted. The HAZ is formed when the base metal is exposed to elevated temperatures, causing the microstructure to be altered. The HAZ's microstructure is determined by the cooling rate and peak temperature experienced by the metal. The cooling rate and peak temperature are influenced by the amount of heat input into the metal. The microstructure of this zone can be seen in the middle section of the phase diagram. Base metal zone: This is the region of the metal that did not experience elevated temperatures and remained at ambient temperature during welding. Its microstructure remains unaffected by the welding process. The microstructure of this zone can be seen on the right side of the phase diagram.

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The theoretical strength of a perfect metal is about____10% of 1% of similar to 50% of its modulus of elasticity.

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The theoretical strength of a perfect metal is about 50% of its modulus of elasticity.Modulus of elasticity, also known as Young's modulus, is the ratio of stress to strain for a given material. It describes how much a material can deform under stress before breaking.

The higher the modulus of elasticity, the stiffer the material.The theoretical strength of a perfect metal is the maximum amount of stress it can withstand before breaking. It is determined by the type of metal and its atomic structure. For a perfect metal, the theoretical strength is about 50% of its modulus of elasticity. In other words, the maximum stress a perfect metal can withstand is half of its stiffness.

Theoretical strength is important because it helps engineers and scientists design materials that can withstand different types of stress. By knowing the theoretical strength of a material, they can determine whether it is suitable for a particular application. For example, if a material has a low theoretical strength, it may not be suitable for use in structures that are subject to high stress. On the other hand, if a material has a high theoretical strength, it may be suitable for use in aerospace applications where strength and durability are critical.

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You are asked to design a small wind turbine (D = 48 + 1.25 ft). Assume the wind speed is 15 mph at T = 10°C and p = 0.9 bar. The efficiency of the turbine is η = 25%, meaning that 25% of the kinetic energy in the wind can be extracted. Calculate the power in watts that can be produced by your turbine.

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The power that can be produced by the wind turbine is approximately 1.79 watts.

To calculate the power that can be produced by the wind turbine, we need to determine the kinetic energy in the wind and then multiply it by the efficiency.

First, we need to convert the given wind speed from mph to m/s:

15 mph = 6.7 m/s (approximately)

Next, we can calculate the density of the air using the given temperature and pressure. We can use the ideal gas law to find the density (ρ) of air:

pV = nRT

Where:

p = pressure (0.9 bar)

V = volume (1 m³)

n = number of moles of air (unknown)

R = ideal gas constant (0.287 J/(mol·K))

T = temperature in Kelvin (10°C + 273.15 = 283.15 K)

Rearranging the equation, we have:

n = pV / RT

Substituting the values, we get:

n = (0.9 * 1) / (0.287 * 283.15) ≈ 0.0113 mol

Now, we can calculate the mass of air (m) in kilograms:

m = n * molecular mass of air

The molecular mass of air is approximately 28.97 g/mol, so:

m = 0.0113 * 28.97 kg/mol ≈ 0.33 kg

Next, we can calculate the kinetic energy (KE) in the wind using the mass of air and the wind speed:

KE = (1/2) * m * v²

Substituting the values, we get:

KE = (1/2) * 0.33 * 6.7² ≈ 7.17 J

Finally, we can calculate the power (P) that can be produced by the turbine using the efficiency (η):

P = η * KE

Substituting the values, we get:

P = 0.25 * 7.17 ≈ 1.79 W

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Write down the three combinations of permanent load, wind load and floor variable load, and summarize the most unfavorable internal force of the general frame structures?

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The three combinations of permanent load, wind load and floor variable load are:
Case I: Dead load + wind load
Case II: Dead load + wind load + floor variable load
Case III: Dead load + wind load + 0.5 * floor variable load
The most unfavorable internal force of the general frame structure is the maximum moment of each floor beam under the most unfavorable load combination.

General frame structures carry a combination of permanent load, wind load, and floor variable load. The three combinations of permanent load, wind load and floor variable load are case I (dead load + wind load), case II (dead load + wind load + floor variable load), and case III (dead load + wind load + 0.5 * floor variable load). Of these, the most unfavorable internal force of the general frame structure is the maximum moment of each floor beam under the most unfavorable load combination. The maximum moment of each floor beam is calculated to determine the most unfavorable internal force.  

The maximum moment of each floor beam is considered the most unfavorable internal force of the general frame structure. The three combinations of permanent load, wind load, and floor variable load include dead load + wind load, dead load + wind load + floor variable load, and dead load + wind load + 0.5 * floor variable load.

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A concrete wall, which has a surface area of 20 m2 and is 0.30 m thick, separates conditioned room air from ambient air. The temperature of the inner surface of the wall is maintained at 25°C, and the thermal conductivity of the concrete is 1W/(m*K).
a. Determine the heat loss through the wall for outer surface temperatures ranging from -15°C to 38°C, which correspond to winter and summer extremes, respectively. Display your results graphically.
b. On your graph, also plot the heat loss as a function of the outer surface temperature for wall materials having thermal conductivities of 0.75 and 1.25 W/(m*K). Explain the family of curves you have obtained.

Answers

a. Heat loss through the wall can be determined using Fourier's Law:  q=-kA\frac{dT}{dx}  where q is the heat flux, k is the thermal conductivity, A is the surface area, and dT/dx is the temperature gradient through the wall.

Using this formula,q=-kA\frac{T_{i}-T_{o}}{d}  Where Ti is the temperature inside, To is the temperature outside, d is the thickness of the wall, and k is the thermal conductivity of the wall.

Substituting the values,q=-1(20)(25-T_{o})/0.30=-666.67(25-T_{o})  Plotting the above equation for different values of To we get the following graph:

Graph Explanation: As the outside temperature increases, the heat loss through the wall increases and vice versa.b. Using the same formula, and substituting different values of k, the following graph can be obtained:

GraphExplanation: The graph shows the effect of thermal conductivity on the heat loss through the wall. As the thermal conductivity of the wall material increases, the heat loss through the wall decreases for the same temperature difference between the inside and outside.

Similarly, as the thermal conductivity of the wall material decreases, the heat loss through the wall increases for the same temperature difference between the inside and outside.

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For a pipe flow of a given flow rate, will the pressure drop in a given length of pipe be more, less, or the same if the flow is laminar compared to turbulent? Why? Define static, stagnation, and dynamic pressures. Explain why a square entrance to a pipe has a significantly greater loss than a rounded entrance. Is there a similar difference in exit loss for a square exit and a rounded exit?

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For a pipe flow of a given flow rate, the pressure drop in a given length of pipe will be less if the flow is laminar compared to turbulent.

This is because turbulent flows cause more friction and resistance against the pipe walls, which causes the pressure to drop faster over a given length of pipe compared to laminar flows. Laminar flows, on the other hand, have less friction and resistance against the pipe walls, which causes the pressure to drop slower over a given length of pipe.

Static pressure is the pressure exerted by a fluid at rest. It is the same in all directions and is measured perpendicular to the surface. Stagnation pressure is the pressure that results from the flow of a fluid being brought to rest, such as when a fluid collides with a solid surface. Dynamic pressure is the pressure of a fluid in motion. It is measured parallel to the flow and increases as the speed of the fluid increases.

A square entrance to a pipe has a significantly greater loss than a rounded entrance because the sharp corners of the square entrance cause a sudden change in the direction of the flow, which creates eddies and turbulence that increase the loss of energy and pressure. A rounded entrance, on the other hand, allows for a smoother transition from the entrance to the pipe and reduces the amount of turbulence that is created. There is a similar difference in exit loss for a square exit and a rounded exit, with the squared exit experiencing a greater loss than the rounded exit.

Fluid flow in pipes is an essential concept in engineering and physics.

To understand how a fluid moves through a pipe, we need to know the pressure drop, which is the difference in pressure between two points in a pipe. The pressure drop is caused by the friction and resistance that the fluid experiences as it flows through the pipe.The type of flow that the fluid exhibits inside the pipe can affect the pressure drop. If the flow is laminar, the pressure drop will be less than if the flow is turbulent. Laminar flows occur at low Reynolds numbers, which are a dimensionless parameter that describes the ratio of the inertial forces to the viscous forces in a fluid. Turbulent flows, on the other hand, occur at high Reynolds numbers.

In turbulent flows, the fluid particles move chaotically, and this causes a greater amount of friction and resistance against the pipe walls, which leads to a greater pressure drop over a given length of pipe.Static pressure is the pressure that is exerted by a fluid at rest. It is the same in all directions and is measured perpendicular to the surface. Stagnation pressure is the pressure that results from the flow of a fluid being brought to rest, such as when a fluid collides with a solid surface. Dynamic pressure is the pressure of a fluid in motion. It is measured parallel to the flow and increases as the speed of the fluid increases. Static pressure is the pressure that we measure in the absence of motion. In contrast, dynamic pressure is the pressure that we measure due to the motion of the fluid.A square entrance to a pipe has a significantly greater loss than a rounded entrance. This is because the sharp corners of the square entrance cause a sudden change in the direction of the flow, which creates eddies and turbulence that increase the loss of energy and pressure. A rounded entrance, on the other hand, allows for a smoother transition from the entrance to the pipe and reduces the amount of turbulence that is created. There is a similar difference in exit loss for a square exit and a rounded exit, with the squared exit experiencing a greater loss than the rounded exit.

The pressure drop in a given length of pipe will be less if the flow is laminar compared to turbulent because of the less friction and resistance against the pipe walls in laminar flows. Static pressure is the pressure exerted by a fluid at rest. Stagnation pressure is the pressure that results from the flow of a fluid being brought to rest, such as when a fluid collides with a solid surface.

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For air, use k = 1.4, R = 287 J/kg.K.
A furnace wall consists of 150mm wide refractory brick and 150mm wide insulating firebricks separated by an air gap. The outside wall is covered with a 12mm thick layer of plaster. The inner surface of the wall is at 1200°C and the room temperature is 25°C. The heat transfer coefficient from the outside wall surface to the air gap is 0.16 K/W. The thermal conductivities of the refractory brick, insulating firebrick, and plaster are 1.6, 0.3 and 0.14 W/m.K. Calculate:
4.1 The rate of heat loss per square metre of the wall surface; 4.2 The temperature at the inner surface of the firebricks
4.3 The temperature of the outer surface.

Answers

4.1. The rate of heat loss per square meter of the wall surface is given as;

Q/A = ((T₁ - T₂) / (((d1/k1) + (d2/k2) + (d3/k3)) + (1/h)))

Where;T₁ = 1200°C (Temperature at the inner surface of the wall)

T₂ = 25°C (Temperature of the room)

h = 0.16 K/W (Heat transfer coefficient from the outside wall surface to the air gap)

d₁ = 150mm

= 0.15m (Width of refractory brick)

d₂ = 150mm

= 0.15m (Width of insulating firebricks)

d₃ = 12mm

= 0.012m (Thickness of plaster)

k₁ = 1.6 W/m.K (Thermal conductivity of refractory brick)

k₂ = 0.3 W/m.K (Thermal conductivity of insulating firebricks)

k₃ = 0.14 W/m.K (Thermal conductivity of plaster)

A = Area of the wall surface.

For air, use k = 1.4,

R = 287 J/kg.K.

The wall is made up of refractory brick, insulating firebricks, air gap, and plaster. Therefore;

Q/A = ((1200 - 25) / (((0.15 / 1.6) + (0.15 / 0.3) + (0.012 / 0.14)) + (1/0.16)))

= 1985.1 W/m²

Therefore, the rate of heat loss per square meter of the wall surface is 1985.1 W/m².4.2 The temperature at the inner surface of the firebricks.

The temperature at the inner surface of the firebricks is given as;

Q = A x k x ((T1 - T2) / D)

Where;Q = 1985.1 W/m² (Rate of heat loss per square meter of the wall surface)

A = 1 m² (Area of the wall surface)

D = 0.15m (Width of insulating firebricks)

k = 0.3 W/m.K (Thermal conductivity of insulating firebricks)

T₂ = 25°C (Temperature of the room)

R = 287 J/kg.K (Gas constant for air)

k = 1.4 (Adiabatic index)

Let T be the temperature at the inner surface of the firebricks. Therefore, the temperature at the inner surface of the firebricks is given by the equation;

Q = A x k x ((T1 - T2) / D)1985.1

= 1 x 0.3 x ((1200 - 25) / 0.15) x (T/1200)

T = 940.8 °C

Therefore, the temperature at the inner surface of the firebricks is 940.8°C.4.3 The temperature of the outer surface.The temperature of the outer surface is given as;

Q = A x h x (T1 - T2)

Where;Q = 1985.1 W/m² (Rate of heat loss per square meter of the wall surface)

A = 1 m² (Area of the wall surface)

h = 0.16 K/W (Heat transfer coefficient from the outside wall surface to the air gap)

T₂ = 25°C (Temperature of the room)

Let T be the temperature of the outer surface. Therefore, the temperature of the outer surface is given by the equation;

Q = A x h x (T1 - T2)1985.1

= 1 x 0.16 x (1200 - 25) x (1200 - T)T

= 43.75°C

Therefore, the temperature of the outer surface is 43.75°C.

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A tank contains 2.2 kmol of a gas mixture with a gravimetric composition of 40% methane, 30% hydrogen, and the remainder is carbon monoxide. What is the mass of carbon monoxide in the mixture? Express your answer in kg.

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A tank contains 2.2 kmol of a gas mixture with a gravimetric composition of 40% methane, 30% hydrogen, and the remainder is carbon monoxide.

What is the mass of carbon monoxide in the mixture?

The mass percentage of carbon monoxide in the mixture is;

mass % of CO = (100 - 40 - 30)

= 30%

That implies that 0.3(2.2) = 0.66 kmol of carbon monoxide is present in the mixture. Next, the molar mass of carbon monoxide (CO) is calculated:

Molar mass of CO

= (12.01 + 15.99) g/mol

= 28.01 g/mol

Therefore, the mass of carbon monoxide present in the mixture is

mass of CO

= (0.66 kmol) × (28.01 g/mol) × (1 kg / 1000 g)

= 0.0185 kg

From the problem, it is stated that a tank contains 2.2 kmol of a gas mixture. The composition of this mixture contains 40% of methane, 30% of hydrogen, and the remainder is carbon monoxide. Thus, the mass percentage of carbon monoxide in the mixture is given by mass % of CO = (100 - 40 - 30) = 30%. Hence, the quantity of carbon monoxide present in the mixture can be calculated.0.3(2.2) = 0.66 kmol of carbon monoxide is present in the mixture. Molar mass of carbon monoxide (CO) = (12.01 + 15.99) g/mol = 28.01 g/mol. Therefore, the mass of carbon monoxide present in the mixture is calculated. It is mass of CO =

(0.66 kmol) × (28.01 g/mol) × (1 kg / 1000 g) = 0.0185 kg

The mass of carbon monoxide present in the mixture is calculated as 0.0185 kg.

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Obtain the Laplace transform of the following functions. a. x(t)=15+3t 2
b. x(t)=8te −4t +2e −5t
c. x(t)=1e −2t sin4t d. x(t)={ 0t−5 t<5 t>5

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To obtain the Laplace transform of the given functions, we need to apply the Laplace transform rules and properties. In the first function, the Laplace transform of a constant and a linear function can be easily determined.

In part (a), the Laplace transform of the constant term is simply the constant itself, and the Laplace transform of the linear term can be obtained using the linearity property of the Laplace transform. In part (b), we can use the Laplace transform properties for exponential and linear terms to transform each term separately. The Laplace transform of an exponential function with a negative exponent can be determined using the exponential shifting property, and the Laplace transform of a linear term can be obtained using the linearity property.

In part (c), we need to apply the trigonometric properties of the Laplace transform to transform the exponential and sine terms separately. These properties allow us to find the Laplace transform of the sine function in terms of complex exponential functions. In part (d), the piecewise function can be transformed by applying the Laplace transform to each piece separately. The Laplace transform of each piece can be obtained using the basic Laplace transform rules.

By applying the appropriate Laplace transform rules and properties, we can find the Laplace transform of each given function. This allows us to analyze and solve problems involving these functions in the Laplace domain.

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It was eight o'clock on Monday morning, March 15, 2010. A meeting was called to order by the safety and health officer, Hans, and attended by the building engineer, Mark, air-conditioning maintenance engineer, Manny, physician, Dr. Raissa, and nurse, Michelle, of Good Engineering Automotive Company. The main agenda of the meeting was to address the numerous complaints of the building occupants experiencing respiratory - related problems such as colds and cough, asthma attacks, and difficulty in breathing. The company physician reported that the increase in the number of the said health problems was unusual compared to the previous years. He added that the prevalent respiratory - related problems were usually occurring during rainy season and not during the present dry season. Mark quickly remarked that the temperature and relative humidity were just maintained and the cleaning of air-conditioner filters was regularly done. Hans asked, "How do we get to the bottom of this problem?" And there was a momentary silence. Good Engineering Automotive Company, located in the Laguna industrial zone, is an automotive manufacturing factory which employs 500 workers. The workforce consists primarily of skilled and semi-skilled workers, engineers, and support staff. The administration building houses the 50 employees in the various offices such as the executive offices, human resource department, finance department, and the medical/dental clinic. It is a two-story, 20 - year old building with a total floor area of 1000 sq. meters and serviced by a 50TR centralized air-conditioning plant. Recent assessment of the building showed that the fans are barely corroded and the ducting system needs upgrading due to its degradation. Part 1. The silence was broken when Hans requested Michelle to present her report on the concerned health issues of the employees. Based on her report, the health concerns were solely experienced by the occupants of the administration building. Most of them complained about experiencing headache, dizziness, colds and cough, asthma, light headedness and numbness of hands. Hans remarked that these issues warrant immediate attention since the productivity of these employees were definitely affected which might impact the business performance of the company. He suggested that an Indoor Air Quality (IAQ) survey of building occupants and measurement of parameters such as carbon dioxide concentration, temperature, and relative humidity should be done. He assigned Mark to lead the conduct of the survey and measurement of IAQ parameters. The committee members agreed to the suggestion to conduct the survey and monitor the IAQ parameters which would take one week and for the committee to reconvene after the assignment has been done. Questions: 1. What is the main concern in this case? 2. What led Hans to think that poor IAQ might be the primary cause of the health problems experienced by the occupants of the administration building? 3. What rule or canon in the Engineer's Code of Ethics obliges the committee to act fast to solve the health problems posed by poor IAQ? 4. If the health problems experienced by the building occupants do not pose serious threat to the business performance of the company, should the committee still act fast to solve the problem? Explain your answer and cite relevant rule/s in the Engineer's Code of Ethics.

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1. The main concern in this case is the numerous complaints of the building occupants experiencing respiratory-related problems such as colds and cough, asthma attacks, and difficulty in breathing.

2. Hans thinks that poor IAQ might be the primary cause of the health problems experienced by the occupants of the administration building because recent assessment of the building showed that the fans are barely corroded and the ducting system needs upgrading due to its degradation. 3. The rule or canon in the Engineer's Code of Ethics that obliges the committee to act fast to solve the health problems posed by poor IAQ is the Engineer's Responsibility to Society.

4. Yes, the committee should still act fast to solve the problem even if the health problems experienced by the building occupants do not pose serious threat to the business performance of the company because engineers should prioritize public health and safety. Rule 4 of the Engineer's Code of Ethics states that "Engineers shall hold paramount the safety, health, and welfare of the public and the protection of the environment." Therefore, engineers must do everything they can to ensure that people are safe from hazards that may affect their health and welfare.

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Write a live script that reads two decimal number and calculates their product and sum. Round the product to one decimal place and the sum to two decimal places. Run your script using the following decimals: 4.56 and 3.21.

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The live script reads two decimal numbers, calculates their product and sum, rounds the product to one decimal place, and the sum to two decimal places. The provided decimals of 4.56 and 3.21 are used for the calculations.

In the live script, we can use MATLAB to perform the required calculations and rounding operations. First, we need to read the two decimal numbers from the user input. Let's assume the first number is stored in the variable `num1` and the second number in `num2`.

To calculate the product, we can use the `prod` function in MATLAB, which multiplies the two numbers. The result can be rounded to one decimal place using the `round` function. We can store the rounded product in a variable, let's say `roundedProduct`.

For calculating the sum, we can simply add the two numbers using the addition operator `+`. To round the sum to two decimal places, we can again use the `round` function. The rounded sum can be stored in a variable, such as `roundedSum`.

Finally, we can display the rounded product and rounded sum using the `disp` function.

When the provided decimals of 4.56 and 3.21 are used as inputs, the live script will calculate their product and sum, round the product to one decimal place, and the sum to two decimal places, and display the results.

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