What is the function of the uterus during embryo development?

Answer:

a = 1.07 m/s^2

Explanation:

The computation of the acceleration is shown below:

As we know that

[tex]v_f^{2} - v_i^{2} = 2 ad[/tex]

where,

v_i = 0 m/s  = initial speed

v f = 8 m/s  = final speed

d = 30m = distance

Now placing these values to the above equation

[tex]8^{2} - 0 = 2 \times a \times 30[/tex]

64 = 60a

a = 1.07 m/s^2

We simply applied the above formula so that we could able to determine the acceleration

Answer:

Please INCLUDE a picture.

Explanation:

You did not include a picture, so there is no way to tell how the charges will interact with each other.

Please INCLUDE a picture.

The net force acting on q1 is 3.2 N to the right.

The force on q₁ due to q₂ is:

F1 = k * q₁ * q₂ / r²

where:

k is Coulomb's constant, which is 8.98755 × 10⁹ N m² C⁻²

q₁ is the charge of q₁, which is +2.0 × 10⁻⁵ C

q₂ is the charge of q₂, which is -4.0 × 10⁻⁵ C

r is the distance between q₁ and q₂, which is 0.1 m

Plugging in the values, we get:

F₁ = 8.98755 × 10⁹ N m² C⁻² * 2.0 × 10⁻⁵ C * -4.0 × 10⁻⁵ C / (0.1 m)²

= 6.4 N

The force on q₁ due to q₃ is:

F₂ = k * q₁ * q₃ / r²

where:

k is Coulomb's constant, which is 8.98755 × 10⁹ N m² C²

q₁ is the charge of q₁, which is +2.0 × 10⁻⁵ C

q₃ is the charge of q₃, which is -4.0 × 10⁻⁵ C

r is the distance between q₁ and q₃, which is 0.2 m

Plugging in the values, we get:

F₂ = 8.98755 × 10⁹ N m² C⁻² * 2.0 × 10⁻⁵ C * -4.0 × 10⁻⁵ C / (0.2 m)²

= 16 N

The net force on q₁ is the sum of F₁ and F₂:

Fnet = F₁ + F₂

= 6.4 N + 16 N

= 22 N

The net force on q1 is to the right because both F₁ and F₂ are to the right.

Net electric field

The net electric field acting on q1 is 3.2 N/C to the right.

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Answer:

B

Explanation:

Answer:

85.0 please I don't understand

Answer:

LED;

      The energy of photons emitted by an LED is dictated by the band gap of the semiconductor used – the energy required to make an electron–hole pair. When an electron and hole recombine in a radiative process, a photon carries away the extra energy.

BULB

        In the light bulb, the flow of charge through the filament heats it up and causes it to glow. In this way, the light bulb converts electrical energy to heat energy and light energy. ... 1, chemical potential energy is converted to electrical energy, which is immediately converted to light energy and heat energy

       This flow of charge converts chemical potential energy into electrical energy. In the light bulb, the flow of charge through the filament heats it up and causes it to glow. In this way, the light bulb converts electrical energy to heat energy and light energy. bulb have a fillament but LED have no filament they produce energy through clod process but bulb have a filament and they produce energy through hot process

Explanation:

This progression of charge changes over substance expected vitality into electrical vitality. In the light, the progression of charge through the fiber warms it up and makes it shine. Along these lines, the light believers electrical vitality to warm vitality and light vitality.

hope soo u can understand my point

Answer:

Zero

Explanation:

The magnetic field due to the first wire on the second wire with current i₁ in the first wire at a distance d from the second wire is B₁ = μ₀i₁/2πd.

The magnetic force due to this field on the second wire of length segment, L and current i₂ is F₁ = Bi₂L = (μ₀i₁/2πd)i₂L = μ₀i₁i₂L/2πd = F

The magnetic field due to the second wire on the first wire with current i₂ in the first wire at a distance d from the second wire is B₂ = μ₀i₂/2πd.

The magnetic force due to this field on the first wire of length segment, L and current i₁ is F₂ = Bi₁L = (μ₀i₂/2πd)i₁L = μ₀i₁i₂L/2πd = F

Since their magnetic fields are in opposite directions, according to the right hand rule, their forces would also be in opposite directions.

So F₁ = F and F₂ = -F

So their vector sum F₁ + F₂ = F +(-F) = F - F = 0

Answer:

total number of modes is 8

Explanation:

attached here is the calculations

Answer:

Transverse wave  and Longitudinal wave  and Electromagnetic wave

Explanation:

Answer:

Transverse wave  and Longitudinal wave  and Electromagnetic wave

Explanation:

The wavelength of the wave will be 4 meters. when 5 complete waves occupy a length of 20m.

Wavelength is defined as the space between waves' crests, particularly between electromagnetic or sound wave points. A recurring event's frequency is measured by how many times it occurs in a unit of time. To underline the difference from spatial frequency, it is also occasionally referred to as temporal frequency.

There is an inverse relationship between the frequency and the wavelength of the waves as the wavelength increases the frequency decreases and if the wavelength decreases the frequency increases.

Given that a wave has 5 complete waves occupying a length of 20m. The wavelength of the wave will be calculated as below:-

λ = Distance / frequency

λ = 20 / 5

λ = 4 meters

Therefore, the wavelength of the wave will be 4 meters. when 5 complete waves occupy a length of 20m.

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Answer:

c i took the test

Explanation:

The total amount of energy in this scenario is transformed into other forms of energy because of the burning process of the wood.

The energy present in the wood change into other forms of energy such as heat and radiant energy. We know that during a reaction, matter is transformed into another form with the release of different types of energy.

So we can conclude that he total amount of energy in this scenario is transformed into other forms of energy because of the burning process of the wood.

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Answer:

people in urban areas strip the soil of nutrition and makes it difficult to grow crops. people of urban areas consume more energy,food,and water. people in urban areas remove minerals and metals from the ground so, urbanization is a contribution to pollution .

Explanation:

it may help you and give me brainliest

Answer:

pollution and loss of trees not to mention how much electricity we use which doesnt benefit the world.

Explanation: because when we urbanize things we get rid of natural resources around us

Complete Question

The complete question is shown on the first uploaded image

Answer:

The force is  [tex]\= F = (-0.001089, 0 ,0)[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

      The magnetic dipole moment of first magnet  is  [tex]z_1 = (6,0,0) A \cdot m^2[/tex]

       The magnetic dipole moment of second magnet  is  [tex]z_2 = (7,0,0) A \cdot m^2[/tex]

       The location of the second magnetic dipole moment is  [tex]x = 0.39 \ m[/tex]

Generally the vector force on the second magnet due to the first is mathematically evaluated as

         [tex]\= F =- \frac{\mu_o }{4 \pi} * \frac{6 * z_1 * z_2}{x^4}[/tex]

Where  [tex]\mu _o[/tex] is the permeability of free space with value  [tex]4\pi * 10^{-7} N/A^2[/tex]

substituting values

            [tex]\= F = - \frac{ 4\pi * 10^{-7} }{4 \pi} * \frac{6 * 6 * 7}{0.39^4}[/tex]

           [tex]\= F = (-0.001089, 0 ,0)[/tex]

Note the negative sign show that the force is an attraction force

Answer:

The overall charge on the wall is zero.

Explanation:

Because the atoms making the wall are neutral i.e. number of positive charges are equal to number of negative charges.

Answer:

Water is non-polar molecule False

Water is polar molecule because the electronegativity of Oxygen is much greater than electronegativity of hydrogen and it has also a bend shape that is why it is polar molecule.

Explanation:

I hope this will help you :)

False. Water is a polar molecule.

Water (H2O) consists of two hydrogen atoms and one oxygen atom. The oxygen atom has a higher electronegativity, meaning it attracts electrons more strongly than hydrogen.

As a result, the shared electrons in the covalent bonds between hydrogen and oxygen are pulled closer to the oxygen atom, creating an uneven distribution of charge.

This leads to a partial negative charge (δ-) on the oxygen atom and partial positive charges (δ+) on the hydrogen atoms, making water a polar molecule.

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Answer:

V = 2.5 J/C

Explanation:

Given:

Energy = E = 20 J

Charge = Q = 8 C

Required:

Potential Difference = V = ?

Formula:

V = [tex]\frac{E}{Q}[/tex]

Solution:

V = 20/8

V = 2.5 J/C

Answer:

Given :

To Find :

Using Formula :

We know that the electric potential difference is also known as voltage (v).

[tex]{\star{\small{\underline{\boxed{\sf{\red{ V =\dfrac{E}{Q}}}}}}}}[/tex]

Solution :

Substituting the given values in the formula to find potential difference :

[tex]{\dashrightarrow{\small{\pmb{\sf{ V =\dfrac{E}{Q}}}}}}[/tex]

[tex]{\dashrightarrow{\small{\sf{ V =\dfrac{20}{8}}}}}[/tex]

[tex]{\dashrightarrow{\small{\sf{ V = \cancel{\dfrac{20}{8}}}}}}[/tex]

[tex]{\dashrightarrow{\small{\sf{ V = {\dfrac{10}{4}}}}}}[/tex]

[tex]{\dashrightarrow{\small{\sf{ V = \cancel{\dfrac{10}{4}}}}}}[/tex]

[tex]{\dashrightarrow{\small{\sf{\underline{\underline{\purple{V = 2.25}}}}}}}[/tex]

Hence, the potential difference is 2.25V.

[tex]\underline{\rule{220pt}{3pt}}[/tex]

Answer:

25.13 ft

Explanation:

r = 4 feet

ω=0.25 revolution per minute

=1 revolution in  4 minutes  

total number of revolution N = 1 (in 4 minutes )

v=rω

distance traveled = 2×N×π×r

=2×1×π×4  

=8π

= 25.13ft in 4mins

Answer:

P = VI = (IR)I = I2R

Explanation:

What the equation means is that if you double the current you end up with 4 times the power loss. It's like the area of carpet you need for a room - if you make the room twice as long and twice as wide you need 4x as much carpet. The physical explanation is that the voltage difference along a wire depends on the current - more current flowing with a resistance means more voltage (pressure of electricity if you like) is built up.

This extra voltage means more power. So if you double the current your would double the power, but you also double the voltage which doubles the power again = 4x as much power. P = VI = (IR)I = I2R

I hope this helps you out, if I'm wrong, just tell me.

As I mentioned earlier, Ohm's law gives us the formula P = IV, where V is the voltage ( also known as the electrical potential difference ) and I is the current. It is confusing that P = I²R and P = IV are one in the same - so I want to go a bit deeper on that.

We have three formulas, P = IV, P = I²R, and P = V² / R. Each are considered the same. The two formulas P = I²R, and P = V² / R are derived from the statement that P = IV, under the condition V = IR. Substitute the value of V from this second condition V = IR into P = IV. You would get the following -

P = I( IR ),

P = I²R

That is how one can derive the formula P = I²R, and how P = IV and P = I²R are thought to be one in the same. If you would like, take a look at how to get the formula " P = V² / R, "

V = IR, P = IV

I = V / R, P = IV

P = ( V / R )V,

P = V² / R

Hope that helps!

Answer:

Part A)

Since all of the resistors have equal resistance, hence for finding even only 1 branch It will be fine because current will be the same for all branches.

=> [tex]I = \frac{V}{R_{1} }[/tex]

=> [tex]I = \frac{30}{15}[/tex]

=> I = 2 A

Part B)

Equivalent resistance for parallel circuits is the sum of reciprocals of each resistor.

=> [tex]\frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{R_{1}}+\frac{1}{R_{2}} +\frac{1}{R_{3}}[/tex]  

=> [tex]\frac{1}{R} = \frac{1}{15}+ \frac{1}{15}+\frac{1}{15}[/tex]

=> [tex]\frac{1}{R} = \frac{3}{15}[/tex]

=> R = 15/3

=> R = 5 ohms

Part C)

I = V/R

Where I is current, V is voltage and R is the equivalent resistance

=> I = 30/5

=> I = 6 A

Answer:

It is not a uniform velocity, because his velocity increases for 5 m every second (acceleration = 5m/s2), meaning his velocity always changes.

When he starts at rest, his velocity is 0 m/s. But in 1 second later, his velocity is already 5m/s. At 2 seconds, his velocity will be 10 m/s.

Answer:

we have to measure distances and time, possibly with an automated system since the values ​​are very small

Explanation:

For this exercise we can use the relationship between momentum and momentum

        I = ∫ F dt = Δp

        F t = m [tex]v_{f}[/tex] - mv₀

In the exercise they indicate that the final speed is zero

         F t = - m v₀

         F = -m v₀ / t

With this equation we can find what measurements should be carried out.

To find the speed with which the car collides with the wall, less measure the displacement and its time during the braking process before reaching the wall and from here find the speed with which it reaches the wall.

During the impact, we must find the time that the vehicle is in contact with the wall in the first approach is equal to the time that the car takes to reach the final speed of zero.

In summary we have to measure distances and time, possibly with an automated system since the values ​​are very small

Explanation:

2. Heat gained by tap1 = mass1 × SHC × change in temperature

= mass1 × 4200 × (40 - 26)

= mass1 × 58800

Heat lost by tap 2 = mass2 × SHC × change in temperature

= mass2 × 4200 × (82 - 40)

= mass2 × 176400

Heat gained = heat lost

mass1 × 58800 = mass2 × 176400

Ratio of mass 1 to mass 2 = 58800mass1 : 176400mass2

= 1 : 3

Answer:

43,919.66 Kilotones de Co2 en 2016.

Explicación:

Ecuador produce 43,919.66 Kilotones de Co2 en 2016. Las tierras húmedas son muy importantes para la biodiversidad porque proporcionan hábitat a millones de animales. Alrededor del 35 por ciento de todas las especies amenazadas y en peligro vive en estas tierras húmedas. Estas tierras húmedas son altamente productivas y tienen la capacidad de mejorar la calidad del agua, prevenir la degradación del suelo y proporcionar alimentos a los animales que viven en estas tierras húmedas.

Answer:

for every action thete is an equal and opposite reaction

Answer:

Newton’s third law of motion says that for every action there is a(n)

equal and opposite reaction.

Explanation:

just got it right edg 1928

Answer:

D. the water's latent heat of vaporization is being pulled from the air.

Explanation:

A swamp cooler also generally referred to as the evaporative cooler is an electronic device that uses moisture to cool air. This simply means that, the electronic device works on the principle of evaporation of water to cool the surrounding air.

In swamp coolers, water absorbs large amount of warm air via the evaporative wet cooler pad, so as to evaporate and consequently cooling the air effectively and efficiently.

Swamp coolers are effective because the water's latent heat of vaporization is being pulled from the air.

The latent heat of vaporization can be defined as the energy that is being absorbed by water during evaporation.

The swamp coolers are typically made up of the following essential components, these are;

1. Float.

2. Blower.

3. Pump.

4. Evaporative pad.

5. Water supply valve.

Hence, through the principle of evaporative cooling (latent heat of vaporization), swamp coolers reduces or lower the air temperature in its surroundings.

Answer:

B and D

Explanation:

Answer:

circular motion

Explanation:

hope this helps you :)

Answer:

Centripetal motion

Explanation:

As a motorcycle takes a sharp turn the type of motion that occurs is called centripetal motion

Answer:

The answer to this should be: 5.0 x 10⁸ Hz

Explanation:

The speed, s, of a wave, equals the product of its frequency, ν, times its wavelength, λ:

s = νλ.

As the question states, the speed of an electromagnetic wave is a constant, c, equal to 3.0 × 10⁸ m/s.

Substituting this constant in the equation for the speed of the wave, you get:

c =  νλ.

From that equation, you can solve for the frequency to show the inverse realation of frequency and wavelength:

ν =  c / λ

Now, you just have to substitute values and compute, leaving you with:

5.0 x 10⁸ Hz

Answer:

A.) H = 58.6 m

B.) T = 6.92 s

C.) 345.12 m

D.) V = 22.13 m/s

E.) Ø = 32.1 degree

Explanation:

Given that the

initial speed U = 60.3 m/s

Angle Ø = 34.2 degree

A.) At maximum height, final velocity V is equal to zero.

Using the third equation of motion under gravity.

V^2 = U sin Ø^2 - 2gH

Substitute for U and g. Where g = 9.8 m/s^2

0 = (60.3 sin 34.2)^2 - 2 × 9.8 × H

1148.78 = 19.6 H

H = 1148.78/19.6

H = 58.6 m

B.) To Determine the total time in the air, let us use the formula

V = UsinØ - gt

At maximum height, V = 0

t = UsinØ/g

Total time T = 2t

Therefore, T = 2UsinØ/g

T = (2 × 60.3 × sin 34.2)/9.8

T = 67.79/9.8

T = 6.92 s

C.) To determine the total horizontal distance covered which is the range, we will use second equation of motion.

S = UcosØT - 1/2gt^2

Where S = range R

g = 0, since the range is not a vertical distance

T = total time

Substitute all the parameters into the formula

R = 60.3 cos 34.2 × 6.92

R = 345.12 m

D.) After 1.2 s firing,

V = UsinØ - gt

Where t = 1.2 s

Substitute into the formula

V = 60.3 × sin34.2 - 9.8 × 1.2

V = 33.89 - 11.76

V = 22.13 m/s

Therefore the speed of the projectile 1.20 s after firing is 22.13 m/s

E.) The direction will be determined by using the formula

t = VsinØ/ g

Cross multiply

VsinØ = gt

Make SinØ the subject of formula

SinØ = gt/V

SinØ = (9.8×1.2)/22.13

Sin Ø = 11.76/22.13

Sin Ø = 0.53

Ø = sin^-1( 0.53 )

Ø = 32.1 degree

Answer:

we should not drop a magnet on the floor because the magnets tend to lose magnetism gradually and become weak over a period of time if they are not stored properly.

Answer:

Well depending on the floor like say if it was a wooden floor the magnet might lose it magnetism, if concrete floor the magnetic brake and still lose it magnetism, if a metal floor the magnet would stick not sure if it wood lose it magnetism or not but the possibilities still there, basically what I'm saying is the magnet would lose its magnetism if it were to interact with the floor maybe temporary or maybe permanently.

for those with with a learning disability it's a

Explanation:

Answer:

[tex]m=35.58 kg[/tex]

Explanation:

Using the first Newton's equation

[tex]\Sum F_{T}=F-mgsin(25)-\mu mgcos(25)=0[/tex]

We just need to solve it for m:

[tex]m=\frac{F}{g(sin(25)+\mu cos(25))}[/tex]

[tex]m=\frac{350}{9.81(sin(25)+0.64cos(25))}[/tex]

[tex]m=35.58 kg[/tex]

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

the following image will make you understand

Explanation: