Myoglobin is a protein that stores oxygen in muscle cells. Thus the correct answer is option (C).
Your striated muscles, which include your cardiac muscles and skeletal muscles (the muscles linked to your bones and tendons), contain the protein known as myoglobin. Its primary job is to give your muscles' cells oxygen (myocytes).
Your body's cells require oxygen to function. They transform the stored energy using oxygen. Due to their regular use, your cardiac muscles and skeletal muscles need a lot of oxygen and energy.
Myoglobin is mostly located in your striated muscles (the kinds of muscles you consciously move, such as your arm and leg muscles). Myoglobin only moves into your blood when your muscles are damaged.
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list the organs of the urinary system and locate them in the view. you may want to use the fade others tool to get a clearer view of the highlighted structures.
Among the organs of the urinary system are the ureters, bladder, kidney, renal pelvis, and urethra. Food nutrients are converted by the body into energy.
How do the kidneys function in the urinary system?In addition to producing urine as a waste material, the urinary system filters blood. The organs that make up the urinary system include the ureters, bladder, kidneys, renal pelvis, and urethra. Food ingredients are converted into energy by the body.
Why is blood seen in poop?Cellular respiration is the mechanism through which the body's cells convert the energy from food into usable energy. From the stored glucose, ATP draws its energy. Glucose and oxygen make up the reaction's formula. water and carbon dioxide.
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Four organs are connected to the urinary system. They include two kidneys, ureters, urine bladders, and urethras.
What are the urinary system's organs?The purpose of the urinary system is to filtering blood and urinary bladder as a waste byproduct. The kidneys, ureter, ureters, bladder, and urethra are among the urinary system's organs.
What are the roles of each urinary system organ?The kidney are the most intricate and important component of a urinary system. Ureter: Through tubes known as ureters, urine travels from of the renal tube to the bladder. Until the pee is allowed to exit the body via the urethra and the bladder, which is flexible, is utilized as storage.
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describe a positive coagulase test and its significance. describe how coagulase is a virulence factor. which pathogen produces coagulase
The coagulase test is beneficial for separating potentially pathogenic Staphylococci from other Gram-positive, catalase-positive cocci, such as Staphylococcus aureus.
When S. aureus comes into contact with blood, coagulase, which is closely linked to the surface of the bacterium, can coat the surface in fibrin. The fibrin clot might separate the bacterium from the host's other defenses and shield it from phagocytosis. Therefore, the fibrin covering may make the bacteria more pathogenic.
human pathogen clinical isolates Coa, a polypeptide secreted by Staphylococcus aureus, is a polypeptide that binds to and activates prothrombin, turning fibrinogen into fibrin and encouraging blood or plasma clotting.
The development of pseudocapsules that encourage abscess formation and infection persistence, as well as staphylococcal key virulence factors contributing to coagulases
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You are interested in how gpr279, a gpcr, functions within keratinocytes. A drug that specifically targets gpr279 was recently developed. After purchasing the drug, you add increasing concentrations of the drug to your keratinocyte cultures. After 24 hours, the cells were fixed, the dna was stained with a fluorescent dye, and the cells were run on flow cytometry. The following cell cycle profiles were produced. What could you most likely conclude about the drug treatment?.
A freshly created medication precisely targets GPR279 in keratinocytes. You add increasing amounts of after buying the medicine.
Which of the following is not a component of the nucleus?Therefore, since DNA serves as the template strand, the processes of DNA replication and transcription occur inside the nucleus. The ribosomes read the mRNA that has been exported from the nucleus so that a polypeptide chain can be formed. So, the only activity that happens outside the nucleus is protein synthesis.
What happens solely in the nucleus?Only the last phase of gene expression, translation, is limited to the cytoplasm. DNA replication, transcription, and RNA processing all take place within the nucleus.
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Mendel concluded that one out of every four f2 pea plants is going to be short. How did he perform his experiment to come to that conclusion?.
Mendel reasoned that one in every four F2 pea plants would be short, so he self-pollinated the heterozygous Tt tall F1 plants. The correct option is 1.
What is Mendelian Principle?Mendel proposed that the inherited factors must separate into reproductive cells during reproduction.
He'd noticed that allowing hybrid pea plants to self-pollinate produced offspring that looked nothing like their parents.
The principles of Mendelian inheritance were named after and first derived by Gregor Johann Mendel, a Moravian monk who developed his ideas after conducting simple hybridization experiments with pea plants in the nineteenth century.
Mendel reasoned that one out of every four F2 pea plants would be short, so he self-pollinated the Tt tall heterozygous F1 plants.
Thus, the correct option is 1.
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Your question seems incomplete, the missing options are:
A- He self-pollinated the heterozygous Tt tall F1 plants.
B- He cross-pollinated the homozygous TT tall F1 plants.
C- He self-pollinated the homozygous tt short F1 plants.
D- He cross-pollinated the heterozygous Tt tall F1 plants.
When Ras is activated, cells will divide. A dominant-negative form of Ras clings too tightly to GDP. You introduce a dominant-negative form of Ras into cells that also have a normal version of Ras. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) The cells you create will divide less frequently than normal cells in response to the extracellular signals that typically activate Ras.
(b) The cells you create will run out of the GTP necessary to activate Ras.
(c) The cells you create will divide more frequently compared to normal cells in response to the extracellular signals that typically activate Ras.
(d) The normal Ras in the cells you create will not be able to bind GDP because the dominant-negative Ras binds to GDP too tightly.
The correct answer (a) The cells you create will divide less frequently than normal cells in response to the extracellular signals that typically activate Ras.
Ras protein is a low-molecular-weight GDP/GTP-binding guanine triphosphatase produced by the Ras gene that plays an important role in cell growth and differentiation signaling. In the regular course of signal transduction.
What is the function of the RAS protein?
RAS proteins play a crucial role in proper development. Active RAS promotes cell growth, proliferation, and migration. RAS in normal cells receives and obeys signals to swiftly flip between active (GTP form) and inactive (GDP form) states.
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Mammary glands...
a. sweat
b. sebum
c. milk
d. cerumen
Answer:
milk
Explanation:
Mammals are animals that produce milk to feed their young. Hence the word mammary gland
What is the most important reason a cell exhibits tight transcriptional control over the regulation of gene expression?.
For the cell, regulation at the transcriptional level saves energy.
How does gene expression affect the regulation of transcriptional control?There are specifically two levels of control over gene expression. The amount of mRNA that can be produced from a particular gene is the first way transcription is controlled. The second level of regulation, post-transcriptional processes, control how mRNA is translated into proteins.
What mechanisms do cells use to control transcription?Both transcriptional activators and repressors control gene expression in eukaryotic cells. Eukaryotic repressors bind to specific DNA sequences and prevent transcription, just like their prokaryotic counterparts.
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A student is investigating thermal energy transfer. The student touches a piece of metal to a hot object, causing the metal to heat up. Which process of thermal energy transfer is the student demonstrating?.
When The student touches a piece of metal to a hot object, causing the metal to heat up. The thermal energy transfer process the student demonstrated is conduction.
There are basically three methods of heat transfer:
heat transfer by conductionheat transfer by convectionheat transfer by radiationHeat transfer by conduction requires real movement of the medium's molecules.
When a student touches a hot object with a piece of metal, molecules of the hot object move to the piece of metal. This type of heat transfer is called conduction.
Therefore, we can conclude that the thermal energy transfer process demonstrated by the student is conduction.
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Place the following events of a reflex arc in the correct order: 1) motor neuron activation, 2) sensory neuron activation, 3) sensory receptor activation, 4) Information processing, 5) effector response.3,2,4,1,5
the correct sequence of a reflex arc is a sensory receptor, sensory neuron, interneuron, motor neuron and effector.
A reflex arc is an involuntary and unexpected reaction to stimuli. It also happens to be an essential component of the well-known survival instinct. The majority of our common reflexes are a result of our well-trained, accumulated knowledge of caution. It could be anything, from the reflex action of abruptly withdrawing one's hand when it comes into contact with an extremely cold or hot object, to a more serious condition. This is known as the reflex action. It has a subtle relation to instinct. sensory neurons and receptors play a major role in reflex arc.
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Fermentation breaks down the glucose when no ___ is available in order to make some ATP. Two types are lactic acid and alcoholic fermentation.
Question 4 options:
oxygen
carbon dioxide
hydrogen
nitrogen
Fermentation breaks down the glucose when no oxygen is available in order to make some ATP, hence option a is correct.
What is lactic acid fermentation?Glycolysis, the first step in fermentation, converts glucose into two pyruvate molecules, two ATP (net), and two NADH.
The constant breakdown of glucose to produce ATP during fermentation is made possible by the recycling of NADH to NAD+, to produce lactic acid and alcoholic fermentation.
Therefore, the fermentation's need for anaerobiosis is made easier by the carbon dioxide that is created in place of the air, hence option a is correct.
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Which proteins lends structural support to the chromosome and helps activate or silence gene expression?.
Answer:
Explanation:
Histone proteins provide structural support to the chromosomes and help in DNA packaging.
Which water quality most likely indicates eutrophication
Answer:
Nitrate levels
Fertilizer runoff
Explanation:
eutrophication is :
if there is a flood, water from a farm has a lot of fertilizer in it. fertilizer has a lot nitrates. nitrate is made from nitrogen
algae eat the nitrates and nutrients in the water
algae decreases the amount of oxygen in the water
too much algae consumes oxygen and blocks sunlight from underwater plants so low levels of photosynthesis
fish eat underwater plants and breathe oxygen thru its gills
can kill fish
eutrophication data example:
-high nitrate concentration
-pH of 10 (1 to 6 means its acid, 7 is Neutral, 8 to 14 is base)
-low dissolved oxygen levels
-temperature of 60°F
turbidity shows how cloudy is
pH shows
how much acid the water has
it shows how polluted the air is.
if air is polluted, the dirty air gets into the clouds and makes the rain acidic
quiziz
National Geographic
noaa
quizlet
cancer results from cells that divide when they should not. a hallmark of cancer is high levels of dna methylation in cell genomes. methylation of which genes is most likely to lead to cancerous cell formation?
Genes that prevent cell division, Cancer results from cells that divide when they should not. A hallmark of cancer is high levels of DNA methylation in cell genomes.
A gene is the primary structural and functional element of heredity. Genes are made out of DNA. Some genes serve as the building blocks for making proteins. However, many genes do not encode proteins. A human gene can be made up of a few hundred DNA nucleotides or more than 2 million bases. According to the Human Genome Project, a global research effort to decipher the human genome's sequence and catalog its genes, humans are believed to have between 20,000 and 25,000 genes.
DNA methylation entails the insertion of methyl groups (-CH3) to sections of DNA where the Cytosine and Guanine bases occur often (often called CpG island). Genes that control the cell cycle, maintain chromosome stability, and control transcription is typically not methylated. Methylation in these areas can result in gene knowledge related to apoptosis and cell cycle regulation, and as a result, it can result in the development and growth of tumors.
The complete question is:
Cancer results from cells that divide when they should not. a hallmark of cancer is high levels of DNA methylation in cell genomes. methylation of which genes is most likely to lead to cancerous cell formation?
(A). Genes that produce transaction factors
(B). Genes that promote the formation of blood vessels
(C). Genes that promote ATP production
(D). Genes that promote cell division
(E). Genes that prevent cell division
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Breast milk:
Group of answer choices
a. is deficient in iron and vitamin C.
b. is more likely than formula to poduce alleries.
c. provides more iron and vitaminC and A than cow's milk.
d. upsets the baby's digestive system more often than formulas.
Breast milk (c) provides more iron and vitamin C and A than cow's milk.
Breast milk is milk is produced by the mammary glands. This is located in the breast of a human female. Breast milk is the one of the important source of nutrition for the newborns. This is formed of fat, protein and vitamins
Breast milk provides more iron and vitamin C and A than cow's milk. The iron in breastmilk which is absorbed as compared to other sources. The vitamin C and lactose is present in the breastmilk aid in the iron absorption.
What produces good breast milk?
If you are exclusively nursing, you need roughly 300 to 500 extra calories per day than you did to maintain your pre-pregnancy weight in order to maintain your milk supply and your personal health. A typical, nutritious, balanced diet rich in fruits, vegetables, and whole grains is the healthiest diet for a nursing mother.
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based on your prior knowledge of animal digestive systems, why would you answer to the previous question be important
Based on your prior knowledge of animal digestive systems, I would answer the previous question be important as it can improve a producer's feeding efficiency and help them better understand the health of their animals and potential issues.
The digestive tract is made up of the esophagus, the small intestine, the liver, the exocrine pancreas, the large intestine, the rectum, and the anus, as well as the oral cavity and its accompanying organs (lips, teeth, tongue, and salivary glands). Ruminants also have forestomachs (reticulum, rumen, and omasum), which are true stomachs.
The evolved animal can digest food more effectively because of its one-way digestive system. The digestive tract's one-way section is divided into specific areas for processing food. Livestock producers may be better able to plan suitable nutritional programs if they have a solid understanding of ruminant digestive anatomy and function.
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The characteristic that determines which generation in plants is dominant is the generation that.
The characteristic that determines which generation in plants is dominant is the generation that is diploid and haploid. The characteristic that determines which generation in plants is dominant is the generation that does most of the photosynthesis.
One generation is more obvious, more independent, and more photosynthetic than the other generations. the dominance of plant generations changes over evolutionary time. the evolutionary trend in land plants is to increase dominance in sporophyte generation. Nonvascular plants include mosses, liverworts, and hornwigs. They are the only plants with a life cycle in which the gametophyte generation is dominant. One generation is more obvious, more independent, and more photosynthetic than the other generations. The dominant generation of most plants is the diploid sporophyte. This means that the diploid generation is larger and longer-lived than the haploid gametophyte.
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Prokaryotes stain as gram-positive or gram-negative because of differences in the cell ___.
Due to variations in the cell wall, prokaryotes can either stain gram-positive or gram-negative.
Why are prokaryotes gram-positive or gram-negative stained?The thick, peptidoglycan coating of gram-positive bacteria's cell walls will hold onto the dye, causing them to stain violet. The bacteria will stain red if they are gram-negative and the dye leaks through the thin peptidoglycan coating.
What distinguishes gram-positive bacteria from gram-negative bacteria?The hue of a Gram stain is purple. The bacteria in a sample will either stay purple or turn pink or red when the stain and bacteria combine.
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you are interested in using crispr to edit a particular gene in the genome. select the correct order of events that must occur to introduce a double stranded dna break using crispr/cas9. 1. small guide rna (sgrna) hybridizes with the target dna 2. cas9 cuts dna 3. cas9/sgrna complex binds pam sequence 4. sgrna binds cas9 5. cas9 unzips dna 5, 4, 3, 1, 2 4, 1, 3, 5, 2 4, 3, 5, 1, 2 5, 1, 4, 3, 2
4. sgRNA binds Cas9
3. Cas9/sgRNA complex binds PAM
5. Cas9 unzips DNA
1. small guide RNA (sgRNA) hybridizes with the target DNA
2. Cas9 cuts DNA
Every live cell has a genome (DNA). DNA is a double helix structure kept together by the complementary base pairing rule, which states that adenine always pairs with thymine and guanine always pairs with cytosine.
Researchers have discovered thousands of genes that might cause sickness in our bodies. Changing these genes in our bodies is difficult, but it is now achievable thanks to the CRISPR method.
CRISPR:
This method is based on natural system used by bacteria against the DNA of bacteriophages by activating CAS9 protein which due to guide RNA recognizes the target DNA and cut it into pieces.
Mechanism of CRISPR:
Initially, tiny guide RNA forms a complex with the CAS9 endonuclease protein.
This results in the formation of a Cas9/sgRNA complex, which subsequently binds the PAM sequence found inside the target DNA.
Cas9 unzips DNA when it binds to the PAM sequence.
The CAS9 complex contains small guide RNA (sgRNA), which hybridizes with the target DNA.
Cas9, which chops the target DNA, detects this hybridization.
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Did you find any sequences in the human genome that were statistically similar to your query sequence?.
The human genome has an estimated 1,000,000 instances of the Alu sequence, making it the most common SINE.
How similar are human DNA sequences?Any two people are 99.9% identical based on an analysis of their DNA. Several human tribes share the same minute genetic variations. Nevertheless, it just takes a quick glance to notice the incredibly wide range of individual differences in sizes, forms, and facial features.
Which four types of sequence repetitions are present in the human genome?Repetitive sequences, such as transposon-derived repetitions, processed pseudogenes, simple sequence repeats, and blocks of tandemly repeated sequences [1], which we shall refer to as common repeats, make up about 45% of the human genome.
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oxaloacetate is an inhibitor of succinate dehydrogenase. a. would you expect oxaloacetate to be a competitive or a noncompetitive inhibitor? why? b. would oxaloacetate bind to the active site or elsewhere on the enzyme? c. how would you reverse the effect of the inhibitor?
Step 1: Orientation (Part a).
Acetyl coa, a decarboxylation acid cycle precursor, has several effects on physiology, glycogenesis, the ammonia cycle, and protein synthesis, among other things.
Step 2: Given information (Part a).
Determine whether or if Oxaloacetate is a competitor.
(Step 3) Explanation (part a).
(a) The aldehyde group has a structure of traits and elements. It is hypothesized to work as a selective inhibitor.
4th step: Given data (Part b).
Determine the Oxaloacetate while being blind to the functioning of enzyme.
(Step 5) Explanation (Part b).
(a) While oxaloacetate is an effective succinate inhibitor, it binds to the active site of the enzyme.
6th step: Given data (part c).
Consider the effect of either the travelers.
Step 7: Give an explanation (Part c).
(c) The competition inhibitor's action can be overcome by increasing the amount of fuel, including succinate.
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Full Question ;
Oxaloacetate is an inhibitor of succinate dehydrogenase.
a. Would you expect oxaloacetate to be a competitive or a noncompetitive inhibitor? Why?
b. Would oxaloacetate bind to the active site or elsewhere on the enzyme?
c. How would you reverse the effect of the inhibitor?
Part a) As a function, it's considered to be a blocker.
Part b) As a rule, this would also connect to the active site of an enzyme.
Part c) The action of the identified blocker could be eliminated by changing the molarity.
tubular re-absorption occurs from the nephron tubules into the . a. peritubular capillaries b. nephron loop c. renal corpuscle d. renal pyramid
From the nephron tubules into the peritubular capillaries, tubular reabsorption takes place.
Tubular reabsorption is the process that takes solutes and water out of the filtrate and puts them back into your circulation. Reabsorption refers to the fact that this is their second absorption, the first being when they entered the bloodstream from the digestive tract following a meal.
Your nephrons have the capacity to release undesired compounds from your bloodstream into the filtrate in addition to reabsorbing the substances you need. These procedures work together to convert the glomerular filtrate into the urine.
Resorption happens in two steps:
Water and other dissolved materials must first travel passively or actively from the fluid inside the tubule through the wall of the tubule and into the area outside.The second stage involves the return of water and these compounds, again via passive or active transport, through the capillary walls into your bloodstream.Choice A is the appropriate answer as a result.
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_________ is a system in which any object, animate or inanimate, has a unique identity and is able to send and receive data over the internet without human interaction.
IoT is a system in which any object, animate or inanimate, has a unique identity and is able to send and receive data over the internet without human interaction.
What is internet of things?The Internet of Things (IoT) is a system in which any object, animate or inanimate, has a unique identity and can send and receive data over the internet without human intervention.
The internet of things, or IoT, is a networked system of interconnected computing devices, mechanical and digital machines, objects, animals, or people with unique identifiers (UIDs) and the ability to transfer data without requiring human-to-human or human-to-computer interaction.
Thus, the answer for the given blank will be IoT.
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Geneticists studying the gene for lactase did not find any differences in the coding region DNA between people who could digest lactose and people who could not digest lactose. After they investigated further, they discovered that the difference between lactose-tolerant and -intolerant individuals was due to a mutation located in Select one O a. the gene for glucose production O b. the genetic switch for the lactase gene C.a different gene that produces lactose If an individual is lactase persistent it means: Select one: a. she or he cannot properly digest milk b. she or he cannot properly digest milk as a baby c. she or he can digest milk as a baby d. she or he can digest milk as an adult o
The correct option is B : The genetic switch for lactase gene In most people, the gene for lactase, the enzyme that digests lactose, is activated at birth and deactivated after weaning.
However, the lactase gene is still active in the majority of Europeans. According to these findings, the lactase gene is often silenced by DNA methylation after early infancy.
However, SNPs that change the DNA sequence in the regulatory region prevent this methylation from occurring. Because the gene is maintained, this results in the production of lactase.
The correct option is C : She or he can digest milk as an adult Lactose intolerant people are unable to adequately digest the sugar (lactose) in milk.
As a result, individuals have diarrhea, gas, and bloating after consuming dairy products. The condition, also known as lactose malabsorption, is usually harmless, but its symptoms can be unpleasant.
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in myasthenia gravis (mg), there is a decrease in the number of receptor sites of which neurotransmitter?
In myasthenia gravis, antibodies (immune proteins produced with the aid of using the body's immune system) block, alter, or break the receptors for acetylcholine on the neuromuscular junction, which prevents the muscle from contracting.
The junctional acetylcholine receptors had been decreased withinside the myasthenic muscle tissue in comparison with the controls. This discount in receptors may also account for the illness in neuromuscular transmission in myasthenia gravis.
Lambert-Eaton (myasthenic) syndrome is likewise called Eaton-Lambert syndrome. It is a unprecedented autoimmune ailment of maturity wherein antibodies abnormally assault sure proteins at the floor of nerve endings that adjust calcium levels (calcium channels), ensuing in insufficient launch of acetylcholine.
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which of the following claims is best supported by the information above? choose 1 answer: choose 1 answer: (choice a) a e1b-55k causes infected cells to transition out of the cell cycle and into g 0 0 start subscript, 0, end subscript phase. (choice b) b e1b-55k causes infected cells to undergo programmed cell death. (choice c) c e1b-55k increases the likelihood of cell cycle arrest in infected cells. (choice d) d e1b-55k decreases the likelihood of apoptosis in infected cells.
Answer:
what is botany .and scope of botany
a fisherman catches and removes one trout from each of two ponds. pond a contains 100 trout and pond b contains 1,000 trout. which population is more affected by the fisherman
Because the fisherman has a higher chance of entirely removing alleles from the gene pool by catching a fish from the smaller population, pond A with 100 trout is more impacted by the fisherman.
An area of DNA or RNA known as a gene encodes for a particular molecular cell product. Genes, which are normally passed down from generation to generation, control physical features and the genetic makeup of creatures belonging to the same species. A pair of genes known as an alleles can be found on a given chromosome in a place known as the gene locus. The same features in kids are under their control. Alleles are a pair of genes that govern a trait by occupying a certain position on a chromosome.
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the phosphate buffer system is relatively unimportant for buffering blood plasma. group of answer choices true false
It is true that the phosphate buffer system is relatively unimportant for buffering blood plasma.
When a small amount of an acidic or basic substance is added to a solution, a buffer system can resist changes in its pH.
When it comes to buffering blood plasma, the phosphate buffer system isn't very important. The absolute most significant blood cradle framework is the bicarbonate cushion framework. The protein buffer system is one of the most potent and plentiful sources of buffers.
In order to support proper metabolic function, the bicarbonate buffer system is an acid-base homeostatic mechanism that involves the balance of carbonic acid, the bicarbonate ion, and carbon dioxide in the blood and duodenum, among other tissues.
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The outermost membrane of a euglenid chloroplast is thought to have been derived from what part of an original host cell that engulfed a green alga?.
In a process known as endosymbiosis, chloroplasts were once free-living bacteria that were integrated into plant cells.
Where did all chloroplasts come from?Chloroplasts were first established in eukaryotes through an endosymbiotic relationship with a cyanobacterium; they later spread through the evolution of eukaryotic hosts and the subsequent engulfment of eukaryotic algae by formerly nonphotosynthetic eukaryotes.
How did eukaryotic cells develop mitochondria and chloroplasts?Chloroplasts and mitochondria most likely developed from absorbed bacteria that originally existed as autonomous entities. An aerobic bacterium was eventually swallowed by a eukaryotic cell, which later established an endosymbiotic bond with the host eukaryote and gradually transformed into a mitochondrion.
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a mature ovary, specialized as a vessel that houses and protects seeds, is a a) seed coat. b) ovule. c) fruit. d) cotyledon.
The mature ovary that is specialized as a vessel is a fruit, which means option c is correct.
After fertilization, the zygote is shaped in the ovule. The ovary develops right into a fruit. The ovule in the ovary matures into seeds. The zygote in the ovule will become the embryo in the seeds. A fruit is a mature, as well as ripened ovary, in conjunction with the contents of the ovary. The ovary is the ovule-bearing reproductive shape withinside the plant flower. The ovary serves to surround and defend the ovules, from the youngest tiers of flower improvement till the ovules emerge as fertilized and develop into seeds.
Therefore, the correct option is c i.e., fruit.
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causes of metabolic acidosis include: question 6 options: 1) ingestion of too much alcohol 2) excessive loss of bicarbonate ions 3) lactic acid accumulation 4) ketosis 5) all of these
The excessive loss of bicarbonate ions is the answer. Ketoacidosis, which is brought on by starvation and can result in metabolic acidosis, increases acid production. Increased acid production from aspirin overdose can result in metabolic acidosis.
Acidosis is brought on by excessive acid production that accumulates in the blood, excessive blood bicarbonate loss (metabolic acidosis), or an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood as a result of impaired lung function or reduced breathing (respiratory acidosis).Increased bicarbonate loss brought on by diarrhea might result in metabolic acidosis.
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