A zinc finger DNA-binding motif is common to many transcription factors in the human genome.
The first zinc finger motifs were identified in the structure of Xenopus transcription factor IIIA in 1985. This motif consists of a relatively short α-helix and a two-stranded antiparallel β-sheet.
Proteins has unique features, They binds to DNA as homodimers or heterodimers and recognize DNA through one of a small number of structural motifs. Their are other common motifs in transcriptional activator proteins that include the helix-turn-helix, the homeodomain, the leucine zipper, the helix-loop-helix, and zinc fingers of many types.
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what cell type remains after an adaptive immune response and is responsible for maintaining the steady-state level of pathogen-specific antibody in the circulation?
The cell type that remains after an adaptive immune response and is responsible for maintaining the steady-state level of pathogen-specific antibody in circulation is long-lived plasma cells.
Adaptive immunity is a kind of immunity that is made against infectious diseases.
This type of immunity produces a strong response against pathogens and hence is pathogen-specific. The plasma cells that are longed lived produce antibodies as well as memory cells against the specific microbes.
These plasma cells are longed lived so that they can recognize the specific pathogen whenever it invades the body.
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Which term describes the study of the distribution of genetic traits and the allelic changes that occur within a population?.
Population genetics is the branch of biology that investigates allele frequencies in populations and how they alter through time. Macroevolution, which involves significant changes over a long period of time, such as the emergence of new groups or species, is commonly contrasted with microevolution.
Which phrase best represents a shift in the populations' allelic frequencies?Natural selection, genetic drift (chance occurrences that alter allele frequencies), and gene flow are the three mechanisms that might cause allele frequencies to shift (the transfer of alleles between populations).
What is the mechanism by which a population's trait distribution evolves over many generations?Populations of organism go through a process called evolution.
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If an offspring has a recessive trait show up, such as blue eyes, what combination of alleles must be present?
Group of answer choices
1 dominant and 1 recessive gene
2 dominant genes
2 recessive genes
Answer:
2 recessive genes
Explanation:
A recessive trait can only be present in the absence of the dominant gene.
For example the gene for brown eyes are dominant and the gene for blue eyes are recessive.
**the dominant gene is usually represented with a capital letter and vice versa for the recessive*
Denoting:
B for brown eyes
b for blue eyes
We know that gametes (sex cells) have half the number of chromosomes (haploid number) than all the other cells in the body, the reason for this is because during fertilization, both male and female gametes combine and then in total they have the diploid number of chromosomes.
so for each trait, you have an allele from each the mother and father. Heterozygous means that there are two different alleles for the gene and homozygous means that both alleles for a specific gene are the same.
In the case of eye colour, any combination that has the dominant Brown allele in it results in the offspring having brown eyes no matter if there is also a recessive blue allele.
the combinations BB, Br all result in brown eyes and the only possibility of blues eyes are bb
question at position 1 horses and donkeys can interbreed, but their offspring (mules) are infertile. this is an example of what kind of reproductive isolating mechanism?
genetic incompatibility post-zygote. The production of healthy sperm and eggs is hampered by the misaligned chromosomes. Mules are therefore sterile because the chromosomes of horses and donkeys are simply too different.
A type of postzygotic isolating mechanism is hybrid sterility. For instance, the mule is a cross between a horse or pony and a donkey. The donkey has 62 diploid chromosomes, while a horse or pony has 64. The mule is therefore sterile and has 63 chromosomes. An progeny known as a mule can be born from the union of a donkey and a horse. Due to the donkey parent having 62 and the horse parent having 64 chromosomes, the resulting mule has 63 chromosomes in its cells. The mule can't do it.
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a horticulturalist wants to produce geraniums with specific characteristics. she knows that the trait of red flowers is governed by the allele r (rr and rr) and the trait of white flowers is governed by the allele r (rr).
a cross of two geraniums yields offspring that are 25% rr, 50% rr, and 25% rr.
which choice best represents the alleles of the parents?
A. Rr and rr
B. rr and rr
C. Rr and Rr
D. RR and rr
Answer C Rr and Rr
Explanation:
because i did that test hope this helps
Answer: C. Rr and Rr
Explanation:
Took the test
Muscles of the axial skeleton might have an origin or insertion on any of the following except...
1. bones of the skull
2. humerus, femur
3. cranial bones, cervical vertebrae
4. thoracic vertebrae, lumbar vertebrae
Muscles of the axial skeleton might have an origin or insertion on any of the following except option 2 humerus, femur.
The axial skeleton is comprised of the 80 bones that form your body's central core. This includes your skull, neck, back, and chest bones. Your brain, spinal cord, and organs are all protected and cushioned by your axial skeleton. The skull, laryngeal skeleton, vertebral column, and thoracic cage are all part of the axial skeleton. The humerus and femur are the bones that correspond to the arms and legs, respectively. While their parts are similar in general, their structures have been modified to serve different purposes. The humeral head is nearly hemispherical, while the femoral head is roughly two-thirds of a sphere.
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atapuerca, dated to approximately 300,000 years ago, has yielded a sample representing about twenty-eight premodern homo sapiens individuals.
The site which has yielded a sample is A)Atapuerca which is representing about twenty-eight premodern homo sapiens individuals. So, correct option is A.
The archeological site of Atapuerca is situated in the region of Burgos in the north of Spain and is eminent for its proof of early human occupation. It was assigned a World Legacy Site in 2000.
The archeological meaning of this piece of the region of Burgos turned out to be progressively evident in the twentieth 100 years as the consequence of the development of a meter-check rail line (presently neglected) through the Atapuerca Mountains. Profound cuttings were made through the karst topography uncovering rocks and silt of highlights known as Gran Dolina, Galería Elefante and Sima de los Huesos.
The resulting exhuming of 1964 under the bearing of Francisco Jordá Cerdá prevailed with the disclosure of anthropogenic relics and human fossils from a wide time range (early people, agrarian gatherings, Bronze Age tenants).
Hence, correct option is A.
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(Complete question) is:
Which of the following sites, dated to approximately 300,000 years ago, has yielded a sample representing about twenty-eight premodern homo sapiens individuals?
a. Atapuerca
b.Ehringsdorf
c. Steinheim
d. Swanscombe
e. Petralona
how many moles are present in 10.0 gram sample of sodium
Answer:
0.07 moles
Explanation:
some animal cells produce an extensive extracellular matrix. you would expect their ribosomes to synthesize large amounts of which of the following proteins? some animal cells produce an extensive extracellular matrix. you would expect their ribosomes to synthesize large amounts of which of the following proteins? collagen myosin tubulin actin
You would expect their ribosomes to synthesize large amounts of a) collagen.
A class of protein is collagen. In actuality, it is the structural protein that is most prevalent in mammals. Proteins that make up the framework or structure of your cells and tissues are known as structural proteins. There are 28 varieties of collagen that are now recognized, with type I collagen making up 90% of the collagen in the human body.
Your body naturally makes collagen, which you can also get from food sources including fish and chicken skin and supplements.
For the treatment of aging symptoms like wrinkles, dry skin, and joint discomfort, oral and topical collagen treatments, such as supplements and face creams, are well-liked.
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Before the cell can divide again, it must grow and synthesize proteins during the.
G1 is accompanied via way of means of S segment (synthesis), at some stage in which DNA replication takes area. The final touch of DNA synthesis is accompanied via way of means of the G2 segment (hole 2), at some stage in which mobileular increase maintains and proteins are synthesized in training for mitosis.
To divide, a mobileular have to whole numerous essential obligations: it have to grow, reproduction its genetic material (DNA), and bodily break up into daughter cells. Cells carry out those obligations in an organized, predictable collection of steps that make up the mobileular cycle.
The 2nd increase segment begins off-evolved to put together the cells with newly replicated DNA for access into the mitosis segment via way of means of installing area the important organelles for mitosis. The mobileular cycle is a crucial a part of the ongoing patience of all eukaryotes and prokaryotes.
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nucleotides are composed of a(an): a. amino acid, b. nitrogen-containing base, c. fatty acid, d. 5-carbon sugar, e. phosphate molecule. which combination is correct:
The correct option is B,D,E : A molecule made comprised of a nitrogen-containing base (in DNA, adenine, guanine, thymine, or cytosine; in RNA, adenine, guanine, uracil, or cytosine), a phosphate group, and a sugar (deoxyribose in DNA; ribose in RNA).
An amino acid is a protein molecule monomer, whereas a nucleotide is a nucleic acid monomer. As a result, this is the primary distinction between amino acid and nucleotide. Furthermore, amino acids have C, H, N, O, and S atoms, whereas nucleotides contain C, H, N, O, and P atoms.
Nucleotides are made up of three components: phosphate, a sugar molecule, and one of four bases. A (adenine), g (guanine), t (thymine), and c are the bases (cytosine).
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when you arrive at work, you are unable to park your car in your assigned spot because someone has already parked there. what type of enzyme process could this be related to? your answer: denaturation competitive inhibition substrate specific inhibition non-competitive inhibition
when a car is parked exactly where you usually do, making it impossible for you to park. In this problem, enzymes are compared to a car's parking capabilities. The car is the substrate, the parking space is the active site, and the nearby cars are the competitive inhibition.
Competitive inhibition is the disruption of a chemical pathway as a result of one chemical substance competing with another for binding or bonding, hence inhibiting the action of the other. This principle may have an impact on any metabolic or chemical messenger system, but several classes of competitive inhibition, such as the competitive form of enzyme inhibition, the competitive form of receptor antagonism, the competitive form of antimetabolite activity, and the competitive form of poisoning, are particularly significant in biochemistry and medicine (which can include any of the aforementioned types)
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imagine you are an ecologist studying population growth and decline in a species of rabbits. you decide to set up an experiment to observe how a rabbit population grows and changes when there are no predators. as preparation, you plant a secluded forest meadow with a species of flowers that the rabbits eat and then fence it off to protect the rabbits from predators. you release a small population of rabbits into the meadow and, over the next few years, record how their population changes over time. at first, the rabbits eat the flower and grasses in the meadow and reproduce. eventually, the population of flowers and grasses declines. then, the population of rabbits declines. after the number of rabbit decreases, grasses and flowers begin the grow again, and are eaten by the rabbits. neither the rabbit nor flower and grass populations return to their highest levels, but both continue to exist. what appears to be the limiting factor in the growth of this rabbit population?
The limiting factor in the growth of this rabbit population here is the food supply.
What are growth limiting factors in a population?
Lack of a certain resource is a common expression for limiting circumstances. For instance, food becomes a limiting constraint if there are not enough prey species in a forest to sustain a large number of predators.
Here we can see that the population of rabbits decrease when the food available in the environment as competition for food increases with increase in the population of the rabits,and decrease in population of seen of the rabbits.
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Which of the following does not influence hemoglobin saturation?
a. temperature
b. DPG
c. nitric oxide
d. carbon dioxide
Answer:
b. DPG
Explanation:
I don't know just random answer
Nitric oxide does not influence hemoglobin saturation.
Hemoglobin saturation is not directly affected by nitric oxide (NO). The amount of oxygen bound to hemoglobin in red blood cells is known as hemoglobin saturation. The effects of temperature, DPG (2,3-diphosphoglycerate), and carbon dioxide on hemoglobin saturation are discussed. Nitric oxide's primary functions in the body are as a vasodilator and signaling molecule. While it helps control blood pressure and flow, it has little immediate effect on hemoglobin saturation.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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Safe Cooking Temperatures To ensure food safety when preparing meats, a thermometer should be used to gauge the internal temperature. Put the four meats in order of lowest recommended minimum internal temperature (left) to highest recommended minimum internal temperature (right) Medium rare steak Pourty Heat to 140°F Heat to 145°F Heat to 160°F Heat to 165°F Reset
Temperatures for Safe Cooking A thermometer should be used to gauge the internal temperature of meats to ensure food safety.
When cooking meat or eggs at home, keep the following temperatures in mind: Cook eggs and all ground meats to 160°F; poultry and fowl to 165°F; and fresh meat steaks, chops, and roasts to 145°F. Check temperatures with a thermometer. for safe cooking Chilling food does not kill bacteria, but it does prevent them from multiplying to dangerous levels. As a result, it is a legal requirement that perishable foods be kept refrigerated at 8oC or lower. Frozen food should ideally be stored at a temperature of -18oC or lower.
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The simultaneous arrival of graded depolarization and a graded hyperpolarization of equal but opposite magnitude at a particular location on the dendritic membrane is likely to _____.
cancel each other out, making it appear as if there was no change in membrane potential
The simultaneous arrival of graded depolarization and a graded hyperpolarization of equal but opposite magnitude at a particular location on the dendritic membrane is likely to cancel the effects of each other, as if there was no change in membrane potential. The correct answer is C.
Graded depolarization caused by sodium or calcium ion penetration. Graded hyperpolarization caused by excretion of potassium ions or entry of chloride ions. Thus, when equal but opposite degrees of graded depolarization and hyperpolarization occur at a given dendrite of a neuron, the positive and negative charges neutralize each other and have little or no effect on the total membrane potential. .
Graded potential cause transient, subtle changes in membrane potentials associated with neuronal dendrites. The magnitude of the change induced depends on the magnitude and duration of the stimulus. These can be depolarized or hyperpolarized.
The magnitude of the change depends on the magnitude and duration of the stimulus.
They can be depolarized or hyperpolarized.
Gradual depolarization caused by sodium or calcium ion penetration. Gradual hyperpolarization caused by excretion of potassium ions or entry of chloride ions. Thus, when equal but opposite degrees of graded depolarization and hyperpolarization occur at a given dendrite of a neuron, the positive and negative charges neutralize each other and have little or no effect on the total membrane potential.
your question is incomplete, but the most probably your full question was
The simultaneous arrival of graded depolarization and a graded hyperpolarization of equal butopposite magnitude at a particular location on the dendritic membrane is likely to _____
a. Cause depolarization, because graded depolarizations are more important to neuron function
b. Cause hyperpolarization, because graded hyperpolarizations are more important to neuron function
c. Cancel each other out, making it appear as if there was no change in membrane potential
d. Cause the apoptosis of the neuron
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Label the following diagram with the correct term(s). The terms are biosphere, atmosphere, & biota.
A
B
C
D
E
A. Hydrosphere
B. Biosphere
C. Biota
D. Geosphere
E. Atmosphere
The biosphere is made up of all habitats on Earth that support life.
The Earth itself can be referred to as Geosphere.
Biota refers to animal and plant life or flora and fauna.
Hydrosphere refers to water on and under the surface of Earth.
Atmosphere refers to gases encircling the Earth.
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With regard to pharyngeal slits, match each of the following with the statement that it is associated with. Invertebrate chordates ✓ [Choose ] Suspension-feeding devices modified to become part of the gill apparatus for gas exchange Slits are closed off and the remaining tissues become part of the ears and head Vertebrates TETUUSC) Tetrapods [Choose ] Question 13 0.4 pts The [Select ] of the tunicate filters water while the holds its organs ✓ [Select ] coelom top portio
Pharyngeal slits are a third chordate feature; these are openings between the pharynx, or throat, and the outside.
Deuterostomes have filter-feeding structures called pharyngeal slits. Repeated holes known as pharyngeal slits can be found along the pharynx caudal to the mouth. They let water to flow out of the pharyngeal slits and into the mouth by holding themselves in this position. According to one theory, pharyngeal slits helped aquatic chordates breathe by first assisting with filter-feeding and then, when gills were added to their walls, helping with respiration. Similar developmental principles govern these repetitive segments. Some hemichordate species have gill slit counts of up to 200. During the early developmental phases of tetrapod growth, pharyngeal clefts that resemble gill slits are momentarily present. Ernst Haeckel famously proposed that the growing human embryo's neck had pharyngeal arches and clefts.
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tubular re-absorption occurs from the nephron tubules into the . a. peritubular capillaries b. nephron loop c. renal corpuscle d. renal pyramid
Tubular reabsorption occurs from the nephron tubules into the peritubular capillaries.
The procedure that removes solutes and water from the filtrate and reincorporates them into your circulation is known as tubular reabsorption. Reabsorption describes the fact that they have already been absorbed once, when they originally entered the bloodstream from the digestive tract after a meal. Along with reabsorbing the substances you require, your nephrons have the ability to release undesirable substances from your bloodstream into the filtrate. The glomerular filtrate is transformed into urine by a combination of several processes.There are two stages to resorption Prior to entering the tubule, water and other dissolved materials must first move passively or actively from the fluid inside the tubule through the tubule's wall.
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what amino acid sequence does the following dna nucleotide sequence specify? 3′−tacagaacggta−5′ express the sequence of amino acids using the three-letter abbreviations, separated by hyphens (e.g., met-ser-his-lys-gly).
The amino acid sequence for the following DNA sequence is Met-Ser-Cys-His.
The process of converting the genetic information contained in the DNA into messenger RNA is known as transcription (mRNA).
DNA's sense strand, which runs from 5' to 3' and conveys information, and an antisense strand, which runs from 3' to 5' and acts as a template.
E.g.: Antisense strand 3′−TACAGAACGGTA−5′
mRNA sequence 5’−ATGTCTTGCCAT−3’
The process of converting the information carried by an mRNA into an amino acid sequence is known as translation.
The term "codon" refers to the sequence of three nucleotides that make up the genetic code.
For instance, the start codon "ATG" codes for the amino acid methionine.
Here, mRNA sequence 5’−ATGTCTTGCCAT−3’
Amino acid sequence: Met-Ser-Cys-His
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all the influenza viruses shown in the phylogenetic tree are thought to have arisen in one group of host animals. which group of animals do you think is the original source of the virus, and why?
The group of host animals in which all influenza viruses arose are birds. All viruses isolated in different groups of animals (e.g. pigs, horses, etc) had all their origin in birds (as indicated by the blue lineages).
All influenza viruses originated in the group of host animals known as birds. All viruses discovered in various animal species (such as pigs, horses, etc.) originated in birds (as indicated by the blue lineages).
Flu virus proteins are probably present in the nucleus, host cell membrane, and cytoplasm during an influenza virus infection. The genome type of an animal virus mostly determines the type of life cycle it has. A prophage can be formed by a lambda phage; a retrovirus would be a similar animal virus type. Some hosts manufacture interferons to protect themselves from animal viruses.
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How would you expect the rate of speciation of an allopatric case to compare to the rate of speciation of a sympatric case involving formation of allopolyploid offspring?.
The rate of speciation of an allopatric case would occur at a much slower rate than the sympatric case involving formation of allopolyploid offspring.
Groups from an ancestral population evolve into separate species due to a period of geographical separation in allopatric speciation. The evolution of a new species from a surviving ancestral species and both continue to inhabit the same geographic region in sympatric speciation. An individual having two or more complete sets of chromosomes derived from different species is said to be allopolyploid. The speed or pace of the emergence of new species is slow in allopatric speciation compared to sympatric speciation involving allopolyploid offspring.
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how woudl blocking the structures of teh conducting zone of the respiratory tract impair ventilation
The Structures that are blocked in the respiratory zone, where gas exchange occurs, have an immediate impact.
What is respiratory?
breathing is the process of inhaling and exhaling air. Biology. the entire physical and chemical processes that deliver oxygen to tissues and cells and release carbon dioxide and water during oxidation.
What is conducting zone?
Since they function as airways into and out of the lungs, the conducting zone includes the nasal cavity, pharynx, trachea, bronchi, and the majority of bronchioles
By blocking the structures in the conducting zone, air delivery to and from the structures where gas exchange occurs would not be possible. Structures that are blocked in the respiratory zone, where gas exchange occurs, have an immediate impact.
Therefore, Structures that are blocked in the respiratory zone, where gas exchange occurs, have an immediate impact.
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Suppose a female fruit fly carries a mutation in her nanos gene that prevents expression of the nanos protein in any eggs she produces. Which effect is likely to be observed?.
Her eggs create fruit fly embryos with two heads, one of which is on a gene that blocks the expression of the nanos protein in any subsequent eggs she produces.
Which circumstances would cause developing ducks to lose their webbing?Webbing is lost as a result of apoptosis. Duck embryos that have been experimentally implanted with mutant BMP4 have non-webbed feet. Both the growth of a single organism and the evolution of species distinctions are governed by the actions of genes under the direction of genetic switches.
Which role do gap genes play in Drosophila?In Drosophila melanogaster and other insects, the gap gene system regulates the initial steps of the segmentation pathway. This system plays a crucial part in embryo patterning due to its tractability and has been the area of interest for both experimentalists and computational modelers.
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which of the following would reduce the glomerular filtration rate a. vasodilation of the afferent arteirole b. vasocontriction of the afferent arteirole c. a drop in oncotic pressure d. an increase in osmotic pressure in the glomerular capsule e. vasocontriction of the efferent arteirole
vasocontriction of the afferent arteirole reduce the glomerular filtration rate .
The kidney's glomerulus filters blood at a specific rate. The glomerular filtration rate is the name given to this rate.If there is a slight variation in the daily blood pressure, the glomerular filtration rate often does not alter. This slight shift is precisely controlled by our body.However, if there is a significant fall in blood pressure as a result of blood loss. In such cases, the afferent arteriole's vasoconstriction (contraction) is stimulated by the neurological system, which reduces blood flow to the glomerulus.This will lower the rate of glomerular filtration, which will ultimately result in less urine being produced.
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what is feedback inhibition? how enzymes catalyzing the irreversible reactions in glycolysis and krebs cycle are regulated by amp:atp ratio?
A feedback inhibitor chemical that binds to an enzyme and inhibits its activity is known as an enzyme inhibitor. By increasing the Km for fructose-6-phosphate, ATP blocks the phosphofructokinase process. The reaction is triggered by AMP. Thus, glycolysis starts when energy is needed. The reaction slows down when energy is in abundance.
What is glycolysis?
The metabolic process that changes glucose into pyruvate is known as glycolysis. The high-energy molecules adenosine triphosphate and reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide are created using the free energy released during this process. A series of ten enzyme-catalyzed processes make up glycolysis.
Hence, the answer is feedback inhibitor chemical that binds to an enzyme and inhibits its activity is known as an enzyme inhibitor. By increasing the Km for fructose-6-phosphate, ATP blocks the phosphofructokinase process. The reaction is triggered by AMP. Thus, glycolysis starts when energy is needed. The reaction slows down when energy is in abundance.
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during a single crossover event, how many strands of dna must break? (recall that dna is double-stranded.)during a single crossover event, how many strands of dna must break? (recall that dna is double-stranded.)eight strandsone strandtwo strandsfour strands
during a single crossover event, four strands of DNA must break.
The genetic material in humans and virtually all other species is called DNA, or deoxyribonucleic acid. A person's body has almost identical DNA in every cell. The trading chart's crossover occurs at the intersection of a security's price and a technical indicator line, or when two indicators cross. A financial instrument's performance is estimated using crossover, which are also used to foretell future shifts in trend, such breakouts or reversals.
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When a stem cell divides, it produces two daughter cells. One daughter cell will remain a stem cell, while the other daughter cell will differentiate into a specialized cell. Which factor will most directly determine what type of specialized cell will be produced?.
The factor that will most directly determine what type of specialized cell will be produced is the genes that are expressed.
Stem cells are the raw materials of the body, the cells that give rise to all other cells with specialized functions. Under the right conditions, stem cells divide to form more cells known as daughter cells in the body or in a laboratory.
Embryonic stem cells are pluripotent stem cells derived from the inner cell mass of a blastocyst, a pre-implantation embryo in its early stages. Human embryos reach the blastocyst stage 4-5 days after fertilization, consisting of 50-150 cells.
Adult body tissues and embryos are the two main sources of stem cells. Scientists are also experimenting with genetic "reprogramming" techniques to create stem cells from other cells.
Stem cell differentiation is the process by which a cell transforms from a proliferation to a more specialized cell type. This is accomplished through a series of changes in cell morphology, membrane potential, metabolic activity, and signal responsiveness.
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describe three cranial features that differentiate the robust australopithecines from gracile australopithecines.
Greater prognathism, less flaring cheekbones, and smaller cheek teeth are characteristics of gracile australopithecines. Strong australopithecines had brow ridges that protruded outward.
What distinguishes gracile australopithecines from robust ones?The three cranial characteristics shown in the image below distinguish the robust australopithecines from the gracile australopithecines. The main difference between gracile and robust species is that while robust species had large cheek teeth, strong jaws, and powerful jaw muscles, sometimes anchored to a bony crest running along the top of the skull, gracile species had smaller cheek teeth, pronounced prognathism, less flared cheeks, and no sagittal crest.
What sets robust australopithecines apart from other species of the genus?Although some researchers continue to classify the robust species as Australopithecus, they are frequently assigned to the genus Paranthropus. They typically have larger jaws.
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While states have been relatively effective in stopping ______, they have been less successful at stopping ______.
While states have been relatively effective in stopping The depletion of the ozone layer they have been less successful at stopping Global climate change.
Countries all across the globe decided to stop using ozone-diminishing compounds in order to protect the ozone layer from depleting.
The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer in 1985 and the Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer in 1987 formalized this accord.
Ozone shields the Earth from the Sun's damaging ultraviolet (UV) radiation. Life on Earth would be extremely difficult without the Ozone layer in the atmosphere.
Plants and planktons, which provide sustenance for the majority of ocean life, cannot survive and thrive in high UV exposure.
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