What did the results of photoelectric-effect experiments establish?

Answer:

The velocity is  [tex]v_h = 19.2 \ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The speed of the roller coaster at ground level  is [tex]v = 26 \ m/s[/tex]

Generally we can define the roller coaster speed at ground level using the an equation of motion as

     [tex]v^2 = u^2 + 2 g s[/tex]

 u is  zero given that the roller coaster started from rest

      So

            [tex]26^2 = 0 + 2 * g * s[/tex]

So  

           [tex]s = \frac{26^2}{ 2 * g }[/tex]

=>       [tex]s = 37.6 \ m[/tex]

Now the displacement half way is mathematically represented as

    [tex]s_{h} = \frac{37.6}{2}[/tex]

     [tex]s_{h} = 18.8 \ m[/tex]

So

      [tex]v_h ^2 = u^2 + 2 * g * s_h[/tex]

Where  [tex]v_h[/tex] is the velocity at the half way point

=>  [tex]v_h = \sqrt{ 0 + 2 * 9.8 * 18.8 }[/tex]

=>   [tex]v_h = 19.2 \ m/s[/tex]

Answer:

Current, I = 1.23 A

Explanation:

Given that,

Inductance, L = 35 mH

Resistance, R = 12 ohms

Potential difference, V = 18 V

We need to find current 5 ms after the switch is closed. Current in LR circuit is given by :

[tex]I=I_o(1-e^{-t/\tau })[/tex] ....(1)

Here,

[tex]I_o[/tex] is final current

[tex]I_o=\dfrac{V}{R}\\\\I_o=\dfrac{18}{12}=1.5\ A[/tex]

[tex]\tau[/tex] is time constant

[tex]\tau=\dfrac{L}{R}\\\\\tau=\dfrac{35\times 10^{-3}}{12}\\\\\tau=0.00291\ s[/tex]

So, equation (1) becomes :

[tex]I=1.5\times (1-e^{-5\times 10^{-3}/0.00291})\\\\I=1.23\ A[/tex]

So, after 5 ms the current in the circuit is 1.23 A.

Answer:

C. inertia

Explanation:

inertia describes an object’s resistance to change in motion (or to get in motion due to a lack of motion), and momentum describes how much motion it has.

both are connected, as inertia depends on the object's momentum, but the answer here is inertia.

Answer:

Explanation:

The moon gets the light from the sun. When the moon lies between the sun and the earth, only the back portion of the moon gets the light from the sun. So the side facing the sun does not get any light and appears to be dark or does not appear at all.

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Answer:

The moon is between the sun, and Earth and reflects light back towards the sun.

Explanation:

A P E X test answer. Just took the test and this is the correct answer.

Answer:

2.2 ft

Explanation:

0.65 lb / 1 ft = 1.4 lb / x

x ≈ 2.2 ft

Answer:

352 seconds are needed for the radioisotope to decay to one-sixteenth of its original mass.

Explanation:

The decay of radioisotopes are represented by the following ordinary differential equation:

[tex]\frac{dm}{dt} = -\frac{t}{\tau}[/tex]

Where:

[tex]t[/tex] - Time, measured in seconds.

[tex]\tau[/tex] - Time constant, measured in seconds.

[tex]m[/tex] - Mass of the radioisotope, measured in grams.

The solution of this expression is:

[tex]m(t) = m_{o}\cdot e^{-\frac{t}{\tau} }[/tex]

Where [tex]m_{o}[/tex] is the initial mass of the radioisotope, measured in kilograms.

The ratio of current mass to initial mass is:

[tex]\frac{m(t)}{m_{o}} = e^{-\frac{t}{\tau} }[/tex]

The time constant is now calculated in terms of half-life:

[tex]\tau = \frac{t_{1/2}}{\ln2}[/tex]

Where [tex]t_{1/2}[/tex] is the half-life of the radioisotope, measured in seconds.

Given that [tex]t_{1/2} = 88\,s[/tex], the time constant of the radioisotope is:

[tex]\tau = \frac{88\,s}{\ln 2}[/tex]

[tex]\tau \approx 126.957\,s[/tex]

Now, if [tex]\frac{m(t)}{m_{o}(t)} = \frac{1}{16}[/tex] and [tex]\tau \approx 126.957\,s[/tex], the time is:

[tex]t = -\tau \cdot \ln\frac{m(t)}{m_{o}}[/tex]

[tex]t = -(126.957\,s)\cdot \ln \frac{1}{16}[/tex]

[tex]t \approx 352\,s[/tex]

352 seconds are needed for the radioisotope to decay to one-sixteenth of its original mass.

Answer:

63 cm

Explanation:

Mathematically;

The focal length of a double convex lens is given as;

1/f = (n-1)[1/R1 + 1/R2]

where n is the refractive index of the medium given as 1.52

R1 and R2 represents radius of curvature which are given as 60cm and 72cm respectively.

Plugging these values into the equation, we have:

1/f = (1.52-1)[1/60 + 1/72)

1/f = 0.0158

f = 1/0.0158

f = 63.29cm which is approximately 63cm

Answer:

1.8/0.61 =2.95 ft

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Tysm!

;)

Answer:

it is either constant or zero

Explanation:

Answer:

  λ= 5.4379 10⁻⁷ m = 543.79 nm

Explanation:

The phenomenon of diffraction is described by the expression for destructive diffraction is

           a sin θ = (m + 1/2) λ

           λ = a sin θ / (m + 1/2)

let's reduce the magnitudes to the SI system

           a = 15 um = 15 10⁻⁶ m

           m = 2

           θ = 5.2º

Let's calculate

          λ = 15 10⁻⁶ sin 5.2 / (2 +1/2)

         λ = 5.4379 10⁻⁷ m

Let's reduce to nm

          λ= 5.4379 10⁻⁷ m = 543.79 nm

Answer:

the final angular velocity of the particle is approximately 38.18  Rad/s

Explanation:

To start with, let's make sure that units of angle measure are the same, converting everything into radians:

[tex]4500^o\, \frac{\pi}{180^o}= 25\,\pi[/tex]

And now we can use the kinematic formulas for rotational motion:

[tex]\theta-\theta_0=\omega_0\,t+\frac{1}{2} \alpha\,t^2[/tex]

Therefore we can find the initial angular velocity [tex]\omega_0[/tex]  of the particle:

[tex]\theta-\theta_0=\omega_0\,t+\frac{1}{2} \alpha\,t^2\\25\,\pi=\omega_0\,(3)+\frac{1}{2} (8)\,(3)^2\\25\,\pi-36=\omega_0\,(3)\\\omega_0=\frac{25\,\pi-36}{3} \\\omega_0\approx 14.18\,\,\,rad/s[/tex]

and now we can estimate the final angular velocity using the kinematic equation for angular velocity;

[tex]\omega=\omega_0\,+\alpha\,t\\\omega=14.18+8\,(3)\\\omega=38.18\,\,\,rad/s[/tex]

Answer:

sinco

Explanation:

Answer:

The planet that is farther from the star must have a time period greater.

Explanation:

We can determine the ratio of the period's planet with the radius of the circular orbit in the star's equatorial plane:

[tex] T = 2\pi*\sqrt{\frac{r^{3}}{GM}} [/tex]     (1)

Where:

r: is the radius of the circular orbit of the planet and the star

T: is the period

G: is the gravitational constant

M: is the mass of the planet

From equation (1) we have:

[tex] T = 2\pi*\sqrt{\frac{r^{3}}{GM}} = k*r^{3/2} [/tex]   (2)          

Where k is a constant

From equation (2) we have that of the two planets, the planet that is farther from the star must have a time period greater.

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

8 possible combinations

Assuming R 1, R 2 and R 3 be three different Resistance

1- all three in series

2-all three in parallel

3- R 1 and R 2 in series and parallel with R 3

​

4-R 1 and R 3 in series and parallel with R 2

​

5-R 2 and R 3 in series and parallel with R 1

​

6- R 1 and R 2

in parallel and series with R 3

​

7-R 1 and R 3 in parallel and series with R 2

​

8-R 2 and R 3 in V with R 1

​

Polarized sunglasses creates filter of vertical openings for light. The light rays will reach the eyes of human vertically only.

The sun rays will not reach human eye directly which will create a shield for sun light burden on human eye.

Polarized sunglasses are best used for blocking and eliminating certain wavelengths of light.

Therefore the correct answer is option C. Polarizes Sunglasses are polarized and it filter out certain wavelengths of light.

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Answer:

C. mv to the right

Explanation:

momentum of thr particle=m1v1

momentum of the wall=m2v2

m1v1+ m2v2 =m1u1+ m2u2 since the wall doesn't move it's momentum is zero.

m1v1 =m1u1

therefore change in that occurs as result of the collision is C. mv to the right

The total change in momentum of the particle of mass m that collides elastically with a vertical rigid wall perpendicularly from the left with velocity v is 2mv to the left (option B).  

The total change in momentum is given by:

[tex] \Delta p = p_{f} - p_{i} [/tex]  

In the initial state, the particle is moving to the right until it collides with the rigid wall, so:

[tex] p_{i} = mv [/tex]

In the final state, the particle moves backward after the collision with the wall, so:

[tex] p_{f} = -mv [/tex]  

The minus sign is because it is moving in the negative x-direction (to the left)

Hence, the total change in momentum is:

[tex] \Delta p = -mv - mv = -2mv [/tex]

Therefore, the total change in momentum of the particle is 2mv to the left (option B).

Find more here:

I hope it helps you!

Answer:

81 N

7.1 m/s²

Explanation:

Draw a free body diagram of the sphere.  There are two forces:

Weight force mg pulling straight down,

and tension force T pulling up along the rope.

Sum of forces in the centripetal direction:

∑F = ma

T − mg sin 45° = m v² / r

T = m (g sin 45° + v² / r)

T = (7 kg) (10 m/s² sin 45° + (3 m/s)² / 2 m)

T = 81 N

Sum of forces in the tangential direction:

mg cos 45° = ma

a = g cos 45°

a = (10 m/s²) cos 45°

a = 7.1 m/s²

Answer:

[tex]B=2.74\times 10^{-10}\ T[/tex]

Explanation:

It is given that,

A planar electromagnetic wave is propagating in the +x direction.The electric field at a certain point is, E = 0.082 V/m

We need to find the magnetic vector of the wave at the point P at that instant.

The relation between electric field and magnetic field is given by :

[tex]c=\dfrac{E}{B}[/tex]

c is speed of light

B is magnetic field

[tex]B=\dfrac{E}{c}\\\\B=\dfrac{0.082}{3\times 10^8}\\\\B=2.74\times 10^{-10}\ T[/tex]

So, the magnetic vector at point P at that instant is [tex]2.74\times 10^{-10}\ T[/tex].

The magnetic vector of the wave at the point P at that instant is [tex]2.73 \times 10^{-10}T[/tex]

The formula relating electric field and the magnetic field is given as;

[tex]c=\frac{E}{B}[/tex]

From the formula shown:

[tex]B=\frac{E}{c}\\B=\frac{0.082}{3.0\times 10^8}\\B=2.73 \times 10 ^{-10}T[/tex]

Hence the magnetic vector of the wave at the point P at that instant is [tex]2.73 \times 10^{-10}T[/tex]

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Answer:

1.The temperature of each sample will increase by the same amount

Explanation:

This is because, since their specific heat capacities are the same and we have the same mass of each substance, and the same amount of energy due to heat flow is supplied to both the glass and brick at room temperature, their temperatures would thereby increase by the same amount.

This is shown by the calculation below

Q = mcΔT

ΔT = Q/mc where ΔT = temperature change, Q = amount of heat, m = mass of substance and c = specific heat capacity of substance.

Since Q, m and c are the same for both substances, thus ΔT will be the same.

So, the temperature of each sample will increase by the same amount

Answer:

T = 3.14 hours

Explanation:

We need to find the orbital period (in hours) of an observation satellite in a circular orbit 1,787 km above Mars.

We know that the radius of Mars is 3,389.5 km.

So, r = 1,787 + 3,389.5 = 5176.5 km

Using Kepler's law,

[tex]T^2=\dfrac{4\pi ^2}{GM}r^3[/tex]

M is mass of Mars, [tex]M=6.39\times 10^{23}\ kg[/tex]

So,

[tex]T^2=\dfrac{4\pi ^2}{6.67\times 10^{-11}\times 6.39\times 10^{23}}\times (5176.5 \times 10^3)^3\\\\T=\sqrt{\dfrac{4\pi^{2}}{6.67\times10^{-11}\times6.39\times10^{23}}\times(5176.5\times10^{3})^{3}}\\\\T=11334.98\ s[/tex]

or

T = 3.14 hours

So, the orbital period is 3.14 hours

Answer:

5 years old 7 months and 21 days

Explanation:

Answer:

lina marcela medina de jurado

Answer:

b) True. potencial diferencie does not depend on orientation

Explanation:

In this exercise we are asked to show which statements are true.

The expression the potential with respect to earth or the electric field with respect to earth refers to the potential or electric charge of the planet that is assumed to be very large and does not change in value during work.

It does not refer to the height of the system.

We can now review the claims

a) False. Potential not to be refers to height

b) True. Does not depend on orientation

c) False The potential does not refer to the altitude but to the Earth's charge

Answer:

The additional load is 20g

Answer:

We apply force to move the brick.

Explanation:

Let me first of define a force .

A force is something applied to an object or thing to change it's internal or external state.

Now if a brick is resting on smooth wood inclined at 30° to the horizontal for us to overcome the friction which is also a force we have to apply a force greater than the gravity force acting on the body and then depending on the direction of the applied force the angle to apply it also.

Answer:

IMA is always larger than the AMA

Explanation:

IMA is Ideal Mechanical Advantage and it equals the length of effort that is divided by the length of resistance which is given by the formula

IMA= Fr/Fe

Where Fr is the resistance force

Fe is the effort force.

IM= de/dr

Where de is the distance of the applied effort  

dr is the distance traveled by the load.

In any real machine, the effort is needed to overcome friction and because of this, the ideal mechanical advantage(IMA) is always larger than the actual mechanical advantage (AMA)

Answer:

Explanation:

Bohr's atomic model was replaced by the  modern atomic model because of its limitations, which included :

(a) Only applicable for Hydrogen and like atoms ( He+1, Li+2 )

(b) Couldn't explain Zeeman Effect (splitting of spectral lines due external magnetic field ) and Stark Effect (splitting of spectral lines due to external electric field).

(c) Inconsistent with De-Broglie's Dual nature of matter and Heisenberg Uncertainty principal, etc.

Answer:

λmax = 372 nm

Explanation:

First we find the energy of photon:

E = hc/λ

where,

E = Energy of Photon = ?

λ = Wavelength of Light = 233 nm = 2.33 x 10⁻⁷ m

c = speed of light = 3 x 10⁸ m/s

h = Planks Constant = 6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J.s

Therefore,

E = (6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J.s)(3 x 10⁸ m/s)/(2.33 x 10⁻⁷ m)

E = 8.5 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

Now, from Einstein's Photoelectric Equation:

E = Work Function + Kinetic Energy

8.5 x 10⁻¹⁹ J = Work Function + (1.98 eV)(1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹ J/1 eV)

Work Function = 8.5 x 10⁻¹⁹ J - 3.168 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

Work Function = 5.332 x 10⁻¹⁹ J

Since, work function is the minimum amount of energy required to emit electron. Therefore:

Work Function = hc/λmax

λmax = hc/Work Function

where,

λmax = maximum wavelength of light that will produce photoelectrons = ?

Therefore,

λmax = (6.626 x 10⁻³⁴ J.s)(3 x 10⁸ m/s)/(5.332 x 10⁻¹⁹ J)

λmax = 3.72 x 10⁻⁷ m

λmax = 372 nm

Answer:

Explanation:

The moment of inertia of the disk I  = 1/2 m R² where R is radius of the disc and m is its mass .

putting the values

I = .5 x 95 x .38²

= 6.86 kg m²

n = 87 rpm = 87 / 60 rps

n = 1.45 rps

angular velocity ω = 2π n , n is frequency of rotation .

= 2 x 3.14 x 1.45

= 9.106 radian /s

frictional force = 16 x .2

= 3.2 N

torque created by frictional force = 3.2 x .38

= 1.216 N.m

angular acceleration = torque / moment of inertia

= - 3.2 / 6.86

α  = - 0.4665 rad /s²

b ) ω² = ω₀² +  2 α θ , where α is angular acceleration

0 = 9.106² - 2 x .4665 θ

θ = 88.87 radian

no of turns = 88.87 / 2π

= 14.15  turns

Answer:

Lever => [tex]d_{e} = d_{r}[/tex]

Pulley => G = M x n (gravitational acceleration)

Wheel and axle => M.A = Radius of the wheel/radius of the axle = R/r

Inclined plane => It can be divided into two components: Fi = Fg * sinθ - parallel to inclined plane. Fn = Fg * cosθ - perpendicular one.

Answer:

cognitive behavioral therapy

Explanation: