Answer:
The most common types of hernia are inguinal (inner groin), incisional (resulting from an incision), femoral (outer groin), umbilical (belly button), and hiatal (upper stomach). In an inguinal hernia, the intestine or the bladder protrudes through the abdominal wall or into the inguinal canal in the groin.
Explanation:
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1. Asthma is a restrictive lung disorder that causes constriction and congestion of the pulmonary bronchioles. How would an asthma attack affect FVC
Answer:
by hyperinflation of lungs
Explanation:
Asthma is a disease of the lungs caused by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, thereby difficulting breath. Severe asthma disorders are associated with a significant decrease in the rate of maximal expiratory airflow and the reduction in the total volume expired, which is a value known as Forced Vital Capacity (FVC). In consequence, severe asthma events are correlated with the hyperinflation of the lungs and thus be a possible cause for the observed reduction in the FVC.
OTC medications are approved by the FDA to be a) prescribed by a nurse. O b) administered only by a physician. Oc) safely sold directly to consumers. O d) administered only under healthcare provider supervision.
Where was the first recognized firefighting force, known as the Familia Publica, organized?
Rome
London
New York
Philadelphia
Answer:Who were the Familia Publica? The first recognized firefighting force organized in ancient Rome.
Explanation:
Traditionally, the term _______ was applied to a vehicle with no permanent roof covering or side windows, but today that name is most often used to describe any convertible sports car.
Group of answer choices
Convertible
Coupe
Roadster
Sedan
A patient who is prescribed a dose inhaler will find that it must be filled with a) medicine in powder form only. Works with lower (not upper) respiratory diseases only. Full of medicine used to give a fixed amount of medicine per oral inhalation. d) Medication in the form of a spray only.
Một bệnh nhân nhi bị sốt không rõ nguyên nhân chúng ta dùng thuốc hạ sốt là aspirin được không và giải thích?
For a particular disease at a specific time period, morbidity rates should always be equal or greater than mortality rate.
a. true
b. false
Answer:
A. True
Explanation:
Morbidity involves the condition of having a disease while mortality is the condition of being deceased(dead).
For a particular disease at a specific time period, morbidity rates should always be equal or greater than mortality rate. This will ensure all the species affected by the disease aren’t wiped out in an instant as every organisms have different roles to play in the ecosystem.
Kevin has a BMI of 28.5. How many calories should he eliminate from his diet every day to achieve weight loss? a. 600 calories b. 400 calories c. 100 calories d. 200 calories e. 300 calories
Answer:
A
Explanation:
A BMI of 28.5 for a male shows that he is overweight. Cutting down calories significantly can promote weight loss by 1-2 pounds each week.
Kevin has a BMI of 28.5.600 calories should he eliminate from his diet every day to achieve weight loss.
What is BMI ?Body mass index (BMI) can be define as the calculation that is used in healthcare settings which is an indirect method to determine a person's body weight category.
BMI is a measurement can take the data of height, and weight to produce a calculation and this calculation determine the relationship between weight and height.
The reason BMI is used for the correlation between being overweight and having certain health problems, Coronary heart disease, Hypertension, Osteoarthritis, Sleep apnea and respiratory problems
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6x(8x-3)-2x(24x-6)=36
Answer:
x = -6
Explanation:
[tex]6x(8x - 3) - 2x(24x - 6) = 36[/tex]
➡️ [tex]48 {x}^{2} - 18x - 48 {x}^{2} + 12x = 36[/tex]
➡️ [tex] - 6x = 36[/tex]
➡️ [tex]x = - 6[/tex] ✅
What is one of the most effective strategies to increase vaccination rates?
Answer:
Interventions to increase vaccination rates
Five Effective Strategies for Increasing Immunization Rates
Provide a Clear Recommendation
Adopt an Encouraging, Positive Approach with Questioning Patients
Be Proactive in Making Appointments
Set Reminders for Vaccination Reviews
Get More Practice Members Involved.
Explanation:
Using AMD technology, CDC scientists can find shifts in the DNA of circulating bacteria and viruses that help them evade vaccines. Through this work, we can develop more effective vaccines that shift with the changing microbes.
2. Most office supplies are purchased through a
O mediator.
O seller.
O vendor.
O retailer.
Answer:
retailer.
Explanation:
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An ibuprofen suspension contains 100 milligrams of ibuprofen in 5 milliliters of suspension. How many milligrams of ibuprofen are in 1 tablespoon of suspension?
Answer:
5 ml of oral suspension contains 100 mg of ibuprofen.
5 ml of oral suspension contains 2 g of maltitol liquid.
5 ml of oral suspension contains 7.370 mg of sodium.
Explanation:
im sorry i tried my best t figure it out and this is the best i could come up with, hope this helps
Basophils are O granules a) involved in the process of making hemoglobin. b) involved in the allergic process. Q) that resist infection by microorganisms. D) It fights infection with parasites.
Hi,
Basophils are granulocytes:
b) involved in the process of allergic reactions.
If cancer runs in your family, what will your doctor likely do?
Answer:
Your doctor will most likely treat your family.
Explanation:
Provide one example of how stress can affect our health.
Answer:
it can lead to headache and high blood pressure
A nurse wants to become part of a Disaster Medical Assistance Team (DMAT) but is concerned about maintaining licensure in several different states. What statement by the nursing supervisor best addresses these concerns?
Answer: a. "Deployed DMAT providers are federal employees, so their licenses are good in all 50 states."
Explanation:
Disaster Medical Assistance Teams are teams consisting of professionals and para-professionals in the medical profession who are called upon during matters of National Emergency when medical personnel are needed to respond rapidly to save lives. They therefore deal with events such as terrorist attacks, natural or man-made disasters, disease outbreaks and the like.
They fall under the National Disaster Medical System which operates at a Federal level. As such, DMAT teams are by extension, Federal employees who are licensed to provide help in every state of the Republic so the nurse does not to be concerned about maintaining licensure in several different states.
For how long should most adults in moderately good physical condition and with healthy lungs be able to hold their breath
Answer:
30 seconds and up to 2 minutes
Explanation:
Most adults should be able to hold their breath for between 30 and 1 minute if they are in relatively excellent physical condition and have healthy lungs. However, this can change depending on things like age, fitness level and general health.
What is Health?The concept of health is comprehensive and includes a state of mind, body and social relations of an individual. Physical fitness is the state of a person's body and their ability to engage in physical activity without experiencing excessive fatigue or physical restrictions. Regular exercise, proper diet, getting enough sleep and avoiding bad habits like smoking and excessive drinking are all necessary to maintain excellent physical health.
Maintaining healthy lungs is important for maintaining physical health in terms of lung health. The lungs are affected by many variables including smoking, air pollution and respiratory diseases. They are in charge of supplying oxygen to the body and eliminating carbon dioxide. Regular exercise can help increase lung capacity and function.
Therefore, most adults should be able to hold their breath for between 30 and 1 minute if they are in relatively excellent physical condition and have healthy lungs.
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Which of the following statements comparing elite sprinters to average sprinters is correct? Elite sprinters...
Question 6 options:
reposition the legs during flight only slightly faster than average sprinters
hit the ground harder than average sprinters
apply GRF faster than average sprinters
All of the above are correct
Answer:
reposition the legs during flight only slightly faster than average sprinters
Explanation:
The main difference between elite sprinters and average sprinters is the ability of elite sprinters to make longer, more impactful strides. This allows them to have a greater boost.
This boost is a result of the muscle fibers in your legs, which allow them to make strides that have little contact with the ground, but propel them forward faster than average sprinters. In short, elite sprinters are able to reposition their legs during flight just a little faster than the average sprinter.
Carafate 1 g p.o.
Identify the component missing in the order.
Answer: Frequency
Explanation:
Without frequency ex once daily; every 4 hrs, etc. You don't know when to give the med
38. A pregnant client experiences persistent severe headaches and unexplained spells of dizziness during training, what should the trainer do?
Answer:
The coach should immediately stop physical activity and then take your blood pressure.
Explanation:
Many pregnant women tend to suffer from preclampcia, which is high blood pressure during pregnancy, which is very careful since it is risky for the mother and the baby.
High blood pressure in pregnant women can cause detachments of the placenta, interruption of pregnancy or spontaneous abortion.
It is very risky not to perceive these signs or said pathology, those pregnant women who are diagnosed with high blood pressure should do strict rest and monitoring.
Pregnant women bear the weight and physiological conditions of the baby and child. The trainer should immediately halt the training and check for the vitals of the women.
The trainer should do the following:
1. The trainer should immediately stop the training if the woman is experiencing dizziness and persistent severe headaches.
2. The symptoms could indicate the cause of preeclampsia, which is one of the most common complications of pregnancy. It has symptoms of high blood pressure, damage to the organ systems, and dizziness.
3. The trainer should immediately check for the vitals and measure the blood pressure of the pregnant women. The trainer should immediately contact the medical physician for monitoring and checking of the pregnant women.
Thus, the trainer should stop exercising and check the blood pressure.
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Both the sypathetic and the parasymphathetic nerves are strongly influenced by emotion. True or false
Answer:
Both the sypathetic and the parasymphathetic nerves are strongly influenced by emotion (true)
How are glands classified
. Mr. Sanchez comes to the desk to check out after seeing the provider. When Laura tells him that his bill is $95, he complains that he only saw the provider for 10 minutes. The fee is in accordance with evaluation and management guidelines. Explain the fees to Mr. Sanchez.
What Mr. Sanchez must understand is that the fee is not a variable rate depending on the minutes that the consultation lasts, but on the contrary it is a fixed rate, that is:
an immutable value that responds to the use of the medical service that does not respond to the duration of it.In this way, nothing else matters than the result of the service, that is, the evacuation of the medical consultation. Thus, if this was done in 5, 10 or 60 minutes, only the result of it will be considered when establishing the rate.
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When evaluating research, what factors should be considered? Why are these factors important? Provide some examples to illustrate the importance of each factor.
Answer:
l
Explanation:
which of the following is typically most important to the adolescent when being examined
everything that apply
Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke
Answer: Embolic stroke
Explanation:
Embolic stroke is a form of stroke thqt occurs when a debris or a blood clot travels from one body part and then stays in the narrower brain artery, thereby blocking the flow of blood into the brain.
It should be noted that Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for embolic stroke.
Answer:
Embolic
Explanation:
They all potentiate the possibility of a blood clot to form
Being 65 or older, being under 65 years of age with certain disabilities for more than 24 months, and being any age with ESRD or ALS are each eligibility requirements for which program?
Answer:
Original Medicare
Explanation:
Body weight, body fat, inflammatory proteins, and blood pressure drop when people cut back on their usual energy intake by ____ percent.
Answer:
10-20%
Explanation:
Body weight, body fat, inflammatory proteins, and blood pressure drop when people cut back on their usual energy intake by 10 to 20 percent.
This is because excess energy intake results to them being stored in the body for future purposes. They are usually stored as fats which clogs the arteries and results in the heart using more pressure in pumping blood to parts of the body.
which medicine we drink oreat
1. fevadol
2. adol
1.) Fevadol is the medicine we drink or eat
The patients states that she had a heart attack 2 years ago What medical term would you document in her PMHx? HINT: expand the abbreviation !
Answer:
(MI) Myocardial Infarction
Explanation:
Myocardial infarction (MI, heart attack) is produced when the velocity of blood flow decreases in the heart, which can lead to injury of the heart muscle. The symptoms of a heart attack include pressure, tightness or pain in the chest, shortness of breath, anxiety, nausea and vomiting. MI can be prevented by healthy life habits such as plenty of sleep, healthy food habits, and regular exercise. A heart attack should be treated immediately by angioplasty, which is a medical procedure to unblock the arteries that transport blood to the heart.