What are the measures of ∠a, ∠b, and ∠c?

Answer:

See explanation

Step-by-step explanation:

3(x + 4) + 2 = 2 + 5(x – 4)

Step 1: distributive property

3(x + 4) + 2 = 2 + 5(x – 4)

3x + 12 + 2 = 2 + 5x - 20

Step 2: collect like terms

3x + 12 + 2 = 2 + 5x - 20

3x + 14 = 5x - 18

Step 3: Addition property of equality

3x + 14 = 5x - 18

3x + 14 + 18 = 5x - 18 + 18

3x + 32 = 5x

Step 4: subtraction property of equality

3x + 32 - 3x = 5x - 3x

32 = 2x

Step 5: division property of equality

32 = 2x

32/2 = 2x/2

16 = x

x = 16

Answer:

[tex]a) \: 421 {mm}^{2} \: = 0.000421 {m}^{2} [/tex]

[tex]b) \: 9.3 {kg}^{2} \: = 9,300,000 {g}^{2} [/tex]

[tex]c) \: 25 {kl}^{2} \: = \: 25,000,000 {g}^{2} [/tex]

[tex]d) \: 1439 {m}^{2} = 0.001439 {k m}^{2} [/tex]

Answer:

172p

Step-by-step explanation:

because of the offer for 3 chocelate for the price of 2 and because shes getting 3 she only has to pay for 2. so u do the the price of 1 (86p) times 2 (chocolate bars) and u will get 172p s your answer

The cost of three chocolate bars from the shop is 258 pounds.

The unitary method is a technique for solving a problem by first finding the value of a single unit, and then finding the necessary value by multiplying the single unit value.

Given that, a shop has a 3 for 2 offer on chocolate bars. The normal price of a chocolate bar is 86 pounds.

Sian gets 3 chocolate bars from the shop using this offer.

Here, 86×3

= 258 pounds

Therefore, the cost of three chocolate bars from the shop is 258 pounds.

To learn more about the unitary method visit:

brainly.com/question/22056199.

#SPJ2

I will draw a rough figure, you can draw it neatly.

Probability =

Probability = No. of favourable outcomes/ Total no. of outcomes

Probability = No. of favourable outcomes/ Total no. of outcomesTotal number of outcomes = 4

So, here:

P(2) = 2/4 = 1/2

P(1) = 1/4

P(3) = 1/4

P(4) = 0

Here, the probability of getting 2 is ½.

Probability of getting 1 is ¼.

Probability of getting 3 is ¼.

Probability of getting 4 is 0.

the answer is 3/4 or c.

Step-by-step explanation:

to find tan A you would use the equation of tan which is the value opposite the angle A which is 27 over the value adjacent to the angle which is 36.

Answer:

Opposite angles are equal, all add to 360:

10x-7=83

10x=90

X=9

Z = (360-(83*2))

Z = 97

Answer:

None of the above

Step-by-step explanation:

-4(3d - 2) – 7

Distribute

-12d +8 -7

-12d +1

Answer:

None of the above

Step-by-step explanation:

-4(3d - 2) - 7 = (-4)*3d - 2 *(-4) - 7

                    = -12d + 8 - 7

                    = -12d + 1

Answer:

The answer is 60cm. (b)

Step-by-step explanation:

For every 1.5cm on the map, it represents 3 ft on real-size scale.

In other words, for every 1cm on the map, it represents 3/1.5 = 2ft on real size scale.

If you want to find 120ft of real-size scale, you can use 120ft/2ft * 1cm which gives 60cm

Answer: 6:30 AM

Step-by-step-explaination: 1:50×6=9:00. Robert will travel for 9 hours. We multiplied 1:50 times 6 because he has traveled one-sixth of the way. Now, we subtract 9 hours from 3:30.

3:30

2:30 1st

1:30 2nd

12:30 3rd

11:30 4th

10:30 5th

9:30 6th

8:30 7th

7:30 8th

6:30am is the answer because it is the ninth one from 3:30.

Answer:

c

Step-by-step explanation:

There are two answers to the question...

Answer:

B and C

Answer:

148cm²

Step-by-step explanation:

With the first frontal face of the cuboid, you have length 6 cm whilst the height remains 5 cm.

Find the area of this face and multiply the result by 2, as there are two of these faces (front and back)

6 x 5 = 30 cm²

30 x 2 = 60cm²

Do the same with the top face and bottom face, adding this with the side faces

4 x 6 = 24cm²

24 x 2 = 48cm²

4 x 5 = 20cm² x 2 = 40 cm²

40 + 48 + 60 = 148 cm²

T.S.A = 148cm²

Answer:

14,400

Step-by-step explanation:

120 x 120 = 14,400

Answer: y = 2x - 13

Step-by-step explanation: Start with the formula y=mx+b. Remember that the slope of the parallel line, m, is the same. Now you have y = 2x + b. You can find b, the y intercept, knowing that the line passes through the point given: -1 = (2) * 6 + b. So now we see that b = -13.

Answer:

1/7

Report if wrong :)

Step-by-step explanation:

Also, I plead the 5th

Answer and Step-by-step explanation:

The probability of rolling a single 6-sided dice one time is 0% or 0/6.

This is because 7 is not a number/side on a 6-sided die.

If the single dice has 7 sides, then it would be 1/7 chance.

#teamtrees #PAW (Plant And Water)

Answer:

13.5

Step-by-step explanation:

6x - 9 = 72

6x - 9 + 9 = 72 + 9

6x = 81

6x / 6 = 81 / 6

x = 13.5

Answer:

73384 kilotons

Step-by-step explanation:

=> Total amount the 1st year = 90,000

=> Since after the 1st yr, there was a reduction of 4%, so 100% - 4% = 96% or 0.96

=> Total time = 6

We know that the formula of a geometric sequence is;

aₙ = a₁ * r⁽ⁿ⁻¹⁾

In which;

Therefore we can finally say;

=> aₙ = a₁ * r⁽ⁿ⁻¹⁾

=> a₆ = 90,000 * 0.96⁶⁻¹

=> a₆ = 90,000 * 0.96⁵

=> a₆ = 73383.54

=> a₆ = 73384 (Rounded to the nearest whole number)

Therefore, rounding the answer to the nearest whole number, the answer would be; 73384 kilotons

Hope this helps! (Btw big shout out to jcherry99 for helping me figure this out!!)

Answer:

y=2x-3

Step-by-step explanation:

first, you have to get the y by itself (isolate the y). you do this by subtracting 4x from both sides.

4x-2y=6

-2y=-4x+6

next, you have to divide both side by -2 to isolate the y further and get this into slope-intercept form:

-2y=-4x+6

y=2x-3

Answer:

sameeeeeeeee heheeeeeeeeeee

Step-by-step explanation:

27 km

Answer:

X. y

10. $7

24. $14

38. $ 21

Answer:hey

Step-by-step explanation: -_-

The total number of marbles in the box is 25, that is 9 green, 5 blue and 11 red. You wish to know t probability that the single chosen green or blue marble. There are a total of 14 green and blue marbles so the probability is 14/25 or 56%.

Answer:

50

Step-by-step explanation:

from the question that we have been given, we have to find out the next number after 36.

John's next number sequence will be 50. Every number after 8 can be gotten by adding 14. So when we add 14 to 36, we get the final answer, which is the next number in the sequence.

This can be seen below:

14 + 8 = 22

14 +22 =36

14 +36 =50

therefore the next sequence would be 50

Answer:

Ratio is 1:4 . 1 cup sugar and 4 cup flour.

1 : 4 is the ratio of sugar to flour.

A ratio exists as an ordered pair of numbers a and b, written a / b where b does not similar to 0. A proportion exists in an equation in which two ratios stand set equal to each other.

The demonstrated quotient of two mathematical expressions is called ratio.

cup of sugar = one
cup of flour = four

1 : 4 is the ratio of sugar to flour

To learn more about ratio refer to:

https://brainly.com/question/866028

#SPJ2

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

√(x2 - x1)² + (y2 - y1)²

√[-8 - (-2)]² + (3 - 3)²

√(-6)² + (0)²

√36

= 6

Answer:

Total Interest Paid $432,400.00

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

48 in. x 64 in. is the correct answer

Answer:

[D] ∞

General Formulas and Concepts:

Calculus

Limits

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: Define

Identify

[tex]\displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty} s(n)[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle s(n) = (\frac{5}{4n^4})(3n^5 + 3n^4 + 2n^3 + n^2)[/tex]

Step 2: Evaluate

Since the degree of the polynomial is greater in the numerator than in the denominator, the top will always increase faster than the bottom, thus getting infinitely larger.

Topic: AP Calculus AB/BC (Calculus I/I + II)

Unit: Limits

Book: College Calculus 10e

Answer:

x=45 degree

Step-by-step explanation:

tan X=1

X=[tex]tan^{-1}[/tex]1

X=45 degree

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

We can test this claim using the one proportion z test :

x = 25 ; n = 100

Phat = x / n = 25 / 100 = 0.25

H0 : P = 0.15

H0 : P > 0.15

The test statistic :

Z = (phat - p) ÷ √p(1-p)/n

Z = (0.25-0.15) ÷ √(0.15*0.85)/100

Z = 2.8

Using the Pvalue from Zscore calculator :

α = 0.05

Pvalue (Z < 2.8) =0.0026

Pvalue < α ; We reject the Null