What are the angle measurements of angles 1 &4 for #1 & measurements of angles 1-3 on #2?

Answer:

-2

Step-by-step explanation:

The slope of a line is

m = (y2-y1)/(x2-x1)

   = (-2 -4)/(-1 - -4)

   = -6/ ( -1 +4)

   = -6 /3

    =-2

Answer:

[tex]= - 2 \\ [/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]( - 4 \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: \: 4) = > (x1 \: \: \: \: \: \: y1) \\ ( - 1 \: \: \: \: - 2) = > (x2 \: \: \: \: \: \: y2)[/tex]

Now let's find the slope

[tex]slope = \frac{y1 - y2}{x1 - x2} \\ = \frac{4 - ( - 2)}{ - 4 - ( - 1)} \\ = \frac{4 + 2}{ - 4 + 1} \\ = \frac{6}{ - 3} \\ = - 2[/tex]

hope this helps you.

brainliest appreciated

good luck! have a nice day!

Answer:

Option (1)

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the length of arc YZ = 12 units

m∠YXZ = one third of the full circle = [tex]\frac{360}{3}[/tex] = 120°

From the formula of arc length,

Length of arc = [tex]\frac{\theta}{360}(2\pi r)[/tex]

Where θ = Central angle subtended by the arc

r = radius of the circle

By substituting these values in the formula,

12 = [tex]\frac{120}{360}(2\pi r)[/tex]

12 = [tex]\frac{2}{3}\pi r[/tex]

[tex]18=\pi r[/tex]

r = [tex]\frac{18}{\pi }[/tex]

r = 5.73

r ≈ 6 units

Therefore, Option (1) will be the answer.

Answer:

Hey there!

Elif can only arrange the chairs like: 4 by 7, and 7 by 4.

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

12

Step-by-step explanation:

( J , Q, K 4 each)

so prob that for 2 cards, both cards are face

= C(12,2)/C(52,2) = 66/1326 = 11/221

Answer:

b

Step-by-step explanation:

30/3x=10

Answer:

$15

Step-by-step explanation:

Each cup is 50 cents which is basically $0.50

Multiply $0.50 by 120= $60

Because you and your three friends equal 4 total people,

divide 60 by 4 to get your own profit:

60/4=15

Answer:

21564 ÷ 2 = 10782

40565 ÷ 5 = 8113

6365 ÷ 8 = 795.625

1436 ÷ 7 = 205.142857143

Step-by-step explanation:

The given sequences are;

2,7,12,17......

difference =5

by using formula,

we get,

tn=a+(n-1)d

tn= 2+(n-1)5

Therefore, tn is 5n-3 is required formula for this arithmetic sequences.

Hope it helps....

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve for x we use sine

sin ∅ = opposite / hypotenuse

From the question

38 is the hypotenuse

20 is the opposite

So we have

sin x = 20/38

sin x = 10/19

x = sin-¹ 10/19

x = 31.75

Hope this helps you

Answer:

[tex]\boxed{Option \ D}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

The combination of a rational number (3) and an irrational no. ([tex]4i[/tex]) is called a complex number.

So,

[tex]3+4i[/tex] is a complex no.

Answer:

D. Complex number.

Step-by-step explanation:

This number is not irrational, since 3 is rational.

The number is not entirely rational, since 4i is irrational.

The number is not real because i is not real.

So, the number is a Complex number, since it includes both real and nonreal numbers.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

C.) 60°

Step-by-step explanation:

The triangle is an equilateral triangle. So that means that all the angles measure the same. And we have to remember that a triangle always equals 180°

So, to find out the measure of an angle. We must divide 180 by 3. Which is 60

=60°

Hope this helps you out! : )

Answer:

Volume of the sphere= 113.112 cubic inch(Inch ³)

Step-by-step explanation:

First of all the formula for the volume of a sphere Is given as 4πr³

Already the radius r is already given as 3 inches

While π = 3.142

Volume of the sphere = 4/3πr³

Volume of the sphere = 4/3(3.142)(3)³

Volume of the sphere= 4/3(3.142)(27)

Volume of the sphere= 4/3(84.834)

Volume of the sphere= 339.336/3

Volume of the sphere= 113.112 Inch ³

Volume of the sphere= 113.112 cubic inch

Answer:

-3

Step-by-step explanation:

I'm not sure what the 0s are all about, but I can help with the equation;

To do this, we can do substitution. By equaling x-4 to 3x+2, we get

x-4=3x+2

By isolating the x, we get

-2x=6

x=-3

Hope this helped!

Answer:

4.9 hours = 4 hours 54 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

speed = distance/time

time * speed = distance

time = distance/speed

time = (284 miles)/(58 mph) = 4.9 hours

4.9 hours - 4 hours = 0.9 hours

0.9 hours * (60 minutes)/(1 hour) = 54 minutes

4.9 hours = 4 hours 54 minutes

Answer:

a. 0.48

b. 0.14

c. 0.47

Step-by-step explanation:

Data provided in the question

0 - 2        0.48

3 - 5        0.26

6 - 8        0.12

9- 11        0.09

12- 14       0.05

Based on the above information

a. The probability for fewer than three phobias is

= P( x < 3)

= 0.48

b.  The probability for more than eight phobias is

= P( x >8)

= 0.09 + 0.05  

= 0.14

c. Probability between 3 and 11 phobias is  

= P(3 < x < 11)

= 0.26 + 0.12  + 0.09

= 0.47

Answer:

b. not all the children can be above average

d. half the children must be below average

Step-by-step explanation:

In theory, all women could be strong and all men could be good looking, however, since the average is calculated based on the town children, it is not possible for all children to be above average.

Assuming a normal distribution, half the children must be at or below average, while the other half must be at or above the average.

Therefore, the correct answers are:

b. not all the children can be above average

d. half the children must be below average

Answer:

Second and last options are correct choices.

Step-by-step explanation:

If all the children are above average, then the average should not include the average of the children. Because it is impossible for a data set to be have values greater than it's average.

Best Regards!

Answer:

a) Check Explanation

b) Probability that 11 out of the 17 randomly selected flights are on time = P(X = 11) = 0.0680

c) Probability that fewer than 11 out of the 17 randomly selected flights are on time

= P(X < 11) = 0.0377

d) Probability that at least 11 out of the 17 randomly selected flights are on time

= P(X ≥ 11) = 0.9623

e) Probability that between 9 and 11 flights, inclusive, out of the randomly selected 17 are on time = P(9 ≤ X ≤ 11) = 0.1031

Step-by-step explanation:

a) How to know a binomial experiment

1) A binomial experiment is one in which the probability of success doesn't change with every run or number of trials. (Probability of each flight being on time is 80%)

2) It usually consists of a number of runs/trials with only two possible outcomes, a success or a failure. (It's either the flights are on time or not).

3) The outcome of each trial/run of a binomial experiment is independent of one another.

All true for this experiment.

b) Probability that exactly 11 flights are on time.

Let X be the random variable that represents the number of flights that are on time out of the randomly selected 17.

Binomial distribution function is represented by

P(X = x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ

n = total number of sample spaces = 17 randomly selected flights

x = Number of successes required = number of flights required to be on time

p = probability of success = Probability of a flight being on time = 80% = 0.80

q = probability of failure = Probability of a flight NOT being on time = 1 - p = 1 - 0.80 = 0.20

P(X = 11) = ¹⁷C₁₁ (0.80)¹¹ (0.20)¹⁷⁻¹¹ = 0.06803777953 = 0.0680

c) Probability that fewer than 11 flights are on time

This is also computed using binomial formula

It is the probability that the number of flights on time are less than 11

P(X < 11) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) + P(X = 4) + P(X = 5) + P(X = 6) + P(X = 7) + P(X = 8) + P(X = 9) + P(X = 10) = 0.0376634429 = 0.0377

d) Probability that at least 11 out of the 17 randomly selected flights are on time

This is the probability of the number of flights on time being 11 or more.

P(X ≥ 11) = P(X = 11) + P(X = 12) + P(X = 13) + P(X = 14) + P(X = 15) + P(X = 16) + P(X = 17)

= 1 - P(X < 11)

= 1 - 0.0376634429

= 0.9623365571 = 0.9623

e) Probability that between 9 and 11 flights, inclusive, are on time = P(9 ≤ X ≤ 11)

This is the probability that exactly 9, 10 or 11 flights are on time.

P(9 ≤ X ≤ 11) = P(X = 9) + P(X = 10) + P(X = 11)

= 0.0083528524 + 0.02672912767 + 0.06803777953

= 0.1031197592 = 0.1031

Hope this Helps!!!

Step-by-step explanation:

Q1. 1,075÷12.5 =8

So Therefore 1g of medicine cost 8 naira

Q2.645÷42=15.3

so therefore 1 hour cost 15.3 naira

The cost of 1g of medicine is 86 naira and the total pay for someone who works 42 hours  is 27090 naira.

A division is a process of splitting a specific amount into equal parts.

Given that 12.5g of medicine cost 1,075 naira.

We have to find the cost of 1g of medicine.

12.5g=1075 naira

1g=1075/12.5

1g=86 naira.

the total pay for someone who works 42 hours and gets 645 naira per hour

The cost for 42 hours

42×645

27090 naira

Hence,  the cost of 1g of medicine is 86 naira and the total pay for someone who works 42 hours  is 27090 naira.

To learn more on Division click:

https://brainly.com/question/21416852

#SPJ2

Answer:

Use a graphing calc or desmos

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

  m less-than-or-equal-to 28

Step-by-step explanation:

Xander's charge for m miles will be (3 +1.50m). He wants this to be no more than $45, so ...

  3 +1.50m ≤ 45

  1.50m ≤ 42 . . . . . . subtract 3

  m ≤ 28 . . . . . . . . . .divide by 1.5

Answer: M is less than or equal to 28 or C

Step-by-step explanation:

GOT RIGHT ON E D G

Answer:

50 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

let he hiked a,b,c and d miles on each of the four days respectively.

then, according to the question.

a+b=26...i

b+c= 24...ii

c+d=28...iii

a+c=22...iv

now, adding i,ii,iii,iv we get

2(a+b+c+d) = 100

a+b+c+d= 50 miles.

Hence, he traveled in all 50 miles.

Answer:

solution,

Volume of cylinder=304 cm^3

height=10 cm

Radius=?

Now,

[tex]volume = \pi {r}^{2} h \\ or \: 304 = 3.14 \times {r}^{2} \times 10 \\ or \: 304 = 31.4 \times {r}^{2} \\ or \: {r}^{2} = \frac{304}{31.4} \\ or \: {r}^{2} = 9.68 \\ or \: r = \sqrt{9.68} \\ or \: r = \sqrt{ {(3.11)}^{2} } \\ r = 3.11 \: cm[/tex]

Hope this helps..

Good luck on your assignment..

Answer:pete

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1) We have to multiply both sides by  1/(de)

2) c=ab/(cd)

Step-by-step explanation:

We have to achieve the right side expression be c only.  To do that we have to multiply cde by   1/(de) .  However we have to multiply the left side by

1/(de) as well.

So the resulting left side expression is:

ab *1/(de)=ab/(de)

So c= ab/(de)

Given equation in the question is,

ab = cde

To solve the given equation for the value of c, follow the algebraic rules,

1). Multiply both the sides of the equation with [tex]\frac{1}{de}[/tex],

   [tex]ab\times \frac{1}{de} = \frac{cde}{de}[/tex]

   [tex]\frac{ab}{de}= \frac{cde}{de}[/tex]

   [tex]\frac{ab}{de}=c[/tex]

Therefore, resulting equation for c will be,

[tex]c=\frac{ab}{de}[/tex]

Learn more,

https://brainly.com/question/11496615

Answer:

75%

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 3 numbers that fit this rule, 3, 5, and 6. There is a 3/4 chance spinning one or a 75% chance.

Answer:

75%

Step-by-step explanation:

The numbers 6 or odd are 3, 5, and 6.

3 numbers out of a total of 4 numbers.

3/4 = 0.75

Convert to percentage.

0.75 × 100 = 75

P(6 or odd) = 75%

Answer:

The time spent studying is the response variable.

Step-by-step explanation:

The response variable, also known as the dependent variable is the main question which the experiment wants to provide an answer for. Usually, the predictors determine or affect the response variable.  In the study where Teresa investigates the effect of grade level on time spent studying, the response variable is the time spent studying, while the predictor which is the grade level provides an explanation as to the time spent studying.

The changes or variations on time spent studying depends on the grade level. This means that the grade level provides an explanation of the length of time dedicated to studying.

Answer:

1.79% probability that the number of times that the coin lands tails will be less than 40

Step-by-step explanation:

Binomial probability distribution

Probability of exactly x sucesses on n repeated trials, with p probability.

Can be approximated to a normal distribution, using the expected value and the standard deviation.

The expected value of the binomial distribution is:

[tex]E(X) = np[/tex]

The standard deviation of the binomial distribution is:

[tex]\sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)}[/tex]

Normal probability distribution

Problems of normally distributed samples can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the zscore of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

When we are approximating a binomial distribution to a normal one, we have that [tex]\mu = E(X)[/tex], [tex]\sigma = \sqrt{V(X)}[/tex].

Fair coin:

Equally as likely to be heads or tails, so [tex]p = 0.5[/tex]

100 times

[tex]n = 100[/tex]

Then

[tex]\mu = E(X) = np = 100*0.5 = 50[/tex]

[tex]\sigma = \sqrt{V(X)} = \sqrt{np(1-p)} = \sqrt{100*0.5*0.5} = 5[/tex]

What is the probability that the number of times that the coin lands tails will be less than 40

Using continuity correction, this is [tex]P(X < 40 - 0.5) = P(X < 39.5)[/tex], which is the pvalue of Z when X = 39.5.

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{39.5 - 50}{5}[/tex]

[tex]Z = -2.1[/tex]

[tex]Z = -2.1[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.0179

1.79% probability that the number of times that the coin lands tails will be less than 40

Answer:

The box weighs 220 grams.

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the box full of chocolates weighs 480 grams, and the same box full of mints weighs 350, the weight difference between them is 130 grams. According to the statement, the quantity of chocolate weighs twice that of mint, while the weight of the box does not vary.

Therefore, since chocolate weighs twice as much as mints, and the weight is reduced by 130 grams, that is the difference in weight between the two, with which chocolate weighs 260 grams and mints 130 grams.

Therefore, the box weighs 220 grams: 220 + 130 = 350, and 220 + 260 = 480.

4. 12 cent

5. $2.06

6. $1.56

7. $1.30

8. 86 cent

Answer:

The Empirical Rule

Step-by-step explanation:

The Empirical Rule states that, for a normally distributed(bell-shaped) random variable:

68% of the measures are within 1 standard deviation of the mean.

95% of the measures are within 2 standard deviation of the mean.

99.7% of the measures are within 3 standard deviations of the mean.

So the answer to this question is the Empirical Rule