Pregunta completa: un caballo negro de antepasados desconocidos fue apareado con cierto numero de yeguas de color rojo de raza pura, estos apareamientos dieron 20 descendientes de colo rojo y 25 de color negros.
A) cual de dichos caracteres fenotipicos es mas probable que este causado por un homocigoto recesivo?
B) segun su hipotesis cuantos individuos de cada clase habrian esperado
Answer:
A) El color rojo es causado por un genotipo homocigota recesivo
B) Se habrían esperado 22.5 individuos negros y 22.5 individuos rojos, que juntos sumarian un total de 45 individuos.
Explanation:
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150 ml of 54% CaCI2 solution contains how many grams of CaCI2?
Answer:
mass of CaCl₂ = 67.4 g of CaCl₂
Explanation:
A 45% CaCl₂ Solution contains 45 g of solute per 100 mL of solution.
mass concentration = mass of solute (g)/ volume of solution (L)
100 mL of solution = 100 * 1L /1000 = 0.1 L
Mass concentration of solution = 45 g/0.1 L = 450 g/L
Molar concentration of solution = mass concentration / molar mass
molar mass of CaCl₂ = 111 g/mol
molar concentration = 450 g/L / 111 g/mol = 4. 05 mol/L
Number of moles of CaCl₂ present in 150 ml of 4.05 mol/L solution = molar concentration * volume (L)
number of moles of CaCl₂ = 4.05 * 150 * 1 L/1000 = 0.6075 moles
mass of CaCl₂ present in 0.6075 moles = number of moles * molar mass
mass of CaCl₂ = 0.6075 * 111 = 67.4 g of CaCl₂
A population is a growth at a rate of 2 , 4, 8 ,16 ,32 which type of growth dose this describe?
Answer:
exponential
Explanation:
The age of 16 of growth does this question describe
I was wondering if anyone could help with this? The photo is posted below.
Answer:
The answer is option C.
Hope this helps you
Humans breathe in oxygen and release ____ gas.
Answer:
Carbon
Explanation:
Reverse photosynthesis
Answer:
carbon dioxide
Explanation:
our body changes it
(sodium potassum adenosine triphosphatase) is found in the plasma membrane and catalyzes the exchange of sodium and potassium ions across the membrane. Classify the statements about the transport system as either true or false.
Answer:
The statements are:
Pumps K+ out of the cell False
Pumps K+ions into the cell True
Exchanges 3 Na+ ions for 2 K ions+ True
Exchanges 3 K+ ions for 2 Na+ ions False
Creates a membrane potential that is negative on the inside True
The transport protein becomes adenylated by ATP during the transport cycle True
Pumps Na+ ions out of the cell True
Pumps Na+ ions into the cell False
Explanation:
Sodium Potassium Adenosine Triphosphatase is in the membrane of cells. Its function is to create a difference of charges between the inside and the outside of the cell. The enzyme pumps 3 Na+ ions outside the cell for every 2 K+ ions that pumps inside the cell producing a resting potential. As this process is against their concentration gradient, the protein needs the energy to do it. This energy comes from the ATP that attaches to the transport protein.
Why does the pattern recognition strategy affect prokaryotic and eukaryotic pathogens as well as hosts
Answer:
A Because all are complex cells with certain functions that cannot be greatly altered without affecting fitness.
B Because VSG switching may not be restricted to trypanosomes.
C Because all have proteins in their cell walls or cell membranes.
D None of these answers are correct.
The answer is C .Because all have proteins in their cell walls or cell membranes.
Explanation:
Pattern recognition strategy employs the use of pattern recognition receptors which are proteins for the recognition of molecules frequently found in pathogens. When they are recognized, the body then marks the cells for destruction.
Pattern recognition strategy affect prokaryotic and eukaryotic pathogens as well as hosts because all have proteins in their cell walls or cell membranes and they help in the recognition of pathogens or host for further action on them.
which proteins serves as a chemical messenger
Answer:
Neuropeptides
Explanation:
They are proteins that function as chemical messengers and are released by neurons. They contain 3 to 36 amino acids.
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When ______ is released, the subsequent receiving neuron ________ fire because that neurotransmitter is _______.
Answer:
When a neurotransmitter is released, the posterior receptor neuron has the receptor to bind to it because that neurotransmitter is a stimulator of the postsynaptic membrane.
Explanation:
The neurotransmitters that are released from the motor plate, that is, from the postsynaptic membrane to the presynaptic space, are captured by receptors of the postsynaptic membrane, which can be another neuronal structure to transmit an impulse or a muscle to be able to execute the contraction.
I leave you an image that draws up the stimulation of the postsynaptic membrane by means of a neutrotranismor, these are called as: adrenaline, norepinephrine, acetylcholine, etc.
Number 1 is the presynaptic membrane that releases the neurotransmitter (yellow balls), number 2 is the intersynaptic space, 3 is the postsynaptic membrane that in number 4 can be seen to be activated by relating to the neurotransmitter
How does music affect plant growth? To answer this question
Use the completed Punnett square in Part B to answer the questions below about the F2 generation.
Note that questions 3 and 4 require a more advanced evaluation of probabilities than do questions 1 and 2 because you have to consider all possible groupings and orders of three F2 seeds. If you need help with these calculations, use Hint 3.
Complete question:
Part C: Using the Punnett square to make predictions
Use the completed Punnett square in Part B to answer the questions below about the F2 generation.
Note: You will find the Punnet square in the attached files.
Note that questions 3 and 4 require a more advanced evaluation of probabilities than do questions 1 and 2 because you have to consider all possible groupings and orders of three F2 seeds. If you need help with these calculations, use Hint 3.
1) What is the probability that an F2 seed chosen at random will be yellow?
2) What is the probability that an F2 seed chosen at random from along the yellow seeds will breed true when selfed?
3) What is the probability that three F2 seeds chosen at random will include at least one yellow seed?
4) What is the probability that three F2 seeds chosen at random will include one green seed and two yellow seeds?
Answer:
1) 3/4
2) 1/3
3) 63/64
4) 27/64
Explanation:
Y is the dominant allele and expresses yellow color y is the recessive allele and expresses green colorSeeds with YY and Yy genotype are yellowSeeds with yy genotype are greenParental) Yy x Yy
Gametes) Y y Y y
Punnet Square)
(1/2) Y (1/2) y
(1/2) Y (1/4) YY (1/4) Yy
(1/2) y (1/4) yY (1/4) yy
F2) 1/4 YY
2/4 = 1/2 Yy
1/4 yy
1) There will be 3/4 of probabilities of getting a yellow F2 seed
1/4 YY + 2/4 Yy = 3/4 Y-
The symbol "-" means that in its position there might be either a Y or y allele.
2) As there are only three yellow possible genotypes for yellow seeds, the fourth genotype for green seeds is not considered. Our pool now is only yellow seeds. So the probability of getting a pure breeding yellow seed among all yellow seeds is 1/3.
1/3 YY
1/3 Yy
1/3 yY
In the pool of yellow seeds, there are three genotypes, and only one of them corresponds to pure breeding yellow seed.
3) To calculate the probability of getting at least one yellow seed among the three seeds randomly chosen, we need to multiply and then perform addition. This is, when we take three seeds from the pool, we have different possibilities of getting seeds with different genotypes. So:
the three chosen seeds could be yellow. In this case, we multiply their probabilities. The probability of getting one yellow seed is 3/4, so, the probabilities of getting three yellow seeds are: 3/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 27/64There might also be one green sees and two yellow seed, so we multiply their probabilities in the order in which we might get them. This is:
Two yellow seeds and one green seed: 3/4 x 3/4 x 1/4 = 9/64One yellow seed, one green seed, and one yellow seed: 3/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 9/64one green seed, and two yellow seeds: 1/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 9/64And we could also get two green seeds and only one yellow seed:
Two green and one yellow seed: 1/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 3/64one green, one yellow and one green: 1/4 x 3/4x 1/4 = 3/64one yellow seed and two green seeds: 3/4 x 1/4 x 1/4 = 3/64Now, having all the possibilities, we just need to add all the possibilities:
27/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 + 3/64 + 3/64 + 3/64= 63/64.
Note that we did not include the possibility of getting three green seeds (1/4 x 1/4 x 1/4). This is because we were asked to calculate the probabilities of getting AT LEAST one yellow seed.
4) To calculate the probability of getting two yellow seeds and one green seed among the three seeds randomly chosen, we should multiply probabilities and then sum them up.
The orders in which we could get the seeds are:
Two yellows and one green: 3/4 x 3/4 x 1/4 = 9/64One yellow, one green, and one yellow: 3/4 x 1/4 x 3/4 = 9/64one green seed and two yellow seeds: 1/4 x 3/4 x 3/4 = 9/64Now, having all the possibilities, we just need to add all the possibilities:
6/64 + 9/64 + 9/64 = 27/64.
Answer:
1) 3/4
2) 1/3
3) 63/64
4) 27/64
Explanation:
1) yellow seed could either be GG, Gg or Gg from Punnett square, therefore, there is a 3/4 probability
2) true-breeding = either GG or gg. Therefore, out of the 3 yellow seed options, only 1 is true-breeding, therefore, it's a 1/3 probability
3) "there are 7 possible groupings that have at least 1 yellow seed; the sum of their individual probabilities yields the final answer of 63/64. Note that you could have also calculated this answer by subtracting the probability of the one category that doesn’t fit the criterion (Green, Green, Green) from the total probability (1 – 1/64 = 63/64)"
4) "there are 3 possible groupings that have 1 green and 2 yellow seeds; the sum of their individual probabilities yields the final answer of 27/64"
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What is the average life span of juvenile upland game birds
Answer:
90 percent
Explanation:
Based on average estimated juvenile and adult survival rate for each species
Which of the following statements correctly describes the alternation of generations in a plant life cycle?
A. Diploid sporophytes that produce gametes by meiosis alternate with haploid gametophytes that produce spores by mitosis.
B. Diploid sporophytes that produce spores by mitosis alternate with haploid sporophytes that produce gametes by meiosis.
C. Diploid sporophytes that produce spores by meiosis alternate with haploid gametophytes that produce gametes by mitosis.
D. Diploid gametophytes that produce spores by mitosis alternate with haploid sporophytes that produce gametes by meiosis.
Answer:
Option C is the correct choice.
Explanation:
Generation Alternation seems to be a method of development process found in domestic cell walls animals as well as of plants where typically express populations overlap between diploid or haploid species. This could be associated with animal random mutations, where both the mentioned cells are present in each generation.Some other choices provided do not correspond to the circumstance in question. And the correct response will be Option C.
The statement 'diploid sporophytes that produce spores by meiosis alternate with haploid gametophytes that produce gametes by mitosis' correctly describes the alternation of generations in a plant life cycle (Option C).
In plants, the diploid (2n) sporophyte undergoes meiosis to generate haploid (n) spores.
Subsequently, plant spores undergo successive mitosis to produce multicellular haploid (n) gametophytes.
In the gametophyte phase, a plant produces male and female haploid (n) gametes by mitosis in organs known as gametangia.
The diploid (2n) sporophyte is the zygote produced from the fusion of two (one male and one female) plant gametes. This zygote first develops into an embryo which will give rise to the adult sporophyte by successive mitosis.
In conclusion, the statement 'diploid sporophytes that produce spores by meiosis alternate with haploid gametophytes that produce gametes by mitosis' correctly describes the alternation of generations in a plant life cycle (Option C).
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You are doing research on nervous system diseases; particularly, one that dissolves lipids. What part of the neuron would you expect to be affected most by this disease? A. Myelin sheath B. Axon C. Synaptic Cleft D. Dendrites
The answer you are looking for is A
What is the average life span of juvenile upland game birds
Answer:
27 years
Explanation:
Your heart rate can be determined by counting the number of times your heart beats per minute. There are several places you can find your pulse—the rhythmic pressure wave of blood in the arteries. The radial pulse can be found by placing two fingers just below the wrist creases at the base of the thumb. Another common place to feel the pulse is the carotid artery in the neck. Place two fingers, index and middle, between the trachea and large neck muscle. Be sure to sit still without talking, and slowly move the fingers together until you can feel the blood flow. In this experiment, you’re collecting data to determine how holding your breath affects your heart rate. Write a hypothesis stating whether your heart rate will increase, decrease, or stay the same after holding your breath for 30 seconds. Also, identify the independent and dependent variables. Hypothesis: _______ Independent variable: _______ Dependent variable: _______
Answer:
The independent variable is the time and the dependent variable is the heart rate.
Explanation:
In this case a study is being performed to determine whether holding one's breath for 30 seconds leads to increasing, decreasing or similar heart rate.
The hypothesis can be defined as follows:
H₀: Holding one's breath does not effect the heart rate.
Hₐ: Holding one's breath does effect the heart rate.
A relationship is to formed between the heart rate and the time for which you are holding your breath.
So, the independent variable is the time and the dependent variable is the heart rate.
Answer:
Lab: Heart Rate
Part A: Identifying Variables
The dependent variable happens as a result of values/changes associated with the independent variable.
Independent variable: number of cigarettes smoked
Dependent variable: risk for lung cancer
Independent variable: number of sharks swimming in a coastal region
Dependent variable: number of shark attacks on humans
Independent variable: amount of milk a person drinks
Dependent variable: the strength of his or her bones
Part B: Heart Rate
Hypothesis: If I hold my breath for 30 seconds, then my heart rate will
(choose 1) increase/decrease.
Independent variable: holding my breath
Dependent variable: heart rate
Part C:
The heart rate decreases because oxygen exchange in the lungs decreases.
This depends on what you chose for heart rate in the hypothesis. If you said the heart rate decreases after holding your breath, and the results showed the heart rate decreased, then the hypothesis is supported. If you said the heart rate decreases after holding your breath, and the results showed the heart rate increased, then you refuted the hypothesis.
Heart rate can change due to an increase or decrease in activity, moving positions such as sitting and standing, and emotions.
Example: Increase in activity—jumping jacks
Hypothesis: If I do five jumping jacks, then my heart rate will increase.
Test hypothesis. You can use the average resting heart rate from the previous experiment. If you do an experiment with an increase in physical activity like jumping jacks, then your data will reflect an increase in heart rate because the body requires more energy, which requires more oxygen, increasing the overall flow of blood in the body.
Support or refute the hypothesis based on the results. The hypothesis is supported if it aligns with the observed results. The hypothesis is refuted if the results don’t match the statement based on the variables.
Testing more than one variable at a time makes it difficult to interpret the results and support or refute the hypothesis. With one variable, the results can be associated with changes to that variable. To get the most reliable data to support or refute a hypothesis, an experiment should be completed several times to see if the results show the same trends.
Explanation:
Lab: Heart Rate
Part A: Identifying Variables
The dependent variable happens as a result of values/changes associated with the independent variable.
Independent variable: number of cigarettes smoked
Dependent variable: risk for lung cancer
Independent variable: number of sharks swimming in a coastal region
Dependent variable: number of shark attacks on humans
Independent variable: amount of milk a person drinks
Dependent variable: the strength of his or her bones
Part B: Heart Rate
Hypothesis: If I hold my breath for 30 seconds, then my heart rate will
(choose 1) increase/decrease.
Independent variable: holding my breath
Dependent variable: heart rate
Part C:
The heart rate decreases because oxygen exchange in the lungs decreases.
This depends on what you chose for heart rate in the hypothesis. If you said the heart rate decreases after holding your breath, and the results showed the heart rate decreased, then the hypothesis is supported. If you said the heart rate decreases after holding your breath, and the results showed the heart rate increased, then you refuted the hypothesis.
Heart rate can change due to an increase or decrease in activity, moving positions such as sitting and standing, and emotions.
Example: Increase in activity—jumping jacks
Hypothesis: If I do five jumping jacks, then my heart rate will increase.
Test hypothesis. You can use the average resting heart rate from the previous experiment. If you do an experiment with an increase in physical activity like jumping jacks, then your data will reflect an increase in heart rate because the body requires more energy, which requires more oxygen, increasing the overall flow of blood in the body.
Support or refute the hypothesis based on the results. The hypothesis is supported if it aligns with the observed results. The hypothesis is refuted if the results don’t match the statement based on the variables.
Testing more than one variable at a time makes it difficult to interpret the results and support or refute the hypothesis. With one variable, the results can be associated with changes to that variable. To get the most reliable data to support or refute a hypothesis, an experiment should be completed several times to see if the results show the same trends.
Which explanation provides support for continental drift theory?
O Dinosaurs lived on many continents.
Coal fields match up across continents.
Tropical plant fossils were found in warm areas.
Similar rock types are found across continents.
Answer and explanation:
Among the main evidences of the theory of continental drift, we can mention the fit of the lines of the coasts of several continents, In addition to the similarity between several relief structures and rocks in different continents (such as mountain ranges found in South America and on the east coast of Africa).
There are also records of fossils of identical extinct plants, found on the African continent and also in countries like Australia, India and Brazil, for example.
Identical reptile fossils have also been found in Africa and South America, in addition to several correlations in the distribution of aquatic dinosaur fossils that lived in common areas of the ancient supercontinent.
Answer:
Similar rock types are found across continents.
Explanation:
i just know,im smart duh
Read the label for ground beef, below. Discuss what stands out to you as a difference between the nutrition information of the vegetable you chose in question seven and the ground beef nutrition information provided in this label. Explain why you think beef is or is not necessary for a balanced diet.
Nutrition Facts
Serving Size 1 burger (151g)
Servings Per Container 6
Amount Per Serving
Calories 450 Calories from fat 340
% Daily Value
Total Fat 38g 58%
Saturated Fat 18g 90%
Trans Fat 1.5g
Cholesterol 100mg 33%
Sodium 460mg 19%
Total Carbohydrate 0g 0%
Dietary Fiber 0g 0%
Sugars 1g
Protein 26g
Vitamin C 2% Vitamin A 2%
Iron 8% Calcium 8%
Percent Daily Values are based on a 2,000 calorie diet. Your daily values may be higher or lower depending on your calorie needs:
Calories 2,000 2,500
Total Fat Less than 65g 80g
Sat Fat Less than 20g 25g
Cholesterol Less than 300mg 300mg
Sodium Less than 2400mg 2400mg
Total Carbohydrate 300mg 375mg
Dietary Fiber 25g 30g
Calories per gram:
Fat 9 Carbohydrate 4 Protein 4
Answer:
Yes, Beef is necessary for a balanced diet.
Explanation:
Beef is necessary for a balanced diet because it contains high amount of energy which is required for performing different activities but too much intake of beef causes diseases because it contains high amount of cholesterol and fats. these cholesterol deposits in the vessels of the heart and prevent the normal flow of the blood which causes heart diseases like heart attack etc. So Beef is necessary for a balanced diet but in limited amount.
When a scientist is designing an experiment, _____ groups are made.
1
2
3
4
Answer:
Scientist makes 2 groups.
Explanation:
One experimentle group and other is controle group.
e. Write a few sentences in which you address the following: Under what circumstances would underground storage organs be adaptive to the plant? A successful answer here almost certainly would define and apply the concept of "perennation" or "perennating organ."
Answer:
Perennation brings adaptive advantages to the plant under unfavorable seasonal conditions
Explanation:
Perennation can be defined as the potential of plants for surviving in unfavorable seasonal periods including, for example, drought or extreme seasonal temperatures. Perennation is a process associated to the evolution of adapted 'perennating organs' capable of storing nutrients, which will be subsequently used during unfavorable conditions. Examples of such perennating organs include bulbs, rhizomes, and tubers, which are usually related to the asexual reproduction processes of plants.
Describe how the end product of digestion of fats and oils is absorbed in humans
Answer:
Hello
In the small intestines bile emulsifies fats while enzymes digest them. The intestinal cells absorb the fats. Long-chain fatty acids form a large lipoprotein structure called a chylomicron that transports fats through the lymph system.
hope this answer is correct
In the small intestines bile emulsifies fats while enzymes digest them. The intestinal cells absorb the fats.
What is the end product of digestion of fats and oils?Lipids (fats and oils) are broken down in the small intestine. The enzyme lipase is responsible for breaking down lipids into fatty acids and glycerol.
How are the end products of fat digestion absorbed?Micelles transport the end products of lipid digestion (free fatty acids and monoglycerides) to the digestive tract lining for absorption.
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Penicillin has ability to provoke immune response by itself. true or false?
Answer:
true
Explanation:
Penicillin is a bacteria so it means it causes the production of antibodies which then boost the immune system.
It is like vaccination; small doses of the inactive form of the infection is injected into the body in order for the body to create antibodies resistant to such infection(thereby boosting the immune system).
Hope it helps.
If the scientist had collected 20 dung samples, would you expect more bands, fewer bands, or the same number of bands on the gel?
Answer:
The expectations of the bands will be more on the gels.
Explanation:
One sample provides several sizes and thickness bands in the gel electrophoresis according to the size of fragments that run in it. An individual would expect more bands due to the increase in the number of samples which is 20 samples now.
An increase in the number of samples produces more bands. So one can easily expect more bands from the 20 samples. Scientists would get more bands on the gels.
Thus, the expectations of the bands will be more on the gels.
If the scientist collects 20 dung samples ; we should expect more band on the gel
Given that each dung sample has varying sizes and varying thickness of bands in the gel electrophoresis which depends on the size of fragments contained in it. Therefore when a number of dung samples ( 20 ) are collected it is only logical that the number of bands on the gel will increase ( i.e. you should expect more band on the gel ).
Hence we can conclude that If the scientist collects 20 dung samples we should expect more band on the gel .
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Although your question lacks some data a general answer within the scope of your question is provided
Most hurricanes will originate a. near the North Pole. b. in the equatorial region. c. when the water and air are cold. d. below the ocean’s surface currents.
Answer:
The answer is c.
Explanation:
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Which of the following example(s) does NOT cause bias in a research study.
A) Measuring body temperature with an oral thermometer in half of subjects and an ear thermometer in others
B) Counting the number of firefighters at your house to predict if it will be destroyed
C) Using a set of standardized questions to measure food intake in children
D) Studying workers to see the effects of a new health care law on unemployed
what kind of molecule is represented in the diagram?
Answer:
The answer is option B.
TriglycerideHope this helps you
Which statement describes one aspect of an earthquake's magnitude?
It is measured by the Mercalli scale.
It is based on the size of seismic waves.
O It is not usually affected by the amount of fault movement.
It is used to determine damage caused by earthquakes.
Answer:
b. It is based on the size of seismic waves
Explanation:
just did the test
The statement that describes one aspect of an earthquake's magnitude is: "It is based on the size of seismic waves."
What is an earthquake's magnitude?An earthquake's magnitude is a measure of the amount of energy released by the earthquake, and it is determined by measuring the amplitude (height) of the seismic waves generated by the earthquake. The size of the seismic waves is directly related to the amount of energy released by the earthquake, and this is used to calculate the earthquake's magnitude.
The most commonly used scale for measuring earthquake magnitude is the Richter scale, which is based on the amplitude of the largest seismic wave recorded on a seismogram. Other scales, such as the moment magnitude scale, are based on the seismic moment, which takes into account the size of the fault rupture and the amount of slip on the fault.
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The sex of the person that you are attracted to would
determine your
sexual identification.
o gender-role attractions
sexual orientation.
sexuality
Answer:
Gender role attraction determine your sexual identificaton.
Explanation:
As the chromosomes of a parent cell are duplicated and distributed to the two daughter cells during cell division, the structure of the chromosomes changes.Answer the three questions for each phase of the cell cycle by dragging the yes and no labels to the appropriate locations in the table.Note: Assume that by the end of the M phase, the parent cell has not yet divided to form two daughter cells.Are sister chromatid present in all or part of this phase?Is the DNA condensed in all or part of this phase?Does the cell contain twice as much DNA in this phase as it did in the G1 phase?
Answer:
Conditions:
Sister chromatids present in all or part of phase? ANSWERS BELOWDNA condensed in all or part of phase? ANSWERS BELOWDNA content per cell doubled in all or part of phase? ANSWERS BELOW**image also provided below for further clarification - all rights reserved to Mastering Genetics**
Explanation:
Conditions:
G1: no, S: yes, G2: yes, Beginning of M: yes, End of M: noG1: no, S: no, G2: no, Beginning of M: yes, End of M: yesG1: no, S: yes, G2: yes, Beginning of M: yes, End of M: yesBecause the replicated DNA is created, and the cell has twice as much genetic material, cells in the G2 phase have twice as much DNA.
What are the important phases of cell cycles?A diploid cell's G1 phase marks the start of the cell cycle (DNA content = 2 N; N is the number of chromosomes).
The cell enters the G2 phase with twice as much DNA (4 N) as the starting cell after DNA replication is finished in the S phase.
DNA replication happens in the S phase, when DNA synthesis happens and the amount of DNA doubles. Once the G1 phase is over, each chromosome contains one chromatid.
Each chromosome will have two chromatids following the S phase, though. The two chromatids here are exact duplicates of one another.
Therefore, When a cell is in the G1 phase, it physically expands and produces more protein and organelles.
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Deficiency of which material leads to anaemia ?
Answer:
iron
Explanation:
iron is present in red blood cells. Without it the RBC's start to die and are less in number. Which causes anaemia.
Conjugated enzymes are a key component of ELISA. To what are these enzymes conjugated, and why is that important?
Answer:
To the antigen so the enzymes are only present when the molecule of interest is also present
To the plastic of the reaction well so the enzymes can concentrate the molecule of interest
To the capture antibody so the enzymes are only present when the molecule of interest is also present
To the detection antibody so the enzymes are only present when the molecule of interest is also present
Explanation: