Twelve families are selected for a genetic linkage study because of a high prevalence of disease. A genome screen is performed, using anonymous DNA markers on all autosomes. Significant evidence is observed for linkage to a marker on chromosome 2 (D2S123) in four families. The LOD score for the remaining families at this locus is significantly negative. How do you interpret this finding?

Answers

Answer 1

The presence of significant evidence for linkage to a marker on chromosome 2 in four families, while the LOD score is significantly negative in the remaining families, suggests genetic heterogeneity in the population.

The finding of significant evidence for linkage to a marker on chromosome 2 (D2S123) in four families, while the LOD score is significantly negative in the remaining families at this locus, suggests that there may be genetic heterogeneity in the studied population.

Genetic heterogeneity refers to the presence of multiple genetic causes or factors contributing to a particular disease within a population. In this case, it suggests that the disease being studied may have different underlying genetic causes or risk factors in different families.

The significant evidence of linkage in four families indicates that there may be a genetic variant or mutation near the D2S123 marker on chromosome 2 that is associated with the disease in those particular families. However, the significantly negative LOD scores in the remaining families suggest that this particular genetic variant or mutation is not present or relevant in those families. Instead, it implies that there may be other genetic factors or loci contributing to the disease susceptibility in those families.

Overall, this finding highlights the importance of considering genetic heterogeneity in genetic linkage studies and suggests the presence of multiple genetic factors influencing the disease in the studied population. Further investigation and analysis would be required to identify other genetic loci or factors involved in the disease in the families with negative LOD scores at the D2S123 marker locus.

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Related Questions

Discuss the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis and the
physiologic basis for the interplay of the various hormones
involved in the axis.
(Please provide a comprehensive answer thank you)

Answers

The hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis is a complex interplay of hormones that regulates female reproductive function.

The hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian (HPO) axis is a vital endocrine system involved in regulating the female reproductive cycle and the production of sex hormones. It consists of three key components: the hypothalamus, the pituitary gland, and the ovaries.

The hypothalamus, located in the brain, secretes gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) in a pulsatile manner. GnRH acts on the anterior pituitary gland, stimulating the release of two important hormones: follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH). FSH promotes the growth and development of ovarian follicles, while LH triggers ovulation and stimulates the formation of the corpus luteum.

Within the ovaries, the developing follicles produce estrogen, primarily in the form of estradiol. Estrogen plays a crucial role in the growth of the uterine lining (endometrium) and the development of secondary sexual characteristics. As the dominant follicle matures, it releases increasing levels of estradiol, which feedbacks to the hypothalamus and pituitary to regulate the release of GnRH, FSH, and LH.

Once ovulation occurs, the ruptured follicle transforms into the corpus luteum, which produces progesterone. Progesterone prepares the endometrium for implantation of a fertilized egg and helps maintain pregnancy. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates, leading to a decline in progesterone levels, which triggers the shedding of the endometrium and the start of a new menstrual cycle.

The interplay of these hormones in the HPO axis ensures the cyclical nature of female reproductive function, including ovulation, menstruation, and the preparation of the uterus for potential pregnancy.

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Please answer and explain in 10 sentences.
1. Discuss the homology in the appendicular and
branchiomeric musculature across the different vertebrate
groups.

Answers

Homology refers to the similarity in anatomical structures or traits among different species, suggesting a common evolutionary origin. When considering the appendicular and branchiomeric musculature across vertebrate groups, we can observe both homologous and non-homologous structures.

Appendicular Musculature:

The appendicular musculature, which includes the muscles of the limbs, shows a high degree of homology across vertebrate groups. Despite variations in size, shape, and function, the basic organization and arrangement of muscles remain similar. For example, the presence of flexor and extensor muscles, their attachment sites, and their actions at specific joints are conserved across vertebrates.

Branchiomeric Musculature:

The branchiomeric musculature, which develops from the branchial arches, exhibits both homology and variation across vertebrate groups. Some muscles associated with feeding, respiration, vocalization, and facial expression are homologous and have similar functions. However, there are also species-specific adaptations and modifications in these muscles to suit specific ecological niches and behaviors. For instance, the specific muscles involved in jaw movements, gill cover control, or beak manipulation may vary in different groups.

Overall, homology is evident in the basic organization and functional characteristics of the appendicular musculature across vertebrate groups. In contrast, the branchiomeric musculature shows both homology and variation due to the evolutionary diversification and adaptations of these muscles in response to different ecological and functional demands. Understanding the homology in these muscle systems helps us trace the evolutionary relationships and adaptations of vertebrate species.

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Using your knowledge of the Australian Code and GCP, please answer the following questions below. Be sure to clearly label the different parts.
Part A. Briefly describe the types and scale of scientific misconduct. Part B. Using examples and details from class, explain TWO examples of misconduct in a clinical trial. What do you feel are the most important consequences for each? Explain your reasoning.

Answers

A: The types of scientific misconduct are Falsification, Fabrication, Plagiarism, and Duplicate publication. The scale of scientific misconduct are Minor, Significant, and Extreme.

B: Examples of misconduct in a clinical trial are informed consent forms not provided properly and lack of transparency in clinical trial conduct.

Part A: Types and Scale of Scientific Misconduct

Types of Scientific Misconduct include:

Falsification: Alteration of research results or omission of results that are undesirableFabrication: Presentation of results or experimental data that never existedPlagiarism: Copying text, findings, images, or ideas of other researchers without giving them due creditDuplicate publication: Publication of the same research findings in multiple journals without clear attribution to the prior publication

Scale of Scientific Misconduct include:

Minor: Errors or oversights that do not alter the significance of the research findingsSignificant: Results that are significantly affected by errors, oversights, or misconductExtreme: Fabrication or falsification of data, plagiarized text, or presentation of other researchers' work as one's own

Part B: Examples of Misconduct in a Clinical Trial

Example 1: Informed Consent Forms not provided properly

The informed consent form is the primary document that explains the clinical trial's nature and requirements to patients, who must sign it. In clinical trial research, informed consent is an ethical prerequisite, and the sponsor must guarantee that the consent form is provided properly.

The most important consequences are:

Patients who did not comprehend the nature and requirements of the clinical trial may have given informed consent. Patients' safety and well-being may be jeopardized, and ethical standards may be violated.

Example 2: Lack of transparency in Clinical Trial Conduct

In clinical trial research, transparency is essential. The researchers must be open and honest with the regulatory body, the participants, and the public. Any significant deviations from the clinical trial protocol must be recorded and documented correctly.

The most important consequences are:

Lack of transparency undermines trust and raises concerns about the quality and safety of research. Clinical trial participants may be negatively affected by unrecorded or undocumented deviations from the protocol. The integrity of the research findings may be compromised, and ethical standards may be violated.

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What is bilirubin and how/why is it formed? What are two ways the body can make it soluble in blood? Please draw upon what was covered in our slides or video presentations to answer this question in your own words.

Answers

Bilirubin is a yellow pigment derived from the breakdown of heme, a component of red blood cells. It is formed when old or damaged red blood cells are broken down in the liver, spleen, and bone marrow. Bilirubin is insoluble in water, so it needs to be made soluble in blood for its excretion. This is achieved through a two-step process.

In the first step, bilirubin is conjugated with glucuronic acid in the liver, forming conjugated bilirubin. This conjugation reaction makes bilirubin water-soluble and able to be excreted in bile. The conjugated bilirubin is then transported to the small intestine.

In the second step, in the small intestine, the conjugated bilirubin undergoes further modification by the action of bacteria. It is converted into urobilinogen, a soluble form of bilirubin. Some urobilinogen is reabsorbed into the bloodstream and eventually eliminated through the kidneys, giving urine its characteristic yellow color. The remaining urobilinogen is further converted into stercobilin, which gives feces its brown color.

Thus, through conjugation in the liver and modification in the small intestine, the body ensures that bilirubin becomes soluble in the blood and can be effectively eliminated from the body.

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The observation that there is a limit to how many times a cell can divide is the basis for the:_____

Answers

The observation that there is a limit to how many times a cell can divide is the basis for the Hayflick limit.

The concept of the Hayflick limit was first introduced in the 1960s by Leonard Hayflick and Paul Moorhead. They observed that normal human cells have a limited number of times that they can divide and that number was approximately 50 cell divisions or less. The Hayflick limit is the number of times a cell can divide before reaching senescence, which is also known as replicative senescence.

It has been suggested that the Hayflick limit is related to telomeres, which are the repetitive nucleotide sequences at the ends of chromosomes. With each cell division, telomeres become shorter. When telomeres become too short, they can no longer divide, which leads to senescence. The Hayflick limit has implications for aging and disease since it affects tissue renewal and regeneration. It has also been linked to cancer since cancer cells can divide indefinitely by bypassing the Hayflick limit.

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If the acidity of gastric juice increases, it is recommended to consume milk.
Answer the question A and fulfill the task B:
A) How and why will the secretion of gastric juice be changed after drinking milk?
B) Explain the physiological mechanisms of the changes in pancreatic secretion after drinking milk.

Answers

Drinking milk can decrease gastric juice acidity, reduce inflammation, and improve digestion by stimulating the release of pancreatic juice, aiding in the relief of gastrointestinal problems.

If the acidity of gastric juice increases, it is recommended to consume milk. Drinking milk can decrease the acidity of the gastric juice. This is because milk is an alkaline substance and can help to neutralize the acid in the stomach. When the milk enters the stomach, it can coat the lining of the stomach and help to reduce the irritation that is caused by excess acid.

A) After drinking milk, the secretion of gastric juice will be changed because the milk will decrease the acidity of the gastric juice. This can help to reduce the symptoms of acid reflux and other gastrointestinal problems. The milk can also help to soothe the lining of the stomach and reduce inflammation.

B) The physiological mechanisms of the changes in pancreatic secretion after drinking milk are related to the release of hormones. When the stomach is empty, the hormone ghrelin is released. This hormone stimulates the secretion of pancreatic enzymes.

When food enters the stomach, the hormone cholecystokinin (CCK) is released. This hormone stimulates the release of pancreatic juice, which contains enzymes that can help to digest food. Milk can stimulate the release of CCK, which can increase the secretion of pancreatic juice. This can help to improve digestion and reduce the symptoms of gastrointestinal problems.

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Which of the following is not a common side effect of NSAIDs?
a. Decreased renal bloodflow
b. Dehydration
c. Inhibits muscle building
d. Gastrointestinal stress

Answers

The correct answer to the given question is option c. Inhibits muscle building. The side effects of NSAIDsNSAIDs stands for Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. The most common side effects of NSAIDs are: Gastrointestinal distress: Pain, indigestion, diarrhea, and sometimes bleeding can occur due to gastrointestinal distress caused by NSAIDs.

Decreased renal blood flow: NSAIDs can decrease renal blood flow and may cause acute kidney injury or chronic kidney disease, especially in patients with pre-existing renal disease. Dehydration: NSAIDs may cause dehydration by decreasing renal blood flow and inhibiting the action of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH).ADH regulates fluid balance in the body.Inhibition of platelet function: NSAIDs inhibit platelet function and may cause bleeding or bruising. Inhibits muscle building: NSAIDs inhibit muscle building by reducing the production of prostaglandins, which are involved in muscle repair and hypertrophy. This is not a common side effect of NSAIDs. NSAIDs are one of the most commonly prescribed medications for pain management. So, the correct answer to the given question is option c.

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There are many different forms of anemia, however, regardless of which form, the end result is diminished oxygen carrying capacity. Select one: True O False RhoGAM is an immune serum used to prevent the sensitization of maternal blood, to Rh negative antigens Select one: True False The myocardium (heart muscle) is intrinsic which means it must receive a signal from the vagus (cranial #10) nerve to the SA node, for it to contract. Select one: O True False Which of the following is the correct equation to determine the amount of blood that is pumped by the heart in one minute? Select one: O a SV = CO x BPM O b. Oc d. Oe. 70ml x 72bpm = 5040ml CO ESV x EDV 1 SV x BPM = 120/80 BMP-SV x BPM Which of the following represents ventricular depolarization Select one: Oa. SA node b. QRS complex ST depression Oc. Od. P wave e. Twave The process by which a Neutrophil or Monocyte moves out of the blood, through the vessel wall, is known as Select one: O a. diffusion O b. filtration Oc mass exodus d. diapedesis O e. chemotaxis

Answers

False. The statement that regardless of the form of anemia, the end result is diminished oxygen carrying capacity is false. Different forms of anemia can have varying effects on oxygen carrying capacity depending on their underlying causes and mechanisms.

For example, iron deficiency anemia occurs when there is a lack of iron in the body, which is necessary for the production of hemoglobin. This form of anemia can indeed result in diminished oxygen carrying capacity since there is a decreased ability to form functional red blood cells. On the other hand, in conditions like sickle cell anemia or thalassemia, the structure or function of hemoglobin is affected, leading to abnormal red blood cells. While these forms of anemia can certainly affect oxygen delivery, it is not solely due to a reduced number of red blood cells but rather due to the altered characteristics of the existing red blood cells.

Therefore, it is important to recognize that different forms of anemia can have distinct effects on oxygen carrying capacity. The statement that all forms of anemia result in diminished oxygen carrying capacity is false and oversimplified.

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QUESTION 1 The smallest independently functioning biological unit of an organism is a(n). cell molecule organ tissue QUESTION 2 A collection of similar tissues that performs a specific function is an organ organelle organism organ system QUESTION 3 The body system responsible for structural support and movement is the cardiovascular system endocrine system muscular system skeletal system

Answers

The smallest independently functioning biological unit of an organism is a cell. A cell is the smallest independently functioning biological unit of an organism.

Cells come in different shapes and sizes and can be found in every living organism. They perform all the functions necessary for life. A collection of similar tissues that performs a specific function is an organ. Organs are collections of similar tissues that work together to perform a specific function in the body. Organs are formed by the combination of two or more tissues. Each organ performs a specific function in the body.

Examples of organs include the heart, lungs, liver, and kidneys. The body system responsible for structural support and movement is the skeletal system. The skeletal system is responsible for structural support and movement in the body. It consists of bones, cartilage, ligaments, and other connective tissues that provide support and structure to the body. The skeletal system also protects the internal organs and produces blood cells.

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Final answer:

The smallest independently functioning biological unit of an organism is a cell. These cells combine to create tissues, which in turn form organs that carry out specific functions. Organ systems, such as the skeletal system, are groups of functionally related organs.

Explanation:

The smallest independently functioning unit of an organism is commonly referred to as a cell. This includes all living structures, from human anatomy to bacteria, which is a single-celled organism.

The next level of biological organization incorporates cells into tissues, which are groups of similar cells working together to perform related functions. These tissues then combine to form an organ, which is a collection of tissues grouped together to perform a specific function.

The skeletal system is responsible for providing structural support and facilitating movement in the body. It is an example of an organ system, a higher level of organization that includes functionally related organs.

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When microfilaments remain the same size by increasing length on one end and decreasing their length on the other, we say they are a. treadmilling b. duty cycling c. filament cycling d. cross-bridge cycling

Answers

a. Microfilaments that maintain their size by elongating at one end and shortening at the other are referred to as treadmilling, a dynamic process in cellular functions.

When microfilaments undergo treadmilling, they maintain a constant size by continuously adding subunits at one end (plus end) while simultaneously losing subunits at the other end (minus end). This dynamic behavior allows for the continuous turnover of actin monomers within the microfilament, resulting in a balanced growth and shrinkage. Treadmilling is a fundamental process in cellular functions like cell migration, cytokinesis, and maintaining cell shape. By elongating at the plus end and shortening at the minus end, microfilaments can generate forces necessary for cellular movements and structural changes. Therefore, the term "treadmilling" accurately describes the behavior of microfilaments when their length remains constant through simultaneous elongation and shortening at opposite ends.

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If you could artificially modify the membrane resting potential from -70 mV to +70 mV, what will the sodium ions (Na+) net movement be?
A. Na+ will enter the cell without modifying the voltage.
B. Na+ will enter the cell following its concentration gradient.
C. Na+ will exit the cell even against the concentration gradient.
D. Na+ will not move from the compartments.
What will happen to the resting membrane potential if more K+ (potassium) channels are opened?
A. The resting membrane potential will move closer to zero (depolarize).
B. The resting membrane potential will stay close to +20 mV.
C. The resting membrane potential will stay around -60 mV.
D. The resting membrane potential will hyperpolarize.
Of the following graded potentials, which one is produced by efflux of potassium?
A. end-plate potential.
B. excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP).
C. inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP).
D. organ of Corti receptor potential.
What type of receptor is responsible for the generation of a local potential at the organ of Corti?
A. it is a TRP1 receptor (transitory receptor potential).
B. it is an ionotropic receptor.
C. it is a MET receptor (mechanoelectrical transducer).
D. it is a proprioceptor similar to the muscle spindle.
What do drugs of addiction and natural behaviors share?
A. drugs of addiction increase serotonin while natural behaviors increase dopamine in the nucleus accumbens.
B. they all increase acetylcholine in the striatum.
C. Drugs of addiction and natural behaviors have opposite effects in dopamine release.
D. they all increase dopamine in the nucleus accumbens.
Regarding environmental influences on weight
A. the influence of infection has been disproven.
B. social influence is mostly from the family.
C. smoking increases appetite.
D. sleep loss increases appetite.

Answers

If you could artificially modify the membrane resting potential from -70 mV to +70 mV, the sodium ions (Na+) net movement will be Na+ will enter the cell following its concentration gradient.

The resting membrane potential will hyperpolarize is what will happen to the resting membrane potential if more K+ (potassium) channels are opened.

At synapses, potassium ions efflux from the cell leads to hyperpolarization or inhibitory postsynaptic potential. The efflux of positively charged potassium ions leads to more negative potential which makes it difficult for positively charged ions to enter the cell.

It is a MET receptor (mechanoelectrical transducer) that is responsible for the generation of a local potential at the organ of Corti.

They all increase dopamine in the nucleus accumbens is

Regarding environmental influences on weight Sleep loss increases appetite. is the correct option.

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in
need of a good anatomy and physiology teacher/student to solve my
exam please send me your email to contact you!!!

Answers

Firstly, I recommend checking if your school or college provides a tutoring center or learning lab that offers support specifically for anatomy and physiology. These facilities often have qualified teachers or knowledgeable students who can aid you in your studies.

Secondly, consider reaching out to professional organizations or associations associated with anatomy and physiology.

These groups might have member directories or online forums where you can connect with teachers or students who can provide assistance.

Lastly, you may want to explore online resources like tutoring platforms or study groups.

Websites such as Brainly or Khan Academy offer free resources and provide access to a community of learners who could potentially help you with your exam preparation.

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Question 13 3 pts Where do some of our major indoor air pollutants come from? Do not include tobacco smoke. List 3 Question 12 List one way that we expose ourselves to endocrine disruptors. 1 pts Question 11 What are endocrine disruptors? Definition, not examples 1 pts Question 10 1 pts Contaminated properties where the presence of a hazardous substance can pose a threat to human health are known as O Absorption fields O Brownfields O Sanitary landuse areas O Municipal solid waste areas

Answers

Some of our major indoor air pollutants come from Combustion sources, Household products, Biological pollutants. One way that people expose themselves to endocrine disruptors is by eating food that contains chemicals such as pesticides and hormones. Endocrine disruptors are chemicals that can interfere with the endocrine system in humans and animals.Contaminated properties where the presence of a hazardous substance can pose a threat to human health are known as Brownfields.

Question 13

Where do some of our major indoor air pollutants come from? Do not include tobacco smoke. List 3

Indoor air pollutants are chemicals and particles that affect the air quality in our homes, offices, and other buildings. Below are three major sources of indoor air pollutants:

Combustion sources - These are sources that emit pollutants into the air when fuels such as oil, wood, gas, or coal are burned. Sources include fireplaces, stoves, furnaces, water heaters, and dryers.

Household products - Household products such as cleaning and personal care products, paints, pesticides, and glues contain chemicals that can become airborne and contribute to indoor air pollution.

Biological pollutants - These include bacteria, viruses, mold, pollen, and animal dander. These pollutants can be found in humid areas and places that are not well ventilated.  

Question 12

List one way that we expose ourselves to endocrine disruptors.

One way that people expose themselves to endocrine disruptors is by eating food that contains chemicals such as pesticides and hormones. These chemicals can affect the endocrine system and interfere with hormone production.  Question 11

What are endocrine disruptors? Definition, not examples

Endocrine disruptors are chemicals that can interfere with the endocrine system in humans and animals. The endocrine system is responsible for regulating hormones that control many of the body's functions, including growth, development, and metabolism. Endocrine disruptors can interfere with the body's hormonal balance and cause a range of health problems.

Question 10

Contaminated properties where the presence of a hazardous substance can pose a threat to human health are known as Brownfields.

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explain the structure of skeletal muscle, linking the structure to
their function as you do this.

Answers

Skeletal muscles are complex structures composed of specialized cells called muscle fibers. The structure of skeletal muscle is intricately designed to support its primary function of generating force and facilitating movement.

At the macroscopic level, skeletal muscles are organized into bundles called muscle fascicles. Each fascicle consists of numerous muscle fibers running parallel to each other. The arrangement of these fibers contributes to the muscle's strength and direction of force generation.

Within the muscle fibers, there are smaller functional units called myofibrils. Myofibrils are composed of repeating units called sarcomeres, which are responsible for muscle contraction. Sarcomeres contain thick filaments made of myosin protein and thin filaments composed of actin protein. The interaction between myosin and actin allows for the sliding of filaments, resulting in muscle contraction.

Surrounding the muscle fibers is a connective tissue layer called the endomysium, which provides support and protection to individual muscle fibers. Several muscle fibers are bundled together by another connective tissue layer called the perimysium, forming a fascicle. The entire muscle is further enveloped by the epimysium, a dense connective tissue layer that helps transmit forces generated by the muscle.

Muscles also have tendons, which are dense fibrous connective tissues that connect muscles to bones. Tendons play a crucial role in transmitting the force generated by the muscle to produce movement around joints.

The structural organization of skeletal muscles aligns with their function of generating force and facilitating movement. The parallel arrangement of muscle fibers within fascicles and the overall muscle allows for coordinated and efficient force production. The presence of myofibrils and sarcomeres within muscle fibers enables contraction and the generation of muscle tension. Connective tissues such as endomysium, perimysium, and epimysium provide structural integrity and transmit forces generated during muscle contraction. Tendons efficiently transmit these forces to produce movement at the skeletal joints.

In summary, the structure of skeletal muscles, from the organization of muscle fibers to the presence of myofibrils, sarcomeres, and connective tissues, is intricately linked to their function of generating force and enabling movement.

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the cladistic (phylogenetic) classification system for life differs from the traditional (linnaean) system by using:

Answers

The cladistic (phylogenetic) classification system for life differs from the traditional (Linnaean) system by using evolutionary relationships between organisms to classify them.

What is cladistics (phylogenetic) classification system?

Cladistics, also known as phylogenetic systematics, is a method of biological classification that groups organisms into clades based on shared characteristics derived from common ancestors. It uses shared characteristics, known as synapomorphies, to create nested hierarchical classifications known as clades.The cladistic system's main difference from the Linnaean system is that it is based on evolutionary relationships rather than overall similarity. The cladistic classification system is regarded as superior to the Linnaean system because it accounts for evolutionary history, and it can change as new information becomes available. Therefore, cladistics is preferred in modern biology because it reveals patterns of descent and shows the evolutionary relationships among organisms.

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Briefly describe in one paragraph, how the
body eliminates
waste,
and list
the main body systems involved in this process.

Answers

The body eliminates waste through the process of excretion, which involves several main body systems.

The urinary system removes metabolic waste products, excess water, and electrolytes through the kidneys, which produce urine. The respiratory system eliminates carbon dioxide and small amounts of other waste gases through breathing.

The digestive system eliminates solid waste through the process of defecation. Additionally, the integumentary system plays a role in waste elimination through sweating, which removes certain toxins and regulates body temperature. Overall, these systems work together to maintain proper waste elimination and help maintain homeostasis in the body.

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what Physiology / pathophysiology of acne?

Answers

Acne is a skin disease that affects a large number of people, particularly adolescents and young adults. It is caused by the blockage of hair follicles and sebaceous glands by sebum, resulting in inflammation of the skin.

Sebum is an oily substance that helps keep skin and hair lubricated and is produced by sebaceous glands. The physiology and pathophysiology of acne are related to the sebaceous glands and the hair follicles.

Here's an overview of the physiology and pathophysiology of acne:

1) Physiology of Acne: The physiology of acne is linked to the sebaceous glands and the hair follicles. The sebaceous glands produce sebum, which is a mixture of lipids and proteins that help to keep the skin and hair lubricated. Sebum is produced in response to hormonal signals and is released into the hair follicles. The hair follicles transport sebum to the surface of the skin, where it is released onto the skin.

2) Pathophysiology of Acne:The pathophysiology of acne is related to the blockage of hair follicles and sebaceous glands by sebum. When sebum accumulates in the hair follicles, it can mix with bacteria and dead skin cells, resulting in inflammation and the formation of pimples, blackheads, and whiteheads. Acne can also be caused by hormonal imbalances, which can result in increased sebum production and clogging of the hair follicles.

The pathophysiology of acne can be explained by the following events:

a) Blockage of hair follicles and sebaceous glands by sebum.

b) Mixing of sebum with bacteria and dead skin cells.

c) Inflammation of the skin due to the accumulation of sebum, bacteria, and dead skin cells.

d) Formation of pimples, blackheads, and whiteheads.

In conclusion, the physiology of acne is linked to the sebaceous glands and the hair follicles, while the pathophysiology of acne is related to the blockage of hair follicles and sebaceous glands by sebum, which can lead to inflammation and the formation of pimples, blackheads, and whiteheads.

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What portion of the sperm contains the nucleus of this cell? Select one: O a. Middle piece b. Acrosome C. Head O d. Flagellum Which specific cells produce testosterone in the testes? Select one: a. Interstitial cells b. Sustentacular cells c. Spermatocytes O d. Spermatogonia

Answers

The nucleus of a sperm is located in the head part of the sperm. The correct option is C. Head. The cells that produce testosterone in the testes are called interstitial cells. The correct option is A.

The nucleus contains the genetic material of the sperm. It is located in the head part of the sperm. The acrosome is a membrane-bound organelle that lies at the tip of the head of a sperm cell. It is derived from the Golgi apparatus and contains enzymes that help the sperm penetrate the zona pellucida of the egg cell during fertilization.

The flagellum is the part of a sperm cell that helps it to swim towards the egg cell. It is a long and thin structure that protrudes from the back of the sperm cell. Testosterone is a hormone that is produced by the testes. It is responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics such as facial hair, deepening of the voice, and muscle mass.

Testosterone is produced by the Leydig cells, which are located in the interstitial tissue of the testes. The Sustentacular cells support the development of sperm cells in the testes, and the Spermatocytes and Spermatogonia are involved in the process of spermatogenesis. The correct option is A.

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Chymotrypsin is an enzyme, What is it substrate? what does it do? What are some key amino acids found in the active site?

Answers

Chymotrypsin is a digestive enzyme that primarily acts in the small intestine to break down proteins into smaller peptides. Its substrate is peptide bonds within proteins.

The main function of chymotrypsin is proteolysis, which is the process of breaking down proteins into smaller peptides. Specifically, chymotrypsin cleaves peptide bonds on the carboxyl side of aromatic amino acids such as phenylalanine, tryptophan, and tyrosine. It exhibits a preference for hydrophobic amino acids in the substrate.

It's important to note that chymotrypsin is just one of the proteases involved in protein digestion, and different enzymes act at different stages of the process to ensure efficient breakdown of dietary proteins into smaller peptides and amino acids for absorption by the body.

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If someone stopped taking the pill or took the placebo pills for a week, which hormone levels would you expect to return to normal first? Select an answer and submit. For keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer. a. GnRH b. FSH c. LH d. Inhibin e. Testosterone

Answers

When someone stopped taking the pill or took the placebo pills for a week, the hormone levels you would expect to return to normal first is: GnRH.

GnRH stands for Gonadotropin-releasing hormone. GnRH is the hormone responsible for stimulating the production and release of other hormones in the body, specifically the gonadotropins. These include the follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and the luteinizing hormone (LH), which regulate the function of the reproductive organs.In women, the levels of GnRH increase in the days leading up to ovulation. This causes an increase in the levels of FSH and LH, which stimulate the ovaries to release an egg. In men, GnRH is responsible for stimulating the production of testosterone, which is necessary for sperm production. Therefore, when someone stops taking the pill or takes the placebo pills for a week, the hormone levels that would return to normal first is GnRH.

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Rem 200 of 200 Mark Customized subget for 200. A 24-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of a 3-day history of increasingly severe abdominal pain and vomiting. He has no history of major medical nesses hospital admissions, or operations. The patient is in obvious distress. His pulse is 110/min. On examination, his abdomen is slightly tympanitic with high-pitched bowel sounds. There is involuntary guarding on palpation. A CT scan of the abdomen shows congenital nonrotation of the bowel. Which of the following structures would have been the center visit this patient's bowel had rotated normally? A) Celiac artery B) Inferior mesenteric artery C) Median umbilical ligament D) Superior mesenteric artery E) Umbilical vein F) Urachus

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d)  If the patient's bowel had rotated normally, the structure at the center would have been the Superior mesenteric artery.

In normal embryological development, the bowel undergoes rotation to assume its final position in the abdomen. The Superior mesenteric artery (SMA) plays a crucial role in this rotation. It supplies blood to the midgut, which includes a significant portion of the small intestine and the proximal part of the large intestine.

In the case of congenital nonrotation of the bowel, the bowel fails to rotate properly during development. This can lead to complications such as volvulus, where the bowel twists on itself, causing obstruction and compromised blood supply. The patient's clinical presentation with severe abdominal pain and vomiting is consistent with such a complication.

Knowing the anatomy, it becomes apparent that if the bowel had rotated normally, the SMA would have been at the center. The SMA arises from the abdominal aorta and extends toward the small intestine, providing essential blood supply for proper intestinal function. In this patient, the abnormal rotation of the bowel has likely led to the development of his symptoms and the need for medical attention.

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X Question Completion Status: HIV is Ohighly contagious blood bome disease Ohighly contagious droplet bome disease highly contagious water bome disease Omildly contagious blood bome disease Omildly contagious droplet bome disease Omildly contagious water bome disease Oslightly contagious blood bome disease Osightly contagious water bome disease QUESTION 9 Most of the oral lesions seen in AIDS are due to An autoimmune response to the HIV virus opponunt viral and fungal infections over aggressive home care regimens The HIV vins destroying tissue directly QUESTION 10 in general people with autoimmune diseases should have Olonger appointments as they have trouble getting to appointments One spoirements as they wanted money as they will soon de only dental treatment in the operating room of a hospital noter appointments to keep the stress t amrinum 03 pines T

Answers

HIV is a blood-borne disease that is highly contagious. Most of the oral lesions observed in AIDS are due to the HIV virus destroying tissue directly.

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) is a virus that attacks the body's immune system, leaving it vulnerable to disease-causing organisms known as pathogens. It is transmitted through the transfer of body fluids, such as blood, semen, vaginal fluids, and breast milk, and is primarily transmitted through sexual intercourse, sharing syringes, and from mother to child during childbirth, breastfeeding, or pregnancy. It is essential to avoid contact with any of these fluids to avoid getting infected.

Oral lesions or diseases are common symptoms in HIV-infected individuals, and they occur due to various factors. The virus itself can cause tissue destruction in the oral cavity, which can lead to various infections and lesions. These lesions can occur due to fungal infections, viral infections, bacterial infections, or protozoan infections.In general, people with autoimmune diseases should have longer appointments as they have trouble getting to appointments.

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Which of the following is an implication of Hubel and Wiesels strabismus experiments (in which they cut an eye muscle on one side)?
O As long as lebt enters the retina of the alleated the visual sesun will develop normally. O The development of binocular cells in LGN depends on coordinated visual rom both eyes. O Altering Demo cemporal relationship been the moves is one cause long term changes in the visual cortex O There is so much plasticity in the cortex during critical periods that the effect of such manipulations are only short lasting
O As long as visual patterns are forward on the retina of the affected eye. the visual system will develop normally

Answers

Hubel and Wiesel's strabismus experiments (in which they cut an eye muscle on one side) revealed that the development of binocular cells in LGN is dependent on coordinated visual input from both eyes.

"The development of binocular cells in LGN depends on coordinated visual from both eyes" is the implication of Hubel and Wiesel's strabismus experiments in which they cut an eye muscle on one side.The experiments revealed that binocular cells in LGN development is reliant on visual input from both eyes. Therefore, if there is a deprivation of visual input in one eye during the critical period, the deprived eye will not develop proper binocular cells, leading to binocular blindness.

The critical period is a time in the early stages of development when specific changes in experience can shape neural circuits. It is worth noting that in these experiments, Hubel and Wiesel found that a cat's visual system might only be changed up to a certain point in development; after that point, plasticity is restricted and the system is considered mature.

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Tonia Gonzales loves singing high notes during her performances. Each of her performances lasts 3 hours and she can sweat at
around 2 liters per hour (sweat is less concentrated than the extracellular fluid in the body). What effect would this loss have on
urine concentration and rate of production? Explain the mechanisms involved.

Answers

The loss of sweat during Tonia Gonzales' performances would increase urine production and decrease urine concentration.

When Tonia sings high notes during her performances, she experiences increased physical exertion, which leads to sweating. Sweating is the body's way of regulating its temperature and maintaining homeostasis. During a 3-hour performance, with an average sweat rate of 2 liters per hour, Tonia would lose approximately 6 liters of sweat.

The loss of fluid through sweating triggers the body's compensatory mechanisms to maintain fluid balance. One of these mechanisms involves the kidneys. The kidneys play a crucial role in regulating the concentration and volume of urine. When the body loses water through sweating, the kidneys respond by conserving water to prevent dehydration. As a result, the urine becomes more concentrated. In other words, the kidneys reabsorb more water from the filtrate, reducing its volume and increasing its concentration.

However, in Tonia's case, the sweat she loses is less concentrated than the extracellular fluid in her body. This means that the loss of sweat would dilute the extracellular fluid, including the blood plasma. To restore the balance, the kidneys would excrete more water and produce a larger volume of urine. The increased urine production helps eliminate the excess water and maintain the body's fluid balance.

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A 23-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of pain in his left cheekbone area following a blow to his face in a fight at work 1 hour ago Physical examination shows exquisite tenderness, swelling, and ecchymosis over the left cheek. A CT scan shows a displaced complex fracture of the left zygomatic arch. The fracture site is surgically explored and reduced. Tension by which of the following muscles has the greatest potential to displace the surgically reduced fracture in this patient? A) Buccinator B) Lateral pterygoid C) Masseter D) Medial pterygoid

Answers

A CT scan shows a displaced complex fracture of the left zygomatic arch, the fracture site is surgically explored and reduced. Tension by the following muscles has the greatest potential to displace the surgically reduced fracture in this patient is B) Lateral pterygoid.

The lateral pterygoid muscle is the muscle that has the greatest potential to displace the surgically reduced fracture in this patient. A displaced complex fracture of the left zygomatic arch refers to an injury that affects the cheekbone and its surrounding structures. It is caused by a severe blow to the face. It is an injury that often leads to pain in the left cheekbone area.

The symptoms associated with a displaced complex fracture of the left zygomatic arch include swelling, ecchymosis, and exquisite tenderness of the left cheek, it is important to surgically explore and reduce the fracture. Failure to properly manage the injury can lead to complications such as facial deformity, facial numbness, and facial muscle weakness. Therefore displacement of the surgically reduced fracture in the 23-year-old man is likely to happen due to tension by the following muscle is the Lateral pterygoid. So the correct answer is  Lateral pterygoid.

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How many different sized products would result from pcr on this 7/8 heterozygote?.

Answers

PCR on the 7/8 heterozygote would yield two different-sized products: one of length 7 units and the other of length 8 units.

In PCR (polymerase chain reaction), the amplification process can result in different-sized products depending on the heterozygosity of the target DNA sequence.

A 7/8 heterozygote refers to a genomic locus where one allele has a length of 7 units (base pairs, for example) and the other allele has a length of 8 units. When PCR is performed on this heterozygote, two different-sized products can be expected.

One product will be amplified from the 7-unit allele, resulting in a PCR product of 7 units in length. The other product will be amplified from the 8-unit allele, resulting in a PCR product of 8 units in length. Therefore, in this particular case, PCR on the 7/8 heterozygote would yield two different-sized products: one of length 7 units and the other of length 8 units.
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Nyasha suffers from bulimia in the novel, Nervous
Conditions. Identify two other "nervous conditions" that arise
in the text and reveal how each is entangled with colonialism.

Answers

In the novel "Nervous Conditions," the protagonist Nyasha suffers from bulimia nervosa, an eating disorder. Two other nervous conditions that arise in the text and reveal how each is with colonialism are anxiety and depression.

Anxiety is a feeling of worry, nervousness, or unease about something with an uncertain outcome. Anxiety is one of the other "nervous conditions" that arise in the text and reveal how it is with colonialism. Anxiety arises due to the and uncertain circumstances that the characters face as a result of colonialism. The anxiety of the characters is a reflection of the colonial experience they endure and their struggle to adapt to the cultural differences between their own and the colonial cultures.

The anxiety is entangled with colonialism because it arises from the uncertainties of colonialism and the struggles that the characters have to go through to adapt to it. Depression is another "nervous condition" that arises in the text and reveal how it is entangled with colonialism. Depression arises due to the oppressive and restrictive circumstances that the characters face as a result of colonialism. The characters feel powerless to change their situation and feel trapped in the colonial system. Depression is with colonialism because it arises from the circumstances that the characters face and the lack of power that they have to change their situation.

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1. Mild-to-severe check pain caused by ischemia of the myocardium
[Choose ]
a. cardiomegaly
b. myocardial infarction
c. regurgitation
d. hypertension
e. murmur
f. hyperlipidemia
g. bradycardia
h. angina
i. CHF
j. endocarditis
k. cardiomyopathy
2. Enlargement of the heart
[Choose ]
a. cardiomegaly
b. myocardial infarction
c. regurgitation
d. hypertension
e. murmur
f. hyperlipidemia
g. bradycardia
h. angina
i. CHF
j. endocarditis
k. cardiomyopathy
3. A condition in which the heart can not pump enough blood to the rest of the body
[Choose ]
a. cardiomegaly
b. myocardial infarction
c. regurgitation
d. hypertension
e. murmur
f. hyperlipidemia
g. bradycardia
h. angina
i. CHF
j. endocarditis
k. cardiomyopathy
4. Blood flowing in the opposite direction from normal into the heart or between the heart chambers
[Choose ]
a. cardiomegaly
b. myocardial infarction
c. regurgitation
d. hypertension
e. murmur
f. hyperlipidemia
g. bradycardia
h. angina
i. CHF
j. endocarditis
k. cardiomyopathy
5. Pathologic heart sounds that are produced as a result of turbulent blood flow that is sufficient to produce audible noise.
[Choose ]
a. cardiomegaly
b. myocardial infarction
c. regurgitation
d. hypertension
e. murmur
f. hyperlipidemia
g. bradycardia
h. angina
i. CHF
j. endocarditis
k. cardiomyopathy
6. Arrhythmia in which the heart beats too slowly
[Choose ]
a. cardiomegaly
b. myocardial infarction
c. regurgitation
d. hypertension
e. murmur
f. hyperlipidemia
g. bradycardia
h. angina
i. CHF
j. endocarditis
k. cardiomyopathy
7. Abnormally high blood pressure
[Choose ]
a. cardiomegaly
b. myocardial infarction
c. regurgitation
d. hypertension
e. murmur
f. hyperlipidemia
g. bradycardia
h. angina
i. CHF
j. endocarditis
k. cardiomyopathy
8. Elevated levels of fat in the blood
[Choose ]
a. cardiomegaly
b. myocardial infarction
c. regurgitation
d. hypertension
e. murmur
f. hyperlipidemia
g. bradycardia
h. angina
i. CHF
j. endocarditis
k. cardiomyopathy

Answers

1. Angina is a mild-to-severe chest pain caused by ischemia of the myocardium.

2. Cardiomegaly is an enlargement of the heart.

3. Congestive heart failure (CHF) is a condition in which the heart cannot pump enough blood to the rest of the body.

4. Regurgitation is blood flowing in the opposite direction from normal into the heart or between the heart chambers.

5. Murmur is pathologic heart sounds that are produced as a result of turbulent blood flow that is sufficient to produce audible noise.

6. Bradycardia is an arrhythmia in which the heart beats too slowly.

7. Hypertension is abnormally high blood pressure.

8. Hyperlipidemia is elevated levels of fat in the blood.

Therefore, the correct options are:a. Anginai. CHFc. Regurgitatione. Murmurg. Bradycardiah. Hypertensionf. Hyperlipidemia

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Let the person look for articles on firing temperatures of porous materials

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If a person is looking for articles on firing temperatures of porous materials, they can start their search with keywords like "porous materials," "firing temperatures," and "ceramics."

Some potential resources for finding such articles could include academic databases like JSTOR or ScienceDirect, as well as industry publications such as Ceramics Monthly or the Journal of the American Ceramic Society. By using these resources, the person may be able to find articles that discuss the various factors that can affect firing temperatures of porous materials, such as the type of material being fired, the shape and size of the object, and the desired final outcome.

Additionally, they may be able to find information on specific techniques or processes that can be used to achieve optimal firing results.

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Cladograms are scientific hypotheses that can be overturned by new data. True False Angiosperm plants did not appear until after the extinction of the dinosaurs. True False The definition of an analogous character is "a character that has a similar function to a character in a different organism, but these similarities are due to different evolutionary origins". True False In evolution, non-genetic changes that occur during an organism's life span, such as increases in muscle mass due to exercise and diet, cannot be passed on to the next generation. True False The definition of a monophyletic group is "a group of organisms that has a single ancestor and contains only some of the descendants of this unique ancestor". True False An ichnofossil is any part of the hard skeleton left behind by a vertebrate in the fossil record. True False

Answers

An ichnofossil is any part of the hard skeleton left behind by a vertebrate in the fossil record. This statement is false. An ichnofossil is a trace fossil, which is any indirect evidence of past life, such as tracks, burrows, and feces. It is not part of the hard skeleton left behind by a vertebrate.

Cladograms are scientific hypotheses that can be overturned by new data. This statement is true. Cladograms are diagrams that show the evolutionary relationship between organisms based on various traits. New data can cause changes to be made to cladograms which can result in a change to the interpretation of the evolutionary history of organisms.

Angiosperm plants did not appear until after the extinction of the dinosaurs. This statement is false. Angiosperms, also known as flowering plants, appeared in the fossil record at least 140 million years ago. Although the dinosaurs went extinct around 66 million years ago, angiosperms were already widespread and diversifying by that time.

The definition of an analogous character is "a character that has a similar function to a character in a different organism, but these similarities are due to different evolutionary origins". This statement is true. Analogous characters are traits that have evolved independently in different groups of organisms due to similar environmental pressures and not due to a shared ancestor.

In evolution, non-genetic changes that occur during an organism's life span, such as increases in muscle mass due to exercise and diet, cannot be passed on to the next generation. This statement is true. Non-genetic changes that occur during an organism's life span are not heritable and cannot be passed on to the next generation. Only genetic changes that occur in the germ cells, such as mutations, can be passed on to the offspring.

The definition of a monophyletic group is "a group of organisms that has a single ancestor and contains only some of the descendants of this unique ancestor". This statement is false. A monophyletic group is a group of organisms that has a single ancestor and contains all of the descendants of this unique ancestor. This group is also called a clade.

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