This is TRUE when the uti membrane test uses specialized chemicals to generate a color reaction that helps identify a gram-positive urinary tract infection.
A UTI may self-resolve.
Although some infections are different from others, he adds, "Yes, a UTI could go away on its own." Additionally, it might last longer if untreated. Uncomplicated UTIs, commonly known as cystitis, and complicated UTIs, which may be catheter-related or occur during pregnancy, are the two main kinds.
What treatment for urinary tract infection is most effective?The first line of defense against urinary tract infections is typically antibiotics. Which medication is prescribed and for how long depends on your health and the type of bacteria discovered in your urine.
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Which radiometric probe is appropriate to measure coyote skeleton, human skull, wagon wheel, shark tooth, trilobite, top rock, bottom rock
The radiometric probe that is used to measure the coyote skeleton, human skull, wagon wheel, shark tooth, trilobite, top rock, and bottom rock is known as radiometric dating.
What is a Radiometric probe?A radiometric probe may be defined as a small dipstick-type probe for radiometry measurements designed for the utilization of small intense sources of UV radiation.
According to the context of this question, geologists use radiometric dating in order to estimate how long ago rocks formed, and to do this, the age of the sedimentary layer in which the fossil occurs through bracketing.
Therefore, the radiometric probe that is used to measure the coyote skeleton, human skull, wagon wheel, shark tooth, trilobite, top rock, and bottom rock is known as radiometric dating.
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what percentage of the offspring will have trouble finding mates because they lack one of the dominant traits?
The ratio that represents the various genotypes of a test cross' offspring is called the genotypic ratio. It depicts the distribution of offspring in accordance with genotype, the genetic makeup that determines an organism's phenotype.
The genetic makeup of sperm and ova, the sex cells or gametes used in the conception, determines the genotype of an offspring. From each parent came one sex cell. Normal sex cells only contain one copy of each gene for each trait.
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Dual innervation means that visceral effectors are innervated by preganglionic axons from both parasympathetic and sympathetic (ANS) divisions.
A. True
B False
Dual innervation means that visceral effectors are innervated by preganglionic axons from both the parasympathetic and sympathetic (ANS) divisions is True.
Dual innervation of viscera means (1 Point) visceral organs receive preganglionic and postganglionic autonomic nerve fibers O Visceral organs receive both autonomic. This innervation is called double innervation. The parts of the body that show dual innervation are mostly effectors. An effector is a target of motor inputs/signals (the signals given by the CNS to the body to control its actions). These targets can be organs, muscles or glands. The sympathetic and parasympathetic (ANS) operate only through motor/efferent signals. The two divisions of the autonomic nervous system are the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
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Two types of farming in Central America are what? Slash and burn Farming, Diversion Terrace Farming Crop Rotation and Terrace farming Cash Crops and crop rotation None of the above
Two types of farming in Central America are Slash and burn Farming.
Define farming.
Managing a biological process, such cultivating crops or caring for livestock, in order to harvest products or reproduce a biological means of production, is often involved in farming, which is the typical activity that takes place on a farm.
Burn and slash Food is typically grown through agriculture, which involves clear-cutting wild or forested land and setting fire to any residual plants. The ash that results is nutrient-rich, helping to fertilize crops on the freshly cleared area.
A type of shifting cultivation is slash-and-burn, which refers to an agricultural system in which farmers frequently move from one cultivable area to another. Slash-and-burn agriculture is one of the only types of agriculture that can be used in tropical regions due to the leached soil, which is extremely nutritionally deficient in places like the Amazon. Instead of cultivating a single crop, slash-and-burn farmers typically plant a variety of crops, which increases biodiversity by fostering mosaic habitats. Other than a brief temporary patch, traditional slash-and-burn does not harm the ecosystem in its entirety. You could think of slash-and-burn farming as a type of agroforestry.
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a recessive allele on the x chromosome causes color blindness. a noncolor-blind woman (whose father is color blind) marries a color-blind man. what is the chance that their son will be color blind?
The answer is there will be 50% chance for the son to be color blind.
A 50% possibility exists that each of the son will be color blind. They wouldn't likely have to worry about any of their daughters. Because daughter are carriers, this is the case. Despite not being color blind themselves, individuals do have a small amount of the DNA that might cause color blindness. Because of the location and functioning of that particular DNA fragment, they are not color blind, but their sons are at danger. By the same reasoning, girls who are carriers could give birth to sons who are color blind. Each daughter has a 50% chance of being a carrier, and each son has a 50% chance of being color blind, if they have children with a man who is not color blind.
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In operant conditioning, reinforcement is ____.
a. any food that the organism likes
b. a stimulus that produces a reflexive response
c. an event that decreases the future probability of a response
d. an event that increases the future probability of a response
In operant conditioning, reinforcement is an event that increases the future probability of a response (Option d).
What is reinforcement in operant conditioning responses?Reinforcement in operant conditioning responses can be defined as any type of behavior and or action that increase a particular consequence such as occurs in the case of a punishment that reinforces the concomitant negative response in future situations.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that reinforcement in any type of operant conditioning response is a situation that increases the chances of having a particular consequence associated with such action.
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you identify a cap mutant protein that is constitutively bound to the cap site. under which conditions will the lac operon be transcribed at high levels in cells that contain this mutant protein? check all that apply.
Generally CAP binds to it's site and recruits RNA polymerase for transcription from lac operon in the absence of glucose and presence of lactose, hence option A is correct.
Escherichia coli, a helpful gut bacteria, needs amino acids to survive because, like humans, it needs to make proteins. Tryptophan is also the amino acids they need. There is a set of genes which are known as the lac operon that was discovered in the E. coli bacteria and codes for the tryptophan biosynthesis enzymes. When tryptophan levels are low, the trp operon is expressed (or "turned on"), and when levels are high, it is repressed (or "shut off"). The trp repressor controls the trp operon. The trp repressor prevents the operon from being expressed when it is linked to tryptophan. Attenuation controls the synthesis of tryptophan as well (a mechanism based on coupling of transcription and translation).
The complete answer is:
you identify a CAP mutant protein that is constitutively bound to the cap site. under which conditions will the lac operon be transcribed at high levels in cells that contain this mutant protein? check all that apply.
a) Lactose is present, glucose is not
b) Neither lactose nor glucose is present
c) Lactose and glucose are both present
d) Glucose is present, lactose is not
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true or false - ribosomal rna acts as a ribozyme, catalyzing peptide bond formation in protein synthesis.
The answer is true. Ribosomal RNA does act as a ribozyme, catalyzing peptide bond formation in protein synthesis.
What is Ribosomal RNA?
Ribosomal nucleic acid is a non coding RNA (ribonucleic acid). They are the primary part of ribosomes that is essential to all cells. rRNA is a ribozyme. It carries out protein synthesis in ribosomes.
rRNA molecules are synthesized in a special region of cell nucleus that is called nucleolus. It is a dense area inside the nucleus containing genes coding for rRNA.
The rRNAs that are coded are different in size. They are either large or small. There is at least one large rRNA and one small rRNA in each ribosome.
The large and small rRNAs combine with ribosomal proteins to form large and small subunits of the ribosome in the nucleolus (example: in bacteria, 50S and 30S.)
Therefore, ribosomal RNA does act as a ribozyme, catalyzing peptide bond formation in protein synthesis.
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the main conclusion darwin reached after his return from the expedition aboard the hms beagle was that
The majority of scientists, including Darwin, believed that each species was uniquely created by God in its current form and did not change over time. Darwin arrived at the following conclusions based on these straightforward observations.
Some people in a population will have inherited characteristics that help them thrive and procreate. Darwin's theories on natural selection were shaped by a trip to the Galapagos Islands in 1835. He discovered several finch species that were adapted to various ecological niches. The beak shapes, food sources, and methods used to capture food varied among the finches as well.
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Which of the following statements about how cytoplasmic determinants and induction help control which transcriptional activators are expressed by different cell types is TRUE?
*A. ALL
b. Cytoplasmic determinants are unevenly distributed in egg cells.
c. Induction causes the cells near the cell producing the inductive agent to express some of the same transcriptional activators.
d. Cytoplasmic determinants are unevenly distributed during cell division, causing the resulting daughter cells to express different combinations of transcriptional activators.
The statements that are true about cytoplasmic determinants and induction help control which transcriptional activators are expressed by different cell types Cytoplasmic determinants include molecules that are not polypeptides or mRNAs, Cytoplasmic determinants include mRNA molecules, and Cytoplasmic determinants include polypeptides.
Cytoplasmic determinants are outlined as entities local in particular cytoplasmic domains of the cell or embryonic container that bias the containers holding bureaucracy to assume particular possessions or fates all along embryogenesis. Cytoplasmic determinants are distinctive molecules that play a very main duty all along oocyte maturation, in the female's ovary.
Transcriptional activators are necessary to turn on the verbalization of genes in a eukaryotic container. Transcriptional activators accountable for the enhancer can promote either the recruitment of RNA polymerase II to the supporter or allure extension.
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The complete question is:
Which of the following statements about how cytoplasmic determinants and induction help control which transcriptional activators are expressed by different cell types is TRUE?
a. Cytoplasmic determinants include molecules that are not polypeptides or mRNAs.
*B. ALL
c. Cytoplasmic determinants include mRNA molecules.
d. Cytoplasmic determinants include polypeptides.
The first polymers were formed through dehydration synthesis. According to the experimental evidence, how did this process work?.
Polypeptides and other polymers were created spontaneously by abiotic means when hot rocks, sand, or clay concentrated a diluted solution of organic monomers from seawater.
Which of the following is a dehydration reaction example?A dehydration synthesis reaction is the creation of maltose. When water molecules are removed from a glycosidic connection between two alpha-glucose units, one maltose molecule results.
Which of the following statements most accurately sums up dehydration synthesis?Which of the following statements most accurately sums up dehydration synthesis? When a water molecule is removed from between two smaller molecules, they link together.
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how can norepinephrine stimualte the contraction of smooth muscle in one organ and the relaxation of smooth muscle in another organ
Which of the following ecological problems might result from applying phosphorus-rich fertilizer to a golf course? accumulation of toxic levels of phosphorus in animals in the vicinity, especially those higher on the food chain overabundance of algae and cyanobacteria in nearby lakes and rivers caused by phosphorus runoff a slowdown in the weathering of rock that releases phosphates into the soil under natural conditions O poisoning of the grass caused by excess phosphorus
Ecological problems that might result from applying phosphorus-rich fertilizer to a golf course will be (D) Poisoning of grass due to excess phosphorous.
Phosphorus is an element in the periodic table that has the symbol P and the atomic number 15. Phosphorus is a chemical element that may exist in two primary forms: white phosphorus and red phosphorus. Eutrophication, often known as the overgrowth of algae and massive aquatic plants, is a process that can be brought on by an excess of phosphorus. High phosphorus levels can also cause algal blooms, which can create toxins that are dangerous to both humans and animals. So among the given options option (D) is the right option.
Option (D) Poisoning of grass due to excess phosphorous.
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you are interested in how gpr279, a gpcr, functions within keratinocytes. a drug that specifically targets gpr279 was recently developed. after purchasing the drug, you add increasing concentrations of the drug to your keratinocyte cultures. after 24 hours, the cells were fixed, the dna was stained with a fluorescent dye, and the cells were run on flow cytometry. the following cell cycle profiles were produced. what could you most likely conclude about the drug treatment?
GPR279 activates Cdc25 activity most likely conclude about the drug treatment, ou add increasing concentrations of the drug to your keratinocyte cultures. after 24 hours, the cells were fixed, the dna was stained with a fluorescent dye.
(drug) Any substance (apart from food) that is used to treat, prevent, or relieve the symptoms of a disease or other abnormal state. In addition to changing mood, consciousness, thoughts, feelings, or behavior, drug may also alter how the brain and the rest of the body function.
Numerous cytokines that are produced by keratinocytes have crucial roles in modulating cutaneous immune responses, inflammation, wound healing, and the formation and development of certain neoplasms. Along with eicosanoids and prostaglandin (PG) E2, keratinocytes also create neuropeptides such propiomelanocortin and MSH.
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Streptococcus pneumoniae is an encapsulated gram-positive bacterium. What is the function of capsule in disease pathogenesis?.
In pathogenic bacteria, capsules serve as a major barrier between the bacterial surface and immune system components, delaying opsonophagocytosis or, in the case of Gram-negative bacteria, complement-mediated lysis.
What purpose does a capsule serve?The ability of capsules to mediate adhesion to surfaces, control access of certain molecules to the cell membrane, and improve desiccation resistance is crucial. Additionally, many pathogenic bacteria's capsules hinder phagocytosis and lessen complement-mediated death (22, 29, 30).
Do capsules have the potential to be pathogenic?Certain bacteria are enclosed in a thick covering of sugar and protein called a capsule. Because they make it simpler for the germs to make you sick, capsules are regarded as pathogenicity factors.
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please help me with this
Answer:
carrot, tree, grass
Explanation:
The ________ nervous system provides involuntary regulation of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular activity.
autonomic
The autonomic nervous system provides involuntary regulation of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular activity.
The peripheral nervous system's autonomic nervous system controls physiologic functions including digestion, breathing, blood pressure, and sexual arousal in addition to other involuntary functions like heart rate. It is divided into sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric regions, each of which has a unique anatomical structure. Some bodily functions, like blood pressure and respiratory rate, are regulated by the autonomic nervous system. The paraventricular nucleus of the hypothalamus is the critical brain region for the central regulation of the autonomic nervous system. Autonomic neuropathy most frequently results from diabetes. Infections with viruses or bacteria, certain drugs, or other medical disorders might potentially be the reason. The type of injured nerve affects the symptoms and course of therapy.
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Based on the phenotypes of the p generation and f1 generation, what are possible phenotypes in the f2 generation?.
When a monohybrid cross is in its F2 generation, Tall and Dwarf phenotypes are both present. The phenotypic ratio is 3:1.
The F1 and F2 generations are what?F2 generation is the second filial generation of the offspring produced through inbreeding of F1 people. F1 generation denotes the first filial generation of the offspring from the parents.
The P F1 F2 and F3 generations are what?The P parent generation's offspring are referred to as the F1 (for filial, or "offspring") generation. The children of F1 are known as the F2, and the children of F2 are known as the F3, the F4, the F5, and so on. This continues up until the last generation of the pedigree study.
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1) both animals and fungi are heterotrophic. what distinguishes animal heterotrophy from fungal heterotrophy is that only animals derive their nutrition by a) preying on animals. b) ingesting it. c) consuming living, rather than dead, prey. d) using enzymes to digest their food.
Both animals and fungi are heterotrophic. what distinguishes animal heterotrophy from fungal heterotrophy is that only animals derive their nutrition by the ingesting it.
Generally, vegetation make their meals the use of the sun's energy (photosynthesis), at the same time as animals eat, then internally digest, their meals. Fungi do neither: their mycelium grows into or across the meals source, secretes enzymes that digest the meals externally, and the mycelium then absorbs the digested nutrients.Most animals take meals into their our bodies and digest it there, such as you do.
This mode of vitamins, referred to as ingestion, distinguishes animals from different heterotrophs, which includes fungi, that digest meals out of doors their our bodies after which soak up the nutrients.Both animals and fungi are heterotrophic. What distinguishes animal heterotrophy from fungal heterotrophy is that most effective animals derive their vitamins by.. eating it.
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For a brainstem injury, what type of response would you expect when testing the triceps reflex?.
For a brainstem injury, Exaggerated type of response would you expect when testing the triceps reflex.
A reflex, also known as a reflex action, is an involuntary, unplanned sequence or action that occurs in response to a stimulus. Reflexes of varying complexity can be found in organisms with a nervous system. A reflex is triggered by neural pathways in the nervous system known as reflex arcs. A stimulus causes a neural signal to be sent to a synapse. The signal is then transmitted across a synapse to a motor neuron, which causes the target response to be elicited. Because neural signals do not always reach the brain, many reflexes are automatic responses to stimuli that do not require or receive conscious thought.
Reflex actions include the accommodation reflex, corneal reflex, pupillary reflex, blushing, acoustic reflex, ankle reflex, biceps reflex, and sneezing.
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At embryonic day 7.0 in mouse embryos, BMP4 and BMP8b are secreted from the extraembryonic ectoderm. In response to these factors a small population of cells at the posterior/caudal end of the embryo will _____. Finish the sentence with the best answer.A. express Blimp1 and become oocytesB. express Fragilis, Blimp1 and Stella and become primordial germ cellsC. express Fragilis, Blimp1 and Stella and become spermatozoaD. express retinoic acid and undergo meiosis.
BMP4 and BMP8b are released from extra embryonic ectoderm in mouse embryos around embryonic day 7.0.
A tiny number of cells at the posterior/caudal end of the embryo will C. Express Fragilis, Blimp1 and Stella and become spermatozoa cells as a result of these factors.
Hence the correct option is C;
The proteins BMP4 and BMP8b are in charge of the development of the embryo, particularly the creation of the bones and cartilages. These signaling molecules help build a dorsal-ventral axis and aid in early embryonic development.
Additionally, these chemicals cause the cells in the caudal end to secrete Blimp1, which is necessary for the development of mouse primordial germ cells.
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malonyl-coa is an intermediate in fatty acid synthesis. it also regulates fatty acid metabolism. which of the molecules regulate the enzyme that catalyzes malonyl‑coa synthesis? citrate fatty acids or fatty acyl-coa carnitine acetyl-coa oxaloacetate which of the enzymes does malonyl‑coa regulate?
Malonyl-coa is an intermediate in fatty acid synthesis. it also regulates fatty acid metabolism. Fatty acids or fatty acyl-CoA regulate the enzyme that catalyses malonyl coa synthesis.
Citrate fatty acids or fatty acyl-coA carnitine acetyl-coA oxaloacetate Carnitine acyltransferase regulates malonyl coA.
What is fatty acid?
A fatty acid is an aliphatic carboxylic acid having a saturated or unsaturated chain that is used in chemistry, notably in biochemistry. The majority of fatty acids that are found in nature contain an unbranched chain with an even number of carbon atoms, ranging from 4 to 28.
The substance that regulates enzymes catalyzing the formation of malonyl Co-A is known as fatty acids or fatty acyl-CoA. Acetyl-Co-A carboxylase is the enzyme responsible for catalyzing the production. The catalytic activities of the enzyme in fatty acid synthesis have an impact on the allosteric and covalent modifications.
Malonyl-CoA activity is controlled by the enzyme carnitine acyltransferase. Fatty acids are suppressed by malonyl-CoA so they can pair with carnitine.
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Move the descriptions or examples to their correct category to review various types of microbial virulence factors.
The description to their correct category of types of microbial virulence factors are:
Exoenzyme:
During amoebic dysentery, mucinase is generated. Staphylococci and streptococci produce hyaluronidase Kinases (streptokinase, staphylokinase) (streptokinase, staphylokinase) Staphylococci produce coagulase.
Endotoxin:
Fever-inducing widespread impact on several tissues and organs lipopolysacharide
Exotoxin:
The hemolysins that Streptococcus pyogenes produces
Action is unique to one type of cell
Tetanospasmin from Clostridium tetani
The capacity of a pathogen or microbe to harm a host is known as virulence. The degree of harm an organism does to its host is referred to as virulence in most systems, particularly those that are animal-based. The virulence factors of an organism determine its pathogenicity, or capacity to inflict disease.
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Imagine a population evolving by genetic drift in which the frequency of the k allele is 0. 2. What is the probability that at some point in the future allele k will drift to a frequency of 1? your answer should be a one decimal place answer.
The probability that allele k will drift to a frequency of 1.0 in the future is 0.5, given that genetic drift is a random and non-directional method of evolution that drastically modifies the gene or allele frequency in every population.
What is the process of genetic drift?Genetic drift is the process by which a population's allele frequencies change over successive generations due to randomness (sampling error). It is more effective in smaller populations.
Since genetic drift is a random and ad hoc mechanism of evolution, its results are unpredictable. It's possible that it changes the frequencies of other alleles while keeping the fixed frequency of 1.0 for the allele k.
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Is a reduction division which produces cells with half the normal number of chromosomes.
The different sort of mobileular department, meiosis, guarantees that people have the equal range of chromosomes in every generation. It is a two-step technique that reduces the chromosome range via way of means of 1/2 of—from forty six to 23—to shape sperm and egg cells.
Gametes comprise 1/2 of the chromosomes contained in regular diploid cells of the body, that are additionally called somatic cells. Haploid gametes are produced throughout meiosis, that's a sort of mobileular department that reduces the range of chromosomes in a determine diploid mobileular via way of means of 1/2 of.
The first spherical of nuclear department that happens throughout the formation of gametes is known as meiosis I. It is likewise called the discount department because it consequences in cells which have 1/2 of the range of chromosomes because the determine mobileular.
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some populations have a distribution that is very limited because of the abiotic factors to which they are adapted. for example, some species of butterfly require a minimum amount of rainfall each year in order to survive and reproduce. if a prolonged drought, that is, one longer than 10 years, occurs across a portion of their range, how will their range change after three years into the drought? please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices the butterfly range will remain the same because rain will fall again after the drought is over. the butterfly range will contract into only those regions with adequate rain. the butterfly range will increase to regions that have adequate rain.
Answer: The butterfly range will contract into only those regions with adequate rain
Explanation:
describe how mutations, gene flow, nonrandom mating, genetic drift, and natural selection can cause changes in the frequency of an allele in a population by explaining how each violates the assumptions of the hwe.
Mutations, gene flow, nonrandom mating, genetic drift, and natural selection can cause changes in the frequency of an allele in a population
Define allele.
One of two or more variations of the DNA sequence (a single base or a segment of bases) at a certain genomic region is referred to as an allele. For any given genomic location where such variation exists, an individual inherits two alleles, one from each parent. An individual is homozygous for an allele if the two alleles are identical. The person is heterozygous if the alleles differ.
Alleles are added to a gene pool by mutations. As a result, the frequency of particular allele combinations in the population changes, leading to gradual population evolution. They play a significant role in the evolution of novel gene variants.
Gene flow is typically accompanied by a significant population and a gradual shift in gene frequencies. Genetic admixture is the gradual integration of the genes of migrant populations, each of which has its own distinctive allele frequencies, into the gene pool of the population into which they have migrated.
Although it can alter genotype frequencies, non-random mating won't change the population's allele frequencies on its own. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is prevented, but it's questionable whether this qualifies as evolution given that the allele frequencies are remaining constant.
Natural selection occurs when individuals with a particular genotype are more likely to survive and reproduce than individuals with a different genotype, and thereby to pass on their alleles to the following generation. There is variation in some traits among individuals within a population. This variant is inherited. Changes in this trait correspond to changes in fitness.
The sampling mistake that comes with individuals in a finite population transmitting gametes leads to genetic drift. Genetic drift is a process of evolution that is characterized by erratic changes in the prevalence of a particular gene allele in a population. The impacts of genetic drift can be severe, often leading to features in a community becoming overly prevalent or disappearing, even though it usually affects small, isolated populations.
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A box has a strong force pushing on it to the right and a weaker force pushing
on it to the left. The force from the ground and the force from gravity cancel
each other out.
What direction will the net force go?
Answer:
Left.
Explanation:
It will go left because, if the stronger force is pushing on the right, that means it'll go left. And then the weaker force is pushing on the left, so it will go right. So, if one force is stronger than the other, then the stronger force will be working more efficiently and it'll go the way that the stronger force is pushing. (Even though it says the ground and the force from gravity cancel each other out, it doesn't really matter, because they cancel each other out. So, they aren't even doing anything).
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Some emus run fast (between 30-35 mph) and other emus run
slower (between 20-25 mph.) Dingos are the main predators of
emus and at their absolute fastest can reach speeds of up to 30
mph. Emus lay between 30-50 eggs a year, but only 20 of those
eggs will live long enough to mature into their own reproductive
age.
Fast emus will survive longer and reproduce more and eventually most of the population will become fast which is referred to as descent of modification and is a true statement.
What is descent with modification?This is referred to as the process in which different types of traits are passed down from generation to generation and in some cases undergo changes or modifications over time.
These different modifications are usually caused by natural selection or mutation in the DNA of the organism which in this case makes the organism to run faster and escape from predators which is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.
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The full question is:
Some emus run fast (between 30-35 mph) and other emus run slower (between 20-25 mph.) Dingos are the main predators of emus and at their absolute fastest can reach speeds of up to 30mph. Emus lay between 30-50 eggs a year, but only 20 of those eggs will live long enough to mature into their own reproductive age. true/false
present in newborn females, __ follicles can remain in a resting state for up to five decades? primary, secondary, primordial, tertiary,
Present in the newborn female, the primordial follicle can remain in a resting state for up to five decades.
Ovarian follicleOvarian follicles are small fluid-filled sacs found inside a woman's ovaries. Follicles secrete hormones, such as estrogen and progesterone, that affect the menstrual cycle.
In the body, follicles have several functions:
Feeds and protects the egg.Releasing reproductive hormones such as estrogen and androgens.Transforms into the corpus luteum after ovulation, which releases the hormone progesterone. This hormone functions to prepare the lining of the uterus for the process of implanting an embryo if pregnancy occurs.Stages of ovarian follicle development
Primordial follicle: This is the earliest stage, namely the follicles that are in the ovaries of newborns.Primary follicle: A small number of primordial follicles develop into primary follicles every day. This process begins at puberty and continues until menopause.Secondary follicle: At this stage, the follicle develops and contains theca cells, which release hormones, such as androgens and estrogens.Tertiary follicles or also called antral follicles: This follicle contains a fluid-filled space called the antrum. At this stage, the follicles can be seen via transvaginal ultrasound.Graafian Follicle: This is the largest follicle, mature, and ready to ovulate. Only 1-2 tertiary follicles in each menstrual cycle eventually mature and ovulate.Corpus luteum: The ovulated follicle develops into the corpus luteum, which releases the hormone progesterone.Learn more about ovarian follicles at: https://brainly.com/question/9544017
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